which of these is an autotroph

Which Of These Is An Autotroph

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

E. phytoplankton

Explanation:

Phytoplankton, tiny organisms that live in the ocean, are autotrophs.

I hope this helps!

Answer 2

Answer:

E. phytoplankton

Explanation:

Phytoplankton is an autotroph because it produces its own food.


Related Questions

A scientist isolated the Hepatitis B surface protein gene and introduced it into the DNA of a banana plant. The scientist tested the bananas and found that they now contained the Hepatitis surface protein. What conclusion is supported by the results of the experiment?

A. The gene for surface protein was transcribed and translated.
B. The gene for surface protein mutated inside the banana plant’s cells.
C. The gene for surface protein altered the function of other banana genes.
D. The gene for surface protein protected banana plants from bacterial infections.

Answers

Answer:

A. The gene for surface protein was transcribed and translated.

Explanation:

Because all living organisms use the same genetic code, it is possible to express genes from one organism in the other. In this case, the DNA sequence that corresponds to the hepatitis B surface protein gene has been inserted into the banana, and the protein is expressed.

For the protein to be expressed, the gene must have been successfully transcribed into an mRNA by the banana plant machinery. This mRNA has then been translated into a protein that means the hepatitis B surface protein is now present in the cell.


AWNSER ASAP PLEASE!!!

Place these percentages in order from most accurate(#1) to least accurate(#5). A class of chemistry students was finding the percent of water in a hydrate. The known value from the literature was 43%. The percentage each pair of students calculated from their lab results is given. ITEM BANK: Move to Bottom Group 1: 66.12% Group 2: 7.11% Group 3: 57.21% Group 4: 22.00% Group 5: 45.55% 1 2 3 4 5

Answers

Answer:

4,2,1,3,5

Explanation:

I believe this is right

Answer:

Explanation:

5,3,4,1,2

Which statement describes an element?

Answers

Answer: An element is a pure substance that can not be broken into smaller particles.

Explanation: An element may comprises of two or more atoms that are chemically embedded or combined together. Elements are building blocks of matter, they are mostly abundant in the universe e.g Oxygen, Hydrogen, Carbon.

Answer:an element is a pure substance, an element is made of only one type of atom, and an element cannot be broken down into a simpler form.

Explanation:

If a disorder limits the number of calcium ions that combine to actin, what would happen to the sarcomere? A) The myosin and actin would not separate, and the sarcomere would be unable to contract. B) The myosin and actin would not separate, and the sarcomere would remain contracted. C) The myosin and actin will not connect, and the sarcomere would remain contracted. D) The myosin and actin would not connect, and the sarcomere would be unable to contract.​

Answers

Option D: The myosin and actin would not connect, and the sarcomere would be unable to contract.

Explanation:

Muscle contraction takes place by sliding interaction and cross-bridge formation of the muscle filaments – actin and myosin present in the muscle fibers or sarcomeres. This interaction is called a sliding filament theory.  

Calcium is one of the main co-factors which regulate muscle contraction and relaxation. The two proteins which regulate muscle contraction – troponin, tropomyosin- require calcium to function.

Calcium acts along with troponin to facilitate binding of actin and myosin. When there is a lack of calcium, the binding of myosin and actin does not happen and the sarcomere cannot contract.  

How does your body grow as you get older?

Your cells fill with water, and get bigger.

Your cells divide, producing new cells.


Your cells elongate.

Your cells combine with one another.

Answers

Answer: it B for sure

Explanation: you grow because your cells divide

Answer:

your cells divide produceing new cells you get new cells everyday sence you ever exsisted

Explanation:

Which is a physical property?
1.boiling point
2.chemical stability
3.burning point
4.reactivity

Answers

Answer:

Which is a physical property?

