Answer:
e. All of the choices describe characteristics of the ANS.
Explanation:
The autonomic nervous system is a regulatory and control system that influences the functions of internal organs.
Autonomic pathways consist of two types of motor neurons, these are the preganglionic neuron and the postganglionic neuron.
ANS stimulation of involuntary effectors is always excitatory. In the preganglionic autonomic neurons, and all postganglionic parasympathetic neurons are usually (cholinergic i.e receptors that bins with acetylcholine), as a result they release acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter. The cholinergic effects of preganglionic autonomic neurons are always excitatory.
The postganglionic neuron lies entirely in the peripheral nervous system.Yes!, this is so because the ganglion cells that give rise to postganglionic axons lies through the gray rami communicans and join the peripheral nerves of the peripheral nervous system.
Final answer:
The autonomic nervous system can have both excitatory and inhibitory effects on involuntary processes in the body.
Explanation:
The correct answer is b. ANS stimulation of involuntary effectors is always excitatory. This statement does not accurately describe a characteristic of the autonomic nervous system. While the autonomic nervous system generally functions to regulate involuntary processes in the body, its stimulation of effectors can be either excitatory or inhibitory depending on the situation. For example, the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system can cause an increase in heart rate (excitatory) or a decrease in digestive activity (inhibitory). Essentially, the autonomic nervous system modulates organ function to maintain homeostasis in the body, and its effects can be both excitatory and inhibitory.
A group of students are reviewing information about antihistamines. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which agent as a second generation antihistamine?
Answer:
The correct answer is: loratadine (Claritin)
Explanation:
Histamine is the chemicals that are responsible for the allergic reaction in the body. Antihistamine is the drug that blocks the release of histamine by blocking the histamine receptor.
These drugs are divided into H1 and H2 antihistamine according to the type of receptor it blocks. H1 antihistamine is further divided into 1st generation antihistamine which is having a central effect and 2nd generation antihistamine in which the central effect is less and is used as an antiallergic drug.
Loratadine(Claritin) is commonly used as 2nd generation antihistamine drug therefore the student demonstrates an understanding of the information if they identify loratadine (Claritin) as 2nd generation antihistamine.
Identify a scenario where an experiment would be replicated
Answer:
If you did not follow the procedure as you should have.
Explanation:
You may have to repeat an experiment for several reasons. It can be because you need to be certain of the results so that you have to perform it several times. Or you need more precise results so that you can fine-tune the variables and repeat the experiment again.
The most common scenario where an experiment would be replicated would be in a situation where you did not follow the procedure that you have outlined exactly like you should have so that the results you got are not 100% reliable. In such a case, the experiment would need to be replicated for the correct results.
I hope this answer helps.
A scenario where an experiment would be replicated is;
When health psycholgists want to perform an experiment to show the effects of hypnosis on old people smoking and that same experiment has to be replicated on young people.
We are dealing with the concept of replication. Let us first understand what it means.
Replication is defined as the act of reproducing or copying something. This implies that when an experiment is repeated and the results from the original experiment are reproduced, we can call that an example of replication of the original study.
An example of a scenario where an experiment would be replicated is;
When health psychologists perform an experiment to show the effect of hypnosis in helping middle-aged smokers let go of their smoking habits. Replication will be when that same experiment is performed with younger smokers to see if the same result can be determined.
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How does cutting down only mature trees in a forest extend the life of the forest?
A. It maintains forest habitats.
B. It start a new generation of trees.
C. It increases demand for new lumber.
D. It increases the supply of new lumber.
Around 10% of global warming is caused by the destruction and loss of forests. If we don't put an end to deforestation, there is just no way that we can combat the climate issue. Thus, option A is correct.
What mature trees in a forest extend the life of the forest?By cutting down a few trees, you can gain access to timber and other resources, while also fostering diversity in your neighbourhood. Lack of tree removal might cause some animal species to lose their habitats. Many ecosystems can be found in forests, and certain creatures can only survive in young forests.
Carbon dioxide is absorbed and stored by trees. Releases of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases occur when trees are destroyed or even slightly disturbed.
Therefore, cutting down only mature trees in a forest extend the life of the forest, and It maintains forest habitats.
