Which of the following statements best describes the termination of transcription in prokaryotes?
A. RNA polymerase transcribes through the polyadenylation signal, causing proteins to associate with the transcript and cut it free from the polymeraseB. RNA polymerase transcribes through the terminator sequence, causing the polymerase to fall off the DNA and release the transcript. C. RNA polymerase transcribes through an intron, and the snRNPs cause the polymerase to let go of the transcript. D. Once transcription has initiated, RNA polymerase transcribes until it reaches the end of the chromosome. E. RNA polymerase transcribes through a stop codon, causing the polymerase to stop advancing through the gene and release the mRNA.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

B. RNA polymerase transcribes through the terminator sequence, causing the polymerase to fall off the DNA and release the transcript.

Explanation:

Termination of transcription in prokaryotes can be performed in two ways:

Rho dependent-Rho factor is a protein that has the ability to bind for RNA polymerase, and to separate it from the template DNA strandRho independent-there is a specific sequence in DNA  rich C and G nucleotides. As RNA polymerase gets to that region, it folds the DNA and creates the hairpin. The hairpin causes the polymerase to fall.
Answer 2
Final answer:

The termination of transcription in prokaryotes occurs when the RNA polymerase transcribes through the terminator sequence, causing the polymerase to detach from the DNA and release the newly formed RNA strand.

Explanation:

The termination of transcription in prokaryotes is best described by statement B. RNA polymerase transcribes through the terminator sequence, which is a specific sequence at the end of a gene. This sequence signals the RNA polymerase to stop transcription and detach from the DNA. As a result, the newly synthesized RNA strand is released.+

The other options offered here are generally applicable to transcription and translation in eukaryotes, but not in prokaryotes. For example, polyadenylation signals and introns (option A and C) are features often found in eukaryotic genes. Similarly, the concept of a stop codon terminating transcription (option E) is a misunderstanding: stop codons are related to termination of translation, not transcription.

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Related Questions

Where is the diaphragm located? between the ribs inside the lungs below the lungs above the ribs

Answers

Answer:

below the lungs above the ribs

Explanation:

The diaphragm is a thin skeletal muscle that is located at the base of the chest.

This muscle contracts and flattens when one inhales, this in turn creates a vacuum that pulls air into the lungs.

The muscle relaxes when one exhales and the air is pushed out of lungs.

The diaphragm separates the abdomen from the chest.

The above process is known as breathing.

This is what causes the chest to move up and down.

Answer:

It would be located under the lungs,A good trick to remember this is to take a deep breath and feeling below where your ribs end

Explanation:


How did the Industrial Revolution contribute to the changes in environmental quality that occurred
during the late 18th and 19th centuries?

Answers

Answer:

Negatively

Explanation:

The Industrial Revolution contributed to the first mass scale pollution of the Earth's spheres by the humans. There was pollution prior to it as well, but it was nothing when compared with the period after it occurred. With the development of the industry, lot of waste was released into the waters, or on the soil, often being very toxic and causing severe contamination. The main energy source was the coal, and the coal that was used was releasing enormous amounts of carbon dioxide and sulfur dioxide into the atmosphere. The places that were located near industrial object, or had industrial objects in them faced enormous pollution of the air, which badly affected the health of the humans, animals, and plants. The first acidic rains caused by the human activity started to appear, causing big damage on the forests.

Answer:

c. Increased economic development reduced environmental quality

Explanation:

If a researcher lesions the amygdala of a laboratory rat, the rat will most likely become A) hungry.B) sexually aroused.C) physically uncoordinated.D) less aggressive.E) aphasic.

Answers

Answer:

D) less aggressive.

Explanation:

Amygdala is a structure in the brain, part of the limbic system with the role in emotional responses such as aggressive behavior, sexual arousal, fear, but also it is also involved in memory and decision-making.

Stimulated amygdala increase aggressive behavior, while lesions induce opposite effect.