Physical property include reactivity

Explanation:

Reactivity entails the reaction when compounds mix with each other, such reaction might be noticed by change in color, loss of water, among others

A researcher incubates a cell with radiolabeled amino acids. These amino acids are incorporated into the proteins as they are synthesized by the cell. Select which piece of data would indicate the incorporation of radiolabeled amino acids during protein synthesis? A) Radioactivity levels would increase first at the nucleus, followed by the Golgi, and then the cell membrane. B) Radioactivity levels would increase first at the nucleus, followed by the ribosomes, and then the secretory vesicles. C) Radioactivity levels would increase first at the rough endoplasmic reticulum, followed by the Golgi, and then the secretory vesicles. D) Radioactivity levels would increase first at the rough endoplasmic reticulum, followed by the nucleus, and then the secretory vesicles.

Answers

Answer:

During an investigation, the addition of radiolabeled amino acids during protein synthesis occurs when the data shows high levels of radiation in protein synthesis, packaging and transport, which is equivalent to saying that radioactivity levels would first increase in the rough endoplasmic reticulum, followed by the Golgi and then the secretory vesicles (option C).

Explanation:

Protein synthesis in the cell is a process that involves the formation of polypeptide chains with the successive incorporation of amino acids.

RNA, which contains the sequence of triplets or codons that form the genetic code, is coupled to the ribosomes. Each codon or triplet consists of three nucleotides and encodes specific amino acids.

The RNA chain contains a specific nucleotide sequence and determines the assembly of amino acids to a polypeptide chain, by the action of ribosomes present in the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

In the Golgi apparatus, the proteins formed are conjugated, with the addition of carbohydrates or lipids, and arranged in secretory vesicles for transport.

In these steps, where the labeled amino acids are present, the levels of radioactivity would increase in the rough endoplasmic reticulum, the Golgi apparatus and the secretory vesicles.

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Answer:

c is the answer

Explanation:

What role does the enzyme DNA polymerase play in transcription, related to the promoter and terminator sequences on DNA?
It knows when a strand of mRNA should leave the cell's nucleus.
It knows where to begin transcribing and where to stop.
It knows how to synthesize DNA from mismatched codons.
It knows which codons are needed to replace thymine with uracil.

Answers

The enzyme DNA polymerase play in transcription, related to the promoter and terminator sequences on DNA is It knows where to begin transcribing and where to stop.

The correct option is (B).

DNA polymerase is not directly involved in transcription. Instead, it is primarily involved in DNA replication, where it synthesizes a new strand of DNA using a template DNA strand. Transcription, on the other hand, is the process of synthesizing RNA from a DNA template.

During transcription, RNA polymerase is the enzyme responsible for synthesizing RNA from a DNA template. However, DNA polymerase indirectly influences transcription through its interaction with promoter and terminator sequences on DNA.

1. Promoter sequences: DNA polymerase does not directly recognize promoter sequences. Instead, RNA polymerase binds to the promoter region of DNA to initiate transcription. Promoter sequences provide the necessary signals and binding sites for RNA polymerase to recognize and bind to the DNA template, initiating the transcription process. Therefore, DNA polymerase's role in transcription related to promoter sequences is indirect.

2. Terminator sequences: Similarly, DNA polymerase does not directly recognize terminator sequences. Once RNA polymerase reaches the terminator sequence on the DNA template during transcription, it signals the termination of transcription, and the newly synthesized RNA molecule is released. Terminator sequences provide the signal for RNA polymerase to terminate transcription and release the RNA transcript. Again, DNA polymerase's role in transcription related to terminator sequences is indirect.

In summary, while DNA polymerase is not directly involved in transcription, its role indirectly influences transcription through the maintenance of the DNA template and its interaction with promoter and terminator sequences. DNA polymerase ensures the integrity and fidelity of the DNA template, which is essential for the accurate initiation and termination of transcription by RNA polymerase at promoter and terminator sequences, respectively. Therefore, option B is the most accurate description of DNA polymerase's role in transcription related to promoter and terminator sequences on DNA.