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The chart above compares the daily water use per person to the price of water in selected countries. Which of the following conclusions can be correctly drawn using only the data in the chart?A. Water use and water price are directly proportionalB. Increased water use causes water prices to decline.C. High water use is generally correlated with lower water prices.D. Increased water prices cause water use to decline.E. Water resources are greater in the U.S. than in other countries.
Answer:
A. Water use and water price are directly proportional❌
B. Increased water use causes water prices to decline❌
C. High water use is generally correlated with lower water prices.✔
D. Increased water prices cause water use to decline.❌
E. Water resources are greater in the U.S. than in other countries.❌
Explanation:
Using only the data in the chart, we can come to a conclusion that the reason for the high usage of water is parallel too the lower cost of water
C. High water use is generally correlated with lower water prices.✔
In a person who is color-blind, which of the following would you most expect to see?
a. a loss of their peripheral vision
b. a loss of functions in the rods of their retina
c. an inability to regenerate 11-cis-retinal after bleaching
d. absence of green or red cones in their foveae
Final answer:
Most commonly, color blindness is due to an absence of functional green or red cones in the foveae, leading to difficulty or inability to distinguish green and/or red colors.(Option d)
Explanation:
In a person who is color-blind, you would most expect to see an absence of green or red cones in their foveae. Color blindness, or the inability to detect green and/or red colors, is usually due to a lack of functioning in the red- or green-sensitive cones. The retina contains two types of photoreceptor cells, rods and cones, and it is the malfunction of these cones (specifically green or red cones) that leads to color blindness.
This condition is apparent in the fact that about 1 in 50 people, mostly men, are only able to experience one or two colors instead of the full range.
A 2% caloric increase in _____ can increase the risk of cardiovascular disease by 23%.a. trans fatty acidsb. saturated fatty acidsc. cholesterold. triglyceridese. an omega-6 to omega-3 ratio of 10:1
Answer:
Option A, trans fatty acids
Explanation:
Trans fats are the partially hydrogenated oils which are not considered safe for consumption as per the FDA. Since these fats are inexpensive and widely available they are frequently used. Trans fat increases the bad cholesterol of the body and reduces or lowers down the good cholesterol level. Due to this even a small consumption of trans fat put an individual at high risk of heart attack and stroke.
Hence, option A is correct
I will give 50 points!! PLEASE ANSWER:
List and briefly describe 8 major terrestrial biomes.
Forest: A large area covered in trees.
Taiga: A snow forest.
Tundra: A flat area with no trees.
Desert: A large, dry area covered in sand
Savanna: A grassy plain in tropical and subtropical regions with very few trees.
Grassland: A large open area covered in grass.
Chaparral: A land with vegetation that consists of shrubs and bushes with thorns.
Mixed Forest: A forest with two or more kinds of different trees.
Hope this helps!
What happens to the size in each level in the idealized pyramid as energy is transferred through the trophic levels?
Answer:
The size is reduced as 80-95% of the available energy at one trophic level is not transferred to the next
Explanation:
There is loss of energy as it is transferred between trophic levels. The decrease in energy as it moves up the pyramid is due to energy loss as metabolic heat when one organism is consumed by another from the next level as it moves up the trophic levels.
Land conversion, such as when tropical forests are logged or burned, releases what substance(s) into the air?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide.
Explanation:
When combustion reactions occur, such as those when forests are burned, CO2 is released as a waste product.
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Final answer:
The logging and burning of tropical forests release significant amounts of carbon dioxide (CO₂) and other greenhouse gases into the atmosphere, contributing to climate change and global warming.
Explanation:
Land conversion and deforestation, particularly in tropical regions, contribute significantly to the release of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. Most notably, the logging and burning of forests release large amounts of carbon dioxide (CO₂), a key greenhouse gas impacting climate change. Healthy forests play a crucial role in absorbing CO₂ from the atmosphere, but when trees are destroyed, this carbon is released back into the air.
Moreover, deforestation by burning contributes to increased levels of other greenhouse gases, such as methane and nitrous oxide, due to changes in land use and biomass destruction. The human-driven increase in greenhouse gases, from deforestation and fossil fuel burning, exacerbates global warming, disrupting natural cycles and posing threats to ecological balance and biodiversity.