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What is the primary benefit of continuing to use non-renewable oil, as opposed to using renewable sources of energy instead?

Burning fossil fuels releases carbon dioxide, which is essentially plant food that will lead to much greater productivity and quality of life on Earth.

It is not possible to run vehicles on renewable fuels, so there is no way to switch from using oil for that purpose even if renewable sources can be used for other things.

Oil is cheap and harmless to people and the environment, so it is an excellent source of energy over the long term and there is no need to develop renewable sources.

The infrastructure for using oil is already in place and there are costs associated with changing the energy infrastructure.

Answers

Answer:

The infrastructure for using oil is already in place and there are costs associated with changing the energy infrastructure.

Explanation:

The other options are stating false information.

Hope this helps! :)

Answer: The infrastructure for using oil is already in place and there are costs associated with changing the energy infrastructure.

Explanation:

Use of fossil fuels in considerably cheaper than the costs associated with the new technologies regarding renewable sources as it is very expensive to implement the new technologies and you do not see the benefits initially it takes a lot of time.

Immature bone cells, or osteoblasts, manufacture a protein called osteoid as well as several hormones. Because of this, we would expect osteoblasts to contain numerous A) nuclei. B) ribosomes. C) lysosomes. D) Golgi bodies.

Answers

The answer would be B. as ribosomes are in charge of translating mRNA to polypeptides and thus proteins. (In this case osteoid and various hormones)

Answer:

ribosomes

Explanation:

Ribosomes are the structures present within the cell that are responsible for the protein synthesis to take place.These structures provide the catalytic site for the rRNA to direct protein synthesis. Since it is given that the osteoblasts are responsible for manufacturing many proteins and hormones, these osteoblasts must be rich in ribosomes as they are involved in the process of protein synthesis.

This karyotype is characteristic of children that are also born with mental impairment, slanted eye-lids, a protruding Young’s, heart defects, and small stature. This genetic disorder is
A. Down syndrome
B. Turner syndrome
C. Fragile X syndrome
D. Klinefelter syndrome

Answers

Answer:

this would be A

Explanation:

chromosomal syndrome triggered when an error in cell division fallouts in an extra 21st chromosome.

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Which of the following is the desired outcome of attaching streamers to the back of boats?

Keeping birds from becoming tangled in fishing line
Providing habitat for lobsters
Reducing overall bycatch from drift netting
Removing floating debris from the water

Answers

Answer:

removing floating debris from water i do think is the answer if it is wrong i apologize.

Explanation:

Answer:

Keeping birds from becoming tangled in fishing line

Explanation:

There are some birds that take advantage of fishing boats to catch fish from the nets. They submerge at great speed under water. But many times they get caught. This is why streamers are placed, the movement of the streamers with the wind scare away the birds and prevent them from being trapped in the fishing nets.

What type of rock does the ocean floor consist of? Igneous basalt rock Igneous granite rock Sedimentary rock Metamorphic rock

Answers

Answer:

Igneous basalt rock

Explanation:

The peripheral layer of Earth's lithosphere which is found under the seas and is shaped at spreading focuses on maritime edges, which happen at different plate limit, is called as oceanic crusts.  

It is around 6 km (4 miles) thick. It is made out of a few layers, excluding the overlying residue. The highest layer, around 500 meters (1,650 feet) thick, incorporates magmas made of basalt rocks. The oceanic crust is differentiated from the continental crust through certain distinguishing features such as it is more slender, denser, more younger, and of various concoction piece.  

Answer:

Igneous basalt rock

Explanation:

Hope it helps!!!

In pea plants, the trait for tall stems is dominant over the trait for short stems. if two heterozygous tall plants are crossed, what percentage of the offspring would be expected to have the same phenotype as the parents?

Answers

Final answer:

When crossing two heterozygous tall pea plants, the expected percentage of offspring that would be tall like the parents is 75%, as determined by the Punnett square showing a genotypic ratio of 1 TT, 2 Tt, and 1 tt, with only the tt genotype resulting in a short plant.