What did Charles Lyell's Principles of Geology impress upon Darwin?
the age of the earth may be much older than once thought
that populations are naturally limited
o that finches are the best potential model organisms for evolution
Lyell described Natural Selection

Answers

Charles Lyell's principle that the age of earth may be much older than once thought impressed upon Darwin.

Explanation:

Charles Lyell is one among the earlier thinkers whose studies influenced Darwin and he lived in the 1797-1875 period. while on his voyage in Beagle Darwin took the book of Charles Lyell, Principles of Geology with him.

In this book Lyell argues that the earth's surface was formed as a result of gradual geological processes indicating that the earth was much older than what many believed at that time.

Which biomes cross boundaries between different climate zones?

Answers

The Grassland and Forest biome crosses boundaries between different climate zones.

What are biomes?

Biomes are areas with various climates and vegetation.

There are major five types of biomes present

aquatic. Grasslandforestdeserttundra

The type of climate and the plant and animal species found there makes up a biome.

Thus, the Grassland and Forest biome crosses boundaries between different climate zones.

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Final answer:

Biomes such as tropical forests, deserts, and temperate forests cross different climate zones due to their characteristic climates and are found in multiple continents. Transitional areas called ecotones exist between biomes, and climate significantly influences biodiversity, generally increasing towards the equator.

Explanation:

Biomes Crossing Climate Zones

Biomes are large geographical areas characterized by specific plant and animal communities that are adapted to the region's climate and environmental conditions. Biomes such as tropical forests, deserts, and savannas are found in different continents but are connected by common climatic features. For instance, tropical forests are prevalent in South America, Africa, Southeast Asia, and Australia, all areas close to the equator with high humidity and temperature. Deserts typically occur at the 30 degrees north and south latitude and are prominent in the Middle East, southwestern United States, and other regions with arid conditions. Temperate forests and grasslands are found in North America, Europe, and Asia, with moderate climates and varying precipitation.

One important aspect to understand about biomes is the presence of ecotones, which are transitional zones between two distinct biomes. Ecotones include a mix of plant and animal species from each adjacent biome and can be found between various biome types like desert and mountains or chaparral and polar ice. Within the North American context, the diverse climate and weather systems influence the distribution and characteristics of different biomes, with variations observed from west to east and from north to south.

An electrocardiogram is a test that doctors use to assess cardiovascular health. The image below shows data given by an electrocardiogram.


What type of data is recorded by the electrocardiogram?

A.
the electrical activity of the heart
B.
the amount of oxygen in the blood
C.
the sound of the heart beating
D.
the force from the heart beating

Answers

The answer is A. An electrocardiogram (EEG) measures the electrical activity of the heart to see if there’s any irregularities in the heartbeat. Irregularities in your heartbeats can be caused by many things including blockages which can cause strokes and heart attacks. It’s a good idea for students or any athletes to get an EEG as part of their physicals to rule out any heart issues.

Answer:

the electrical activity of the heart

Explanation:

HELP QUICK, 20 POINTS.
picture above. thank you

Answers

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Sublimation is the transition of a substance directly from the solid to the gas phase, without passing through the intermediate liquid phase.

Answer: It is D carbon dioxide, or dry ice; sublimation.

What’s a Axial portion?

Answers

The “Axial Portion” of your body consists of your head, neck, and trunk. Within the axial portion of the body are two large, membrane-lined cavities, the dorsal cavity and the ventral cavity. The dorsal cavity contains the central nervous system.
Final answer:

The Axial portion refers to the central part of the body, encompassing the head, neck, and trunk. It houses vital organs like the brain, heart, and lungs. It's pivotal in studying human anatomy, particularly in biology or health sciences.

Explanation:

The Axial portion is a term used in anatomy and refers to the central part of the body, including the head, neck and trunk. It's essentially the main part of the body that houses critical organs such as the brain, heart, and lungs, among other components. It's often contrasted with the appendicular portion, which includes the appendages (limbs).

Understanding the axial portion of the body can be crucial for studying the human body, especially in terms of biology or health sciences. It allows you to easily locate specific organs and structures within the body, enhancing your understanding of bodily functions and processes.