With adequate hydration, what is the expected approximate, normal daily urine production of an adult?
Answer:
With sufficient hydration of about 2liters daily, the normal urine volume expected of an adult is between 800-2000 milliliters
Explanation:
The normal range of fluid required by an adult is 2 liters daily. Urine is produced by the kidney and it account for the largest volume of water leaving the body.
The kidneys adjust the volume of urine ejected based on the body's water requirements; if the body is dehydrated, less urine is ejected and if there is sufficient or excessive hydration, more water is excreted as urine.
What research method is the best known surrogate for humans in the laboratory? define surrogate.
Answer:
nonhuman animals models
Explanation:
A surrogate is defined as a substitute for another person to play a specific role in any given arrangement.
In the case of laboratory research non- human animal models are often used as surrogates for humans to conduct research.
For conducting research a lot of ethical concerns are raised when conducting experiments on human beings and hence, the scientists had to look for alternatives.
The non-human animals have emerged as great alternatives for the humans to conduct research and thanks to the genome sequences that are now known the list of animal models have increased greatly and we are further sure that there are several similarities that these animal models share with humans and thus, the results obtained by conducting research on them are considered reliable.
Model organisms such as mice, fruit flies, and zebrafish are extensively studied as surrogates in laboratory research to understand human biology and diseases, providing valuable insights while mitigating direct risks to humans. Other alternatives include computational models, in vitro methods, and noninvasive imaging techniques.
Explanation:The best known surrogate for humans in the laboratory, employed in medical research, is the use of model organisms. A surrogate, in this context, refers to a nonhuman species that is extensively studied to understand human biology and disease processes. Model organisms such as mice (Mus musculus), fruit flies (Drosophila melanogaster), and zebrafish (Danio rerio) are chosen for their similarity to human biology and their ability to provide insights into human diseases. These organisms are valuable because they allow for the exploration and understanding of disease mechanisms and the testing of therapies without directly exposing humans to potential risks.
Other methods that serve as alternatives to using animals in research include computational simulations, in vitro methods based on human cell and tissue cultures, and noninvasive imaging techniques. Despite the benefits provided by model organisms, there is an ongoing ethical debate about the use of animals in research, prompting a search for more alternatives that can effectively replicate human physiological responses.
Which of the following allows nutrients and other substances to be transported across the cell membrane?a. Carbohydratesb. Proteinc. Fatsd. Glucose
Answer:
b. Proteins
Explanation:
Several transmembrane proteins serve as transport proteins and move charged, polar and large substances such as ions, amino acids, sugars through membranes. These are the carrier proteins and channel proteins. Each type of transport protein transports a specific type of substance. Carrier proteins bind the ion or molecule and undergo changes in shape. This change moves the molecule across the membrane. Channel proteins form pores through the membrane to allow transport of substances.
For example, aquaporins are transmembrane proteins that allow water to pass through membranes.
All of the following fish choices have high levels of the toxin mentioned in the video except for __________.
1. swordfish
2. salmon
3. tilefish, or golden bass
4. shark
Answer:
Option 2, Salmon
Explanation:
Large fishes such as shark and sword fish have higher level of mercury. This fact can be explained by the concept of bio magnification in which an individual lying at a higher trophic level in a food chain gets accumulated toxin and hence possess the highest amount of toxin in a given food chain. Small fish such as salmon will have the lowest amount of mercury as they lie at the lower level of a food chain and hence possess a small amount of toxin
A neuron cell body reaches threshold and depolarizes. The depolarization propagates down the length of the ______, is chemically transmitted across the ______, and directly affects the electrical potential in the ______ of the successive neuron.
Answer:
Axon.
Synapse
Dentrite and cell body.
Explanation:
AXON is the transmission conduit for action potential through saltatory conduction at the nodes of ranvier.
Synapse refers to the gap between adjacent nuerones and the entire components of that particular gap.
Denrites which originated from the cell.body received the transmitted signals from.the axon,and transmits this for response at effectors:muscle and glands.
Which of the following BEST describes how ATP provides energy to the body's cells?A. Energy is released when a phosphate group is cleavedfrom the ATP molecule.B. Energy is released when two molecules of ATP combine.C. Energy is released when ATP is transported out of thecell membrane.D. Energy is released when adenosine binds to threephosphate molecules.