Explanation:

When two heterozygous tall pea plants (Tt) are crossed, the likelihood of their offspring also exhibiting a tall phenotype can be determined using a Punnett square. A heterozygous tall plant (Tt) crossed with another heterozygous tall plant (Tt) would result in the following genotypic ratio: 1 TT (homozygous dominant), 2 Tt (heterozygous), and 1 tt (homozygous recessive).

Both the TT and Tt genotypes will display the tall phenotype, while the tt genotype will result in a short-stem phenotype. According to the genotypic ratio, we can predict that out of four offspring plants, three (or 75%) would be tall. This is because the 1 TT and 2 Tt plants all express the dominant tall trait. Therefore, the expected percentage of offspring that would have the same tall phenotype as the parents is 75%.

A species of lizard is found on the eastern and western sides of part of a mountain range. On both sides, individual populations are small. On the western side, individual populations are relatively close together and males move extensively among populations to breed. On the eastern side, however, populations are farther apart and males seldom move among more than one or two adjacent populations to breed. If you were to study the genetic diversity of western and eastern populations, which pattern would you expect to find?

Answers

Answer:

A species of lizard is found on the eastern and western sides of part of a mountain range. On both sides, individual populations are small. On the western side, individual populations are relatively close together and males move extensively among populations to breed. On the eastern side, however, populations are farther apart and males seldom move among more than one or two adjacent populations to breed. If you were to study the genetic diversity of western and eastern populations, which pattern would you expect to find?

Each western population would be genetically diverse, although the allele frequencies might differ from one population to the next. Eastern populations would be less diverse, and some populations will have only a limited number of the total alleles available in the species.

Explanation:

20pts.

Match these items.

1 pharynx
windpipe

2vein
branch from trachea

3artery
voice box

4 pulmonary
back of throat

5larynx
passageway for food

6esophagus
lower chest muscle

7bronchus
lungs

8trachea
transport of oxygenated blood

9diaphragm
transport of carbon dioxide in blood

Answers

Answer:

1-pharynx-back of throat

2-vein-transport of carbon dioxide in blood

3-artery-transport of oxygenated blood

4-pulmonary-lungs

5-larynx-voice box

6-esophagus-passageway for food

7-bronchus-branch from trachea

8-trachea-windpipe

9-diaphragm-lower chest muscle

Explanation:

definitions

Answer:

1-pharynx-back of throat

2-vein-transport of carbon dioxide in blood

3-artery-transport of oxygenated blood

4-pulmonary-lungs

5-larynx-voice box

6-esophagus-passageway for food

7-bronchus-branch from trachea

8-trachea-windpipe

9-diaphragm-lower chest muscle

hope i helped ;]

Explanation:

How do natural disasters weaken a community’s social infrastructure?




a.


Social systems are unbalanced by the damage caused by natural disasters.



b.


Natural disasters tend to target the poorest members of a community.



c.


The number of natural disasters is increasing across the globe.



d.


Natural disasters can cause billions of dollars in property damage.



Answers

Answer:

the correct answer would be D

Place the following in correct sequence from the formation of a drop of urine to its elimination from the body.

1. major calyx
2. minor calyx
3. nephron
4. urethra
5. ureter
6. collecting duct

Answers

Answer:

nephron, collecting duct, minor calyx, major calyx, ureter, urethra

Explanation:

Nephron is a basic unit of kidney and it consists of glomerulus - a ball  of small blood capillaries and a small tube called a renal tubule. Urea, water and  waste substances, form the urine as it pass through the nephrons and down the renal tubules of the kidney.   From the kidneys, urine travels down the ureters, to the bladde. rMicturition or urination is a function of urinary system and it refers to the discharge of urine from the bladder. Micturition is a process under the control of  muscles of the bladder and sphincter muscles.

The study of the kidney is called urology.  The kidney is a bean-shaped organ. The Kidney is metanephric in nature and located as the retroperitoneal in position.