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HELP THIS IS DUE IN AN HOUR!!!!!!!!!!!!​

Answers

one is a and two is a as well

Answer:

1. Amber is made from tree resin.

2. All of the above

3. When a insect gets stuck in tree resin, the insect eventually becomes covered with the sticky resin. After millions of years, the resin hardens and becomes ember.

Mendel crossed a tall pea plant with a short pea plant. All the offspring in the first generation were tall pea plants.

How did Mendel explain why all the offspring were tall pea plants?

a. The offspring may have tall or short plants. Mendel did not do enough trials.

b. Two factors affect the height trait of pea plants. One of the factors is dominant over the other.

c. The genes for determining short plants were not transferred to the offspring.

Answers

Answer: b). Two factors affect the height trait of pea plants. One of the factors is dominant over the other.

Explanation: All the offsprings are tall because each of them inherited one gene for tallness and one gene for shortness. The gene for tallness is dominant over the gene for shortness, and so the gene for tallness is able to express itself in the presence of the recessive gene for shortness.

See the attached punnet square for more information.

Final answer:

Mendel explained that the tall trait in pea plants is dominant over the short trait, so the tall trait appeared in all first-generation offspring when crossing a tall pea plant with a short one. This outcome demonstrated that each plant carries two hereditary factors for each trait, and the dominant factor determines the offspring's appearance.

Explanation:

Mendel crossed a tall pea plant with a short pea plant, and all the offspring in the first generation were tall pea plants. Mendel explained that two factors affect the height trait of pea plants, and that one of the factors is dominant over the other. Therefore, even though each plant in the F1 generation carried both tall and short factors, the tall factor was dominant, and thus all the F1 generation plants exhibited the tall height. This disproved the blending inheritance hypothesis of the time and laid the groundwork for our understanding of genetics with Mendel's Laws of Inheritance, specifically the law of segregation. Therefore, option b. Two factors affect the height trait of pea plants. One of the factors is dominant over the other is the correct answer.

The distance north or south of the equator , as measured in degrees is called?

Answers

Answer:

longitude

Explanation:

The distance north or south of the equator, as measured in degrees is called latitude. The correct option is D.

What is latitude?

Latitude is the term used to describe the distance north and south of the equator, expressed in degrees.

Latitude is used to calculate how far north or south of the Equator you are. It is calculated using 180 fictitious lines that are drawn in circles east-west along the equator.

Parallels are the names for these lines. An imaginary ring connecting all places that share a parallel is known as a circle of latitude.

The line at latitude 0 is known as the Equator. With 90 degrees north of the Equator and 90 degrees south of the Equator, each parallel is one degree north or south of the Equator.

Thus, the correct option is D.

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Your question seems  incomplete, the missing options are:

the prime meridian

the arctic circle

longitude

latitude

Ricky notices a similarity between a fried egg and the diagram of a cell. Which cell organelles is Ricky likely to associate with the parts of the egg?
centriole
cytoplasm
nucleus
chloroplast
plasma membrane
endoplasmic reticulum

Answers

Answer:

Egg yolk is nucleus

The egg white is cytoplasm

The outside of the egg is plasma membrane

I will edit if I get it right after I finish my test

Ricky correlate egg yolk with nucleus and egg white is cytoplasm, outer covering with plasma membrane.

What are the components of plasma membrane of animal cell ?

The plasma membrane is a thin selectively semi-permeable membrane an outer covering of a cell by surrounding cytoplasm.

The two major components are proteins and lipids where as the ratio of  protein to lipid in plasma membrane may vary depending on types of cells.

The most common lipids are phospholipid, others are sphingolipid, glycolipid in semi-permeable lipid bilayer.

Some organelles nucleus and mitochondria also have bilayer plasma membrane.

The function of cell membrane is to protect the integrity of the internal environment of the cell, act as a base of attachment for the cytoskeleton in some organisms resulted in support cell and maintain its shape.