Final answer:
ATP provides energy to cells by releasing energy when a phosphate group is cleaved from it, which is used by the cell to perform vital functions such as muscle contraction and powering transport mechanisms.
Explanation:
The question asks which process best describes how ATP provides energy to the body's cells. The correct answer is that energy is released when a phosphate group is cleaved from the ATP molecule. This process is crucial because ATP, or adenosine triphosphate, serves as the primary energy currency in cells. It stores energy in phosphate ester bonds, and when these bonds are broken - specifically when ATP is converted to ADP (adenosine diphosphate) and a phosphate group - energy is liberated. This released energy is then used by the cell to perform vital functions, such as the mechanical work of muscle contraction, where ATP supplies the energy required to move contractile muscle proteins and to power the active transport mechanisms like the sodium-potassium pump in cell membranes.
The key to ATP's energy-providing role is the controlled release of energy stored in its phosphate bonds through a process called hydrolysis. This energy fuels a wide range of vital cellular processes.
The correct answer is A. Energy is released when a phosphate group is cleaved from the ATP molecule.
Here's a detailed explanation:
Chemical energy storage: ATP, or adenosine triphosphate, is a molecule that acts as the "universal energy currency" of cells. It stores chemical energy in the bonds between its three phosphate groups. These bonds are like springs: the more stretched they are, the more energy they store.
Energy release through hydrolysis: When a cell needs energy to power a specific process, an enzyme can break (hydrolyze) one of these phosphate bonds. This releases energy, much like releasing tension from a spring. The broken bond converts ATP into ADP (adenosine diphosphate), which has less energy stored.
Specificity of enzymes: Specific enzymes couple the energy released from ATP hydrolysis to the specific energy-requiring needs of different cellular processes. This ensures that the released energy is used efficiently and directed towards the right tasks.
Here's why the other options are incorrect:
B. Energy is released when two molecules of ATP combine: Combining two ATP molecules wouldn't release energy; it would create a larger molecule with more stored energy.
C. Energy is released when ATP is transported out of the cell membrane: ATP's energy is used within the cell, not exported. Transporting it wouldn't release energy.
D. Energy is released when adenosine binds to three phosphate molecules: Adenosine is part of the ATP molecule, but it's not the source of energy release. The energy comes from breaking the bonds between the phosphate groups.
The correct answer is A. Energy is released when a phosphate group is cleaved from the ATP molecule.
A nurse is reviewing the structure and function of the neurologic system in preparation for a work placement on a neurologic unit.
What statement most accurately describes an aspect of the autonomic nervous system?
a. Nicotinic receptors are primarily associated with the parasympathetic nervous system
b. Cholinergic receptors are exclusively located in the sympathetic nervous system
c. Alpha- and beta-receptors are the two basic types of muscarinic receptors
d. The autonomic nervous spans the central and peripheral nervous systems
Answer: is d
Explanation:because the nurse is reviewing the structure and function of the neurologic system
If a person was unable to break down food particles into molecules that could be absorbed by the body, you would predict ________.
a. there is a malfunction with the digestive system
b. there is a malfunction with the excretory system
c. there is a malfunction with the reproductive system
d. there is a malfunction with the circulatory system
Answer:
The correct answer is a. there is a malfunction with the digestive system
Explanation:
The digestive system in the body is responsible for the digestion and absorption of digested food in the body. The initial digestion of food starts from the mouth itself by the action of salivary amylase which partially digests polysaccharides.
Then the food is passed to the stomach where HCL and different enzymes convert food into chyme. The main digestion of food occurs in the small intestine where the macromolecules are digested and broken down in simpler form by hydrolytic enzymes like protease, lipase, etc.
Then these simpler molecules are absorbed in the body through intestine. Therefore the correct answer is a.
Here the prediction should be that there should be a malfunction with respect to the digestive system.
What is the digestive system?
In the body, it should be responsible for the digestion purpose and the food digested in the body. The digestion should be started from the mouth via salivary. After this the food should be transferred to the stomach in which the HCL and the various enzymes should be converted the food into chyme. The simpler molecules should be absorbed via intestine.
Therefore, the correct option is a.
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The development of herbicide resistance in populations of weeds over several generations is an example of___________.