The correct answer is mentioned below.

What is a kidney?The organ present in the body which regulates the fluid concentration of the body is called the kidney.The nephron is the structural and functional unit of the kidney.

The sequence of the formation of the kidney is as follows:-

Minor calyxMajor calyxCollecting ductNephronUreterUrethra

Hence, the correct answer is described as follows:-

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Which of the following statements about aldosterone is NOT correct?- Aldosterone is stimulated by decreased plasma sodium levels and increased plasma potassium levels.- Aldosterone increases the number of passive sodium channels in the luminal membrane of the distal tubule and collecting duct, thus aiding sodium reabsorption.-Aldosterone is produced in the adrenal cortex.-Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption by increasing the number of Na+-K+ ATPase pumps in the luminal membrane of the proximal tubule.

Answers

Answer:

C. Aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption by increasing the number of Na+-K+ ATPase pumps in the luminal membrane of the proximal tubule.

Explanation;

Aldosterone hormone is produced by the adrenal gland and mainly carries out its functions in the kidney.Through the aldosterone hormone the body is able to retain more water for the kidney is able to hold more sodium.When the plasma sodium levels decrease and the plasma potassium levels increase the production of aldosterone hormone is stimulated for sodium is needed in the .body to maintain the high water levels in the body.
Final answer:

Aldosterone is produced in the adrenal cortex and is stimulated by changes in plasma sodium and potassium levels. It increases sodium reabsorption by increasing the number of sodium channels and Na+-K+ ATPase pumps in the distal tubule and proximal tubule, respectively.

Explanation:

Aldosterone is a steroid hormone produced by the adrenal glands, regulating electrolyte and water balance in the body. It acts on the kidneys, promoting the retention of sodium and excretion of potassium, thereby influencing blood pressure and fluid balance.

Aldosterone is produced in the adrenal cortex and is stimulated by decreased plasma sodium levels and increased plasma potassium levels. It increases the number of passive sodium channels in the luminal membrane of the distal tubule and collecting duct, aiding sodium reabsorption. Additionally, aldosterone increases sodium reabsorption by increasing the number of Na+-K+ ATPase pumps in the luminal membrane of the proximal tubule.

If a person's heart is pumping 5000 ml of blood in one minute and the heart rate is 50 beats per minute, what is the cardiac output?

Answers

Answer:

5,000 mL/min

Final answer:

The cardiac output is 250,000 ml/minute when the heart is pumping 5000 ml of blood in one minute and has a heart rate of 50 beats per minute.

Explanation:

The cardiac output is the volume of blood pumped by the heart in one minute. It is calculated by multiplying the heart rate (number of beats per minute) by the stroke volume (volume of blood pumped per beat).

In this case, the heart is pumping 5000 ml of blood in one minute and the heart rate is 50 beats per minute.

Therefore, the cardiac output is calculated as:
Cardiac Output = Heart Rate x Stroke Volume
Cardiac Output = 50 beats/minute x 5000 ml/minute = 250,000 ml/minute

So, the cardiac output is 250,000 ml/minute.

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The ph of the water in several lakes in norway and sweden had decreased to below 5.0 due to an increase in acid rain. What is most likely to happen in these lakes?

Answers

Answer:

What will most likely happen in these lakes is that there will be a decline of several fish populations. The correct answer is A.

Explanation:

The options attached to the question are given below:

A. The decline of several fish populations

B. An increase in the number of fish.

C. An increase in the number of primary producers.

D. Increased predator- prey relationship.

The fishes, just like any other living organisms has ideal body temperature and pH at which they act best. The ideal pH for fish living in lake water is between 6 and 8. If the pH is reduced below this value then the water will become acidic and this will be toxic for the fish population living in the lakes. Therefore, those fish that can not cope will die and there will be a decrease in the fish populations.

Final answer:

Increased acid rain leading to lower pH in lakes can result in damage to aquatic life due to altered physiological processes, depletion of dissolved oxygen, and increased eutrophication. This creates an inhabitable environment for most fauna, excluding some acid-tolerant species.