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A man has red-green color blindness. His wife is not color-blind, nor is she a carrier. They give birth to a baby boy. Their doctor says there is zero possibility that the son has red-green color blindness. Which of the following is a possible explanation of the doctor's statement?

Red-green color blindness is a dominant autosomal trait.
Red-green color blindness is a Y-linked trait.
Red-green color blindness is an X-linked trait.
Red-green color blindness is carried by mitochondrial DNA.

Answers

Red-green color blindness is an X-linked trait.  

Explanation:

A red-green color blindness is a hereditary disease which occurs with inheritance of recessive X linked chromosomes, which depicts that the gene or allele causing this defect is presents on the X chromosome.

Since males can express the recessive gene with one copy of the X chromosomes, this defect is more common among men than women.

So even if a grandfather has this defect, this may get inherited by his grandson, while his mother might just be a carrier.

This is the reason why the baby boy inherited the red-green blindness from his father.

Read the observation, question, and hypothesis. Then, choose the independent variable from the list.
Observation: Bread seems to turn moldy faster in summer than in winter.
Question: Do hotter summer temperatures turn bread moldy faster?
Hypothesis: Bread turns moldy faster at higher temperatures,
The independent variable is
bread
mold.
summer.
temperature

Answers

The independent variable in this experiment is the temperature, as it is the factor being changed to observe its effect on the rate at which bread turns moldy, which is the dependent variable.

In the described scenario, the independent variable is the factor that is changed or controlled to test the effects on the dependent variable, which is the rate at which bread turns moldy. The hypothesis provided states, "Bread turns moldy faster at higher temperatures," which predicts the outcome based on changes made to the independent variable. Therefore, the independent variable is temperature.

During the investigation, it is essential to keep other factors constant, such as the type of bread, the amount of moisture, and exposure to air, among others, so that they do not affect the outcome and interfere with the validity of the experiment.

Which of the following is an example of the skeletal system interacting directly with the
respiratory system?

A The ribcage expands to allow air to enter the lungs.
B The muscles attached to bones contract to lift your leg.
C The marrow inside bones produces white blood cells.
D The vertebrae protect the spinal cord from injury,​

Answers

A.

The ribcage expands to allow air to enter the lungs is an example of the skeletal system interacting directly with the respiratory system.

Explanation:

The skeletal system is mainly made up of bones - like the ribcage in this case - while the respiratory system is made up of the lungs, trachea, diaphragm, etc.  

When inhaling, the diaphragm contracts, therefore increasing the volume of the chest cavity. The muscles between the ribs also contract causing the ribcage to stretch upwards and outwards. This also contributes to an increase in the volume of chest cavity. Consequently, the pressure in the chest, decreases causing atmospheric pressure to rush  air into the lungs.

When these muscles contract, they raise the pressure in the chest cavity causing air to rush out of the lungs.

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Which statements are true for a protein whose genetic sequence has 11 codons?

Select all that apply.

1.) It starts with an arginine amino acid.
2.)One start codon and one stop codon are used for its synthesis.
3.)The piece of genetic code used for its production contains 11 codons.
4.)The stop codon codes for methionine.
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Answers

Answer: 2.)One start codon and one stop codon are used for its synthesis.

3.)The piece of genetic code used for its production contains 11 codons.

Explanation: Codons are a piece of genetic materia made up of three nucleotides which codes for a specific amino acid. During protein synthesis, one start codon signals the initiation of protein synthesis while one stop codon signals the termination of protein synthesis. The start codon codes for methionine while the stop codon codes for no amino acid. A protein whose genetic sequence has 11 codons is synthesized using a piece of genetic code with 11 codons. There are generally 64 codons. One of which is the start codon while three of which are stop codons. The start codon is AUG while the stop codons are UAA, UAG and UGA.

Only statement 2 is correct; it states that one start codon and one stop codon are used for the protein's synthesis. The start codon codes for methionine, and the stop codons do not code for any amino acid.