Answer: Evolution
Explanation:
Evolution can be defined as the change in the characteristics of the species over a period of time which basically relies on the process of the natural selection.
The characters that allows the survival of the organism is favored and is known as the survival of fittest which is a natural selection.
This is known as evolution in which the herbicide resistant plant is favored more and has developed over a period of time.
The pharmacology instructor is discussing age-related susceptibility to adverse effects of cholinergic drugs. Which statement could the instructor make to accurately describe the influence of age?
Answer:
Explanation:
Physiologic changes resulting from the normal aging process place older adults at higher risk for adverse effects.
___________ refers to the period of juvenile corrections in which reformers urged the creation of institutions where delinquent, abandoned, abused, and neglected children could live in a healthy environment, learn good work and study habits, and develop character.
1. Juvenile rights
2. Refuge
3. Puritan
4. Crime control
Answer:
2. Refuge
Explanation:
Throughout history, children who have gotten in trouble have faced dire circumstances, difficulty in sustenance and wildtype lifestyles. When parents ran afoul of the law, children lost their protectors and were also left to fend for themselves. In order to curb these dilemma, reformers urged the creation of institutions where delinquent, abandoned, abused, and neglected children could live in a healthy environment, learn good work and study habits, and develop character. (This term given to this concept was named REFUGE).
Based on the information presented, which of the following genetic changes in an individual without diabetes is most likely to result in a disrupted cellular response to insulin signaling similar to that of an individual with type 2 diabetes?
Answer: A deletion in the gene encoding the insulin receptor that removes only the cytoplasmic domain of the protein.
Explanation: The other choices are either unrelated or contradictory to the question, so this would be correct because removing a feature almost vital to the cell will most similarly simulate type II diabetes, disrupting the function of the cell, thus hindering signaling pathways.
A genetic change causing a disrupted cellular response to insulin signaling in an individual without diabetes, similar to type 2 diabetes, would likely affect the insulin receptors or glucose transporters, leading to insulin resistance and hyperglycemia.
Explanation:Insulin Signaling Disruption and Type 2 DiabetesA genetic change in an individual without diabetes that could result in a disrupted cellular response to insulin signaling, similar to that seen in individuals with type 2 diabetes, would likely involve the insulin receptors or the glucose transporters within cells. Since insulin resistance is a hallmark of type 2 diabetes, a mutation that leads to defective insulin receptors on the cell membrane, or that impairs the ability of glucose transporters to respond to insulin, would mimic the effects of this condition. Such changes would prevent cells from taking up glucose efficiently, leading to elevated levels of glucose in the blood, which is symptomatic of type 2 diabetes.
Considering the mechanism of insulin resistance in type 2 diabetes, the genetic change most likely to cause a similar phenotype would be one that disrupts the function or expression of the insulin receptor or the glucose transporter proteins. These disruptions can result in target cell resistance to insulin, preventing the normal uptake of glucose into cells and leading to hyperglycemia (high blood sugar levels).
Chemicals which are released by female insects to attract male insects are called Select one:
a. auxins.
b. DDT.
c. insecticides.
d. pheromones.
Answer:D.
Explanation:
You are interested in studying a gene called CFTR because mutations in this gene in humans cause cystic fibrosis. You have made a line of mice that lack the mouse CFTR gene. These mice are unable to clear bacteria from their lungs, so they get lung disease. You put a normal human CFTR gene into some of these mice and discover that the mice with the human gene are able to clear bacteria from their lungs and no longer get lung disease. From this experiment, you can conclude that: ___
A) The DNA sequences of the mouse CFTR gene and human CFTR gene are identical.
B) The amino acid sequences of the mouse CFTR protein and the human CFTR protein are identical.
C) The mouse CFTR gene and human CFTR gene encode proteins that can serve a similar function.
D) Both answers B and C are true.
E) All of the above are true.
Answer:
C) The mouse CFTR gene and human CFTR gene encode proteins that can serve a similar function.
Explanation:
CFTR gene encodes for Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator protein. It is ion channel protein and conducts chloride ions across the cell membrane. Its mutation leads to cystic fibrosis which is characterised by presence of thickened mucus in lungs with frequent infections.