Explanation:

When the pH of water in lakes decreases to below 5.0 due to an increase in acid rain, several harmful effects are most likely to occur. One of the primary impacts is damage to aquatic life, as most organisms, excluding some acid-tolerant species, can't survive in such acidic conditions. This is because a lower pH can affect metabolic processes and inhibit the survival and reproduction of aquatic organisms. For instance,

fish and shellfish can experience decreased survival rates and altered physiological functions.

Moreover, the increased acidity can lead to the depletion of oxygen in the water body, a scenario that often results in 'dead zones', where the majority of the fauna cannot survive due to insufficient oxygen. Eutrophication, or excessive growth of microorganisms, can also occur, leading to an overall imbalance in the aquatic ecosystem.

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What is a possible consequence of climate change to species that have a narrow temperature tolerance range? a. extinction b. decreased population c. changes in migratory patterns d. all of the above

Answers

Answer:

a. extinction

Explanation:

The species that have a very narrow temperature tolerance are usually species that are very specialized for their environment. These species are the ones that suffer the most if there's changes in the environment, and usually are the first ones to go extinct. If the temperature changes, especially if it happens relatively quickly, apart from the difficulty that species will have with the temperature itself, it will also have huge problems with the quickly changing habitat. The end result will be a quick demise and extinction of the species.

*100% CORRECT ANSWERS

Question 1

Climate warming trends allow plant and insect species to inhabit larger ranges.

True

Question 2

What is a possible consequence of climate change to species that have a narrow temperature tolerance range?  

all of the above

Question 3

Which of the following is not a possible effect of rising carbon dioxide levels on plants?

increased plant mortality

Question 4

How does an early onset of spring through climate change affect plants?

their growing and flowering season starts earlier and is longer

Question 5

Environmental factors can cause various changes in ecosystems. Which of the following would most likely have the greatest lasting effect on an ecosystem?

change to the landscape from construction

Question 6

How does change to an ecosystem that results in succession benefit the ecosystem?

it leads to an increased level of biodiversity

Question 7

How do the benefits of natural change to ecosystems compare to the disadvantages?

the benefits outweigh the disadvantages

Question 8

Environmental factors can have various effects on ecosystems. In August 2005, Hurricane Katrina caused significant damage in several states along the Gulf Coast, including Alabama, Mississippi, and Louisiana. Thousands of people were evacuated from their homes due to flooding and other damage caused by the storm. What environmental impact would Hurricane Katrina not have caused?

early onset of spring

Question 9

Rising levels of carbon dioxide most likely

have a greater detrimental effect on the sea

Question 10

Which scenario best describes how climate trends might affect animal migration?

animals found at the equator may move north

This is an uncontrolled fire which destroys forests, jungle, and vegetation as well as animal species that live in the area. These fires spread very easily over large areas and is a source of great habitat destruction.

Answers

Answer:

Wildfire

Explanation:

The wildfires are one very devastating occurrence that can appear both naturally and be caused by humans. Naturally these fires occur because of high temperatures and drought, and because of thunders. When they occur, they spread out very quickly and it is an uncontrolled fire. It manages to burn down very large areas of grasslands or forests, moving very quickly and being extremely difficult to put it under control. While the wildfires are very destructive, there's also a positive from them, as they leave behind lot of ashes, and the ashes fertilize the soil, providing the basis for the growth of new vegetation.

How does the primary transcript in a prokaryotic cell compare to the functional mrna?

Answers

Answer:

The primary transcript is the same size as the functional mRNA

Explanation:

Genetic information carried by the DNA is used to generate proteins through the process of gene expression. Gene expression involves the process of transcription and translation.During transcription information in the DNA is used to generate a primary transcript which in turn forms a messenger RNA. The primary transcript from the process of transcription undergoes excision to remove non-coding sequences so as tor form the functional mRNA in eukaryotes. This explains why the primary transcript in eukaryotes is larger than the functional messenger RNA. However, in prokaryotes the primary transcript is the same size as the functional RNA.