To determine which statements are true for a protein whose genetic sequence has 11 codons, let's analyze each option:

1) It starts with an arginine amino acid: This statement is incorrect. According to the genetic code, the start codon for all proteins is AUG, which codes for methionine, not arginine.2) One start codon and one stop codon are used for its synthesis: This statement is correct. Protein synthesis starts with an AUG start codon (coding for methionine) and typically ends with one of the three stop codons (UAA, UAG, or UGA).3) The piece of genetic code used for its production contains 11 codons: This statement is incorrect due to the presence of start and stop codons. If there are 11 codons specified in the question, it implies that 9 codons encode amino acids, while 1 is a start codon and 1 is a stop codon.4) The stop codon codes for methionine: This statement is incorrect. Stop codons (UAA, UAG, UGA) do not code for any amino acid; they signal the termination of protein synthesis.

Only the statement that one start codon and one stop codon are used for its synthesis is correct. The start codon AUG initiates protein synthesis, while a stop codon terminates it.

Plants also need water as a reactant for photosynthesis. The chemical formula for
water is H20. There are two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom present in one
H2O molecule. Make a model of H2O using one green and two yellow paper clips
from the bag.​

Answers

Answer:

The model of water from paper clips can be made as follows:

1) As a water molecule has a single atom of hydrogen, we can place the single green paper clip in the center. This green paper clip will depict a hydrogen atom.

2) As two oxygen atoms are present in a molecule of water we can place each of the two yellow paper clips at the sides of the green paper clip. These yellow paper clips will depict the oxygen atoms.

Which is not a source of carbon dioxide gas?
A humans
B machines
C plants
D factories

Answers

Answer is
C. Plants
The answer is C, plants

During which process is mRNA converted into a sequence of amino acids for protein production?
transcription
translation
translocation
mRNA synthesis

Answers

Answer: Translation

Explanation: Translation is a process in which an mRNA strand is copied into an amino acid sequence for protein synthesis. The first step in protein synthesis is the copying of a DNA molecule into a complimentary mRNA molecule in a process known as transcription. The mRNA is then converted to an amino acid sequence in the ribosome in a process known as translation.

Answer:

translation

Explanation:

(b)

Which 2 molecules forms the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?

Answers

Answer:

Deoxyribose sugar and phosphate groups

Explanation:

The Deoxyribose and phosphate groups are held together by hydrogen bonds. The Deoxyribose is also connected to the nucleic acids, making a complete nucleotide. Deoxyribose is only used in DNA, because DNA means Deoxyribonucleic Acid. RNA is made with a sugar called Ribose.

The two molecules that forms the backbone of DNA ladder are:

1. Deoxyribose

2. Phosphate groups

Deoxyribose is a pentose sugar important in the formation of DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid. Deoxyribose is a key building block of DNA. Its chemical structure allows for the replication of cells in DNA's double helix configuration.A phosphate backbone is the portion of the DNA double helix that provides structural support to the molecule.

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20. Earthquakes and volcanic eruptions are common on the western eage o
Which theory does this pattern of geological phenomena support?
are common on the western edge of the Pacific Ocean.
A. weathering
B. the rock cycle
C. plate tectonics
D. biological evolution

Answers

The Theory which supports the volcanic eruptions and earthquakes are Plate tectonics.

Explanation:

The word Plate tectonics is derived from the Greek and Latin word.Plate tectonics deals with the theory with the productive and functional aspects of the lithosphere.The Lithosphere is the outer part of the Earth which consists of mantle and crush that transforms the Earth sciences by providing a standard content for understanding mountain-building processes, volcanoes, and earthquakes and the evolution of Earth’s surface.

Answer:

C

Explanation:

i already took it mate

which statement of purpose best defines the objective of an experiment to test this hypothesis

Answers

A statement of purpose in an experiment should explicitly outline what is to be accomplished during the experiment and the methods of data analysis.