In the given experiment, human CFTR gene is able to function in mouse and restore the lost body functions. This is because human and mouse CFTR gene show high level of similarity due to which they code similar proteins which can function in each other's place. However this does not mean that DNA sequence of the genes is identical. There is still some difference between them because they are two different species.
In reality human CFTR gene is around 189 kb in length whereas mouse CFTR gene is around 152 kb in length. The 27 exons have very similar sequence. Most introns of human CFTR gene are larger than the mouse counterpart.
Red blood cells are placed into a solution of unknown solute concentration. After an hour they have all burst open. The best explanation is that the solution 1. had a very high concentration of solutes. 2. was at equilibrium. 3. had a very high concentration of solvent had no solutes.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Red blood cells when places in a solution having higher concentration of solutes then the cells bursts.
The red blood cells when kept in the such of a solution bursts because of the hypotonic solution outside the cell.
The cells when kept inside hypotonic solution the solution will move from outside to inside of the cell and the cell will burst.
Final answer:
Red blood cells that burst when placed in an unknown solution indicate that the solution was hypotonic, leading to water influx and hemolysis. This osmotic imbalance is detrimental to cell integrity and is contrasted by isotonic conditions, where cells maintain equilibrium, and hypertonic conditions, where cells crenate.
Explanation:
When red blood cells are placed in a solution with an unknown solute concentration and they burst, it indicates that the solution was likely hypotonic to the cells. A hypotonic solution has a lower concentration of solutes compared to the inside of the red blood cells, leading to an influx of water into the cells due to osmosis. The increased water intake causes the red blood cells to swell and eventually undergo hemolysis, where they burst due to the inability to accommodate the additional volume within a fixed membrane surface area.
In contrast, a hypertonic solution, which has a higher concentration of solutes outside the cells than inside, would cause the cells to lose water and shrink, a process known as crenation. An isotonic solution has equal solute concentrations inside and outside of the cells, leading to no net movement of water and thus the cells remain unaffected. Understanding the effects of osmotic pressure is crucial in preserving the integrity and functionality of red blood cells in medical and laboratory settings.
The technique used to teach animals complex tricks, such as teaching pigeons to play ping-pong, is:
Answer:
this technique is a type of behaviour called " learning behaviour" that includes CONDITIONED REFLEX TYPE 1.
Explanation:
learning behaviour is a type which depends on the environmental influence, but the ability to modify the behaviour depends upon the heredity material.
for example:- in conditioned reflex type 1 the pigeons learn to play ping - pong. in this type of behaviour , the ability of learning depends upon the genetic basis of the individual.
The technique used to teach animals complex tricks, such as teaching pigeons to play ping-pong, is operant conditioning. This method involves shaping behaviors through reinforcement and incorporates stimulus discrimination, enabling the training of animals to perform various tasks.
Explanation:The technique used to teach animals complex tricks, such as teaching pigeons to play ping-pong, is known as operant conditioning, or instrumental conditioning. This method was extensively developed and utilized by B.F. Skinner, who was able to train pigeons to engage in various complex behaviors. Operant conditioning relies on the use of reinforcers to gradually shape behavior towards a desired outcome. This process often involves shaping, where successive approximations of a behavior are rewarded until the animal performs the complete behavior. It also incorporates stimulus discrimination, which teaches the animal to respond only to specific stimuli, much like Pavlov's dogs were trained to respond to the sound of a bell.
An example of operant conditioning in action is Skinner's training of pigeons to play ping-pong, among other tasks. These pigeons were trained through trial and error, receiving rewards for behaviors that approximated playing ping-pong, until they could perform the task fully. This type of conditioning highlights how animals can learn complex tasks and even categorize stimuli, providing insights into animal cognition and learning processes.
Which of the enzymes removes the RNA nucleotides from the primer and adds equivalent DNA nucleotides to the 3' end of Okazaki fragments? Use the list of choices below for the following question: I. helicase II. DNA polymerase III III. ligase IV. DNA polymerase I V. primase Which of the enzymes removes the RNA nucleotides from the primer and adds equivalent DNA nucleotides to the 3' end of Okazaki fragments? I II III IV V
Answer:
DNA polymerase I
Explanation:
DNA polymerase I has 3' to 5' and 5' to 3' exonuclease activities. The 3' to 5' exonuclease activity is the proofreading activity while the 5' to 3' exonuclease activity of the enzyme is required for the removal of primer and gap-filling during DNA replication. The 5' to 3' exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I can replace a segment of DNA or RNA paired to the template strand. This removal of the DNA or RNA segment is called nick translation.