The statement of purpose for an experiment designed to test a hypothesis should clearly define the objectives of the laboratory procedure and the subsequent statistical analysis. An example could be 'Perform an experiment that evaluates the impact of microwave power level and heating time on the temperature of water'. However, it must also encompass the analysis component, such as 'Then, compare the experimental value of 50% power to 100% power using a t-test at both 8 and 10 min to determine if the power level significantly impacts water temperature'.

The overarching goal of experimental science is to rigorously test the hypothesis, usually with an intention to disprove it, thereby enhancing the hypothesis's validity if it withstands the testing. This scientific process involves careful experimental design, including considerations for randomization, replication, and control of extraneous variables, precise data measurement, and meticulous experimentation to successfully achieve the objectives and draw reliable conclusions.

Experiments attempt to produce other observations that support or refute a theory or hypothesis. Hence the correct option is b.

The purpose of performing experiments is to test theories or hypotheses by generating empirical evidence that either supports or refutes them. Through experiments, scientists systematically manipulate variables and observe the outcomes to understand the underlying mechanisms or relationships between phenomena.

Experimentation allows researchers to gather data in a controlled setting, enabling them to draw conclusions about the validity of their hypotheses. By comparing the observed results with the predictions made by the theory or hypothesis, scientists can evaluate the accuracy and applicability of existing scientific models. Therefore, experiments serve as a crucial methodological tool in the scientific process, facilitating the advancement of knowledge and understanding in various fields of study. Hence the correct option is b.

Complete question:

Which of the following statements best describes the purpose of performing experiments? OA. Experiments are designed to produce unexplainable results. B. Experiments attempt to produce other observations that support or refute a theory or hypothesis. OC. None of the answers are correct. O D. Experiments can be replaced by logical reasoning based on the known facts. OE. Experiments are designed to produce the results predicted by a theory or hypothesis.

Some people have dimples; other people do not. Having dimples is dominant over not having dimples.

If the allele for having dimples is represented with the letter D, what allele combinations can result in having dimples?

a. Dd only
b. dd only
c. DD only
d. DD, Dd

Answers

Final answer:

The allele combinations resulting in a person having dimples, a dominant trait, can be either DD (homozygous dominant) or Dd (heterozygous). The individual will not have dimples if they have two recessive alleles (dd).

Explanation:

In genetics, dominant traits are those that are expressed or visible when inherited. In your question, having dimples is a dominant trait and is represented by the letter D. The presence of at least one 'D' in the allele combinations will result in having dimples. Therefore, the correct answer is DD, Dd. This means individuals with homozygous dominant (two same dominant alleles like DD) or heterozygous (one dominant and one recessive allele like Dd) will have dimples. The only combination that does not produce dimples is when you have two recessive alleles (dd).

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Replicating an experiment _____.
A. increases validity
B. decreases validity
C. has no effect on validity

Answers

A. increases validity

Answer:

Replicating an experiment _____.

A. increases validity

B. decreases validity

C. has no effect on validity

which event occurs in telophase

Answers

Answer:

1st. the chromosomes arrive at the cell poles

2nd.  the mitotic spindle disassembles

3rd. the vesicles that contain fragments of the original nuclear membrane assemble around the two sets of chromosomes

Explanation:

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During telophase, separated chromosomes arrive at opposite poles, decondense, and are encased in newly formed nuclear envelopes. Meanwhile, cytokinesis divides the cell's cytoplasm, resulting in the creation of two daughter cells.

During telophase, several critical events ensure the proper conclusion of cell division, whether it be mitosis or meiosis. One key event is the arrival of separated chromosomes at opposite poles of the cell. This repositioning is crucial for the equitable distribution of genetic material to daughter cells. As chromosomes reach these poles, they undergo decondensation, transitioning from tightly coiled chromosomes into a more relaxed chromatin state, making genetic material accessible for gene expression.

Simultaneously, the reconstruction of the nuclear envelope around these dispersed chromatids marks the re-establishment of distinct nuclear territories within the emerging daughter cells. This event is vital for the segregation and protection of the genetic material in preparation for the cell's return to the interphase state, where it resumes normal cellular functions.

In addition to these nuclear events, cytokinesis often commences during or shortly after telophase, culminating in the physical division of the cell's cytoplasm into two separate daughter cells. This process varies between organisms and cell types, with animal cells forming a cleavage furrow through the constriction of an actin ring, and plant cells forming a cell plate that will eventually develop into separate cell walls.

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Can someone help me with this math q? A beam of light is traveling through a medium at 200,000 km/s. It enters a different medium and speeds up to almost 250,000 km/s. Finally, it enters a third medium and halts. What were the media the light traveled through, in order? Hurry!!!!!!!!!!! The area where an organism lives its life including the living and nonliving factors Bend Companys December 31, 2020 balance sheet reports assets of $13,210,000 and liabilities of $4,275,000. The book values of Bends assets approximate their fair values, except for land, which has a fair value $600,000 greater than its book value. On December 31, 2020, Blue Corporation paid $11,775,000 to acquire Bend. What amount of goodwill should Blue record as a result of this purchase? Some believe that religion is important because it provides social norms and answers to difficult questions about life and the meaning of life. Which social theory does this represent? Describe an example of two products you could combine in a display in the store to show how they could work together. (1-2 sentences. 1.0 points) After being diagnosed with an untreatable, terminal form of cancer, Peggy shouted "This isn't fair! I've always exercised and eaten right! Why me?" What stage of dying is Peggy likely experiencing? Which of the following statements is FALSE?a. Electronic procurement systems can aid a company in saving both time and money.b. More than 50% of each sales dollar typically goes towards covering supply chain costs.c. If a firm lacks the technology to make a required component they will need to consider buying/outsourcing.d. Centralized purchasing is where individual, local purchasing departments, such as at the plant level, make their own purchasing decisions. A country produces apples and wheat. 1.) Using the 3-point curved line drawing tool, draw a representative PPC for this country. Label it PPC 1. 2.) Suppose that a breakthrough in technology makes all agriculture more productive. Using the 3-point curved line drawing tool, draw a new PPC showing the effect of this change. Label it PPC2. Carefully follow the instructions above, and only draw the required objects. a. Suppose that there are equal numbers of good and bad used cars in the market and that good used cars are worth $13,000 while bad used cars are worth $5,000. What is the average value of a used car? are the rights guaranteed by the Bill of Rights that cannot be taken away by law. The manager at East End Burgers regularly speaks with customers to find out what improvements they might suggest to the product and service. The manager is determining if his ________ of what his customers like is accurate. To be liable on a negotiable instrument, a person must: a. sign the instrument. b. have a relative who is not an agent sign the instrument. c. draft an arbitration clause for the instrument. Family room measures 23 feet by 28 feet. They are covering the floor with tiles that measure 1 foot on a side and cost $0.94 each. How many will they spend on the tile? Financial institutions came under greater federal regulation because of A.World War II. B.the Federal Reserve Act. C.the Great Depression. D.the Securities Exchange Act. Annabella has a cup of raisins. She gave equal portions of 1/2 cups of the raisins to her for siblings which diagram could Annabella used to find the fraction of the love the each sibling receives If a metal changes color over time from exposure to air, what has likely occurred?a) a chemical changeb) a reversible changec) a change of stated) a physical change Evaluate f(5):f(x) = x2 - 16x - 48 The molecule that carries an amino acid to the ribosome for incorporation into a protein is ________. In many cases, companies that enter a market after innovative products have been introduced can achieve long-term competitive advantages by continuing to develop a better mousetrap. For example, VisiCalc was the first company to introduce a desktop spreadsheet program, but Lotus Notes cornered a large market share when it introduced the 1-2-3 program. Today, however, Microsofts Excel is the dominant spreadsheet software program and has continued to endure due to the popularity of the Microsoft Office Suite of products. VisiCalc possessed a ___________ advantage while Microsoft enjoyed a ___________ advantage.