Completion of formation of an Okazaki fragment is followed by removal of RNA primer through 5' to 3' exonuclease activity of DNA polymerase I. The same enzyme adds deoxyribonucleotides in the gap by its polymerization activity. The remaining nick is sealed by DNA ligase.
Distinguish between major classes of biomolecules, proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, nucleic acids?
Answer:
Proteins (polymers of amino acids)
Carbohydrates (polymers of sugars)
Lipids (polymers of lipid monomers)
Nucleic acids (DNA and RNA; polymers of nucleotides)
Explanation:
Proteins:
Chemical formula is CHON
−NH2 + −COOH +R group
Monomer is Amino acids.
Examples are enzymes, and some hormones.
Uses are Storage; Signals; Structural; Contractile; Defensive; Enzyme; Transport; Receptors.
Lipids:
Chemical formula is C:H:O
Greater than 2:1 H:O (carboxyl group)
Monomer is fatty acid and glycerol.
Examples are butter, oil, cholesterol, beeswax.
Functions are energy storage; Protection; Chemical messengers; Repel water.
Carbohydrates:
Chemical formula is C:H:O
1:2:1
Monomer is monosaccharides.
Examples are Glucose, Fructose, Starch, Glycogen, Cellulose.
Uses are energy storage; structure.
Nucleic Acids:
Chemical formula is CHONP
(pentose, nitrogenous base, phosphate ).
Monomer is nucleotides.
Examples are DNA, RNA.
Uses are Genetic information
Answer:
Explanation:
Biomolecules are made from single subunits, or building blocks, called monomers.
For protein monomers is Amino acid
−NH2 + −COOH +R group
For lipids monomers is :
C:H:O
Greater than 2:1 H:O (carboxyl group)
Fatty acid and glycerol
For carbohydrates monomers is:
Monosaccharides examples are Glucose, Fructose, Starch, Glycogen
For Nucleic acid:
Monomers is:
pentose, nitrogenous base, phosphate
e.g :Nucleotides DNA, RNA
Which of the following is part of the subjective information gathered in a fitness assessment? A. Body composition B. Pulse C. Physiological measurement D. Occupation
Answer:
Answer is D. Occupation.
Explanation:
Subjective information can be described as the information that is based or depend on one's personal ideas, opinions or emotions. This means that it based or influenced by feelings and judgements.
Which drug can cause chemical burns? 1 Anthralin 2 Prednisone 3 Tazarotene 4 Calcipotriene
Answer:
1. Anthralin
this can cause burning if its started at a high dose
2. Calcipotriene
this can cause burning,
itching,
rash,
irritation,
redness,
dry skin, or
peeling at the application site.
Among the drugs listed, Anthralin can cause chemical burns. It is used for treating psoriasis and can be irritating to the skin if misused. Other drugs, like Prednisone, Tazarotene, and Calcipotriene, are not typically associated with chemical burns.
The drug that can cause chemical burns among those listed is Anthralin. Anthralin, used primarily for the treatment of psoriasis, is known for its ability to induce irritation and chemical burns if not used correctly. Unlike Anthralin, Prednisone is a corticosteroid that can cause side effects such as immunosuppression but is not associated with causing chemical burns. Tazarotene may cause skin irritation but not chemical burns to the extent caused by caustic substances. Calcipotriene is a synthetic vitamin D3 analogue used for the treatment of psoriasis as well, and though it can cause skin irritation, it's not noted for causing chemical burns.
HIPAA protects a category of information known as protected health information (PHI). PHI covered under HIPAA includes what ?
Answer:
The correct answer is "Identifiable health information that is created or held by covered entities and their business associates".
Explanation:
HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996) is a legislation of the United States that gives protection and privacy to the patients medical information. The category of protected health information (PHI) covered under HIPAA includes identifiable health information that is created or held by covered entities and their business associates. This means that the medical data that is protected includes the one that is managed by healthcare providers and their business associates.