Use the drop-down menus to answer some questions about dermal tissue. The dermal layer is the layer of the plant. The dermal layer is like human . The dermal layer has a waxy barrier called the . allow for gas exchange and regulate water loss. The dermal layer's main function is .

Answers

Answer:

1st: outermost

2nd: skin

3rd: cuticle

4th: guard cells

5th: protection

Explanation:

Answer:

The dermal tissue system safeguards the plants' soft tissues and monitors the associations with the surroundings of the plant. The epidermis refers to a dermal tissue, which is generally a solitary layer of cells enveloping the younger sections of the plants. It discharged a waxy layer known as the cuticle, which prevents loss of water.  

The dermal layer is the outermost layer of the plant. The dermal layer is similar to human skin. The dermal layer possesses a waxy barrier known as the cuticle. The guard cells permit for exchange of gases and monitor loss of water. The prime function of the dermal layer is protection.  

What substance found in turkey is known for making you sleepy?

Answers

amino acid tryptophan

Contrary to popular belief, eating turkey isn't the main reason you feel sleepy after a Thanksgiving feast. The oft-repeated turkey myth stems from the fact that turkey contains the amino acid tryptophan, which forms the basis of brain chemicals that make people tired

What is the purpose of the pericardial sac that surrounds the heart in mammals

Answers

Answer:

Pericardial sac has protective tole

Explanation:

Pericardial sac or pericardium is a fibrous tissue that surrounds the heart. It has two coats:

the outter coat-parietal pericardiumthe inner coat-visceral pericardium or epicardium which is double-layered and contains pericardial fluid between those two layers (pericardial fluid is necessary as a lubricant for the heart movement).

Besides lubrication, percardium also protects heart from infections, fixes it and limits its movements.

Carbon dioxide diffuses into the ocean carbon cycle via the air-sea surface exchange. Molecules of CO2 enter the ocean by diffusing into the surface waters and dissolving. The amount of CO2 that diffuses and dissolves in the surface water depends on several variables. Scientists have noted that more CO2 diffuses and dissolves in colder sea surface water and less CO2 diffuses and dissolves in warmer water. Let's assume the predictions of scientists predicting a warming climate are true. Can you predict the changes to this model if average ocean temperatures increase as well?
A) Warmer oceans would result in an increase in dissolved CO2. That in turn would result in a shift in the oceans to more photosynthesis, respiration, and decomposition.
B) Warmer oceans would result in an increase in dissolved gases in the oceans. An increase in the CO2 would result in an increase in the rate of photosynthesis of autotrophs found in the oceans.
Eliminate
C) Warmer oceans would mean less dissolved CO2 as well as other gases such as oxygen in the global ocean. Lower CO2 would result in a decrease in photosynthesis of autotrophs living in the oceans.
D) Warmer oceans result in less dissolved CO2 in the oceans and more CO2 diffusing into the atmosphere. The extra CO2 would cause increased global warming, eventually causing a spike in Earth's temperatures and massive extinctions.

Answers

C is the correct answer for this one

Final answer:

If ocean temperatures rise, the solubility of the gas, in this case, carbon dioxide (CO2), would decrease and the amount of dissolved CO2 would reduce, pushing more CO2 back into the atmosphere and accelerating global warming. Option D best answers your question based on scientists' understanding of the process.

Explanation:

Based on your question, if average ocean temperatures increase due to climate change, the air-sea surface exchange model would undergo significant changes. Scientists have observed that warmer waters tend to drive down the solubility of CO2, thus the amount of dissolved CO2 in the ocean would decrease. Consequently, more CO2 would diffuse back into the atmosphere.

Essentially, the correct answer to your multiple-choice question would be option D: 'Warmer oceans result in less dissolved CO2 in the oceans and more CO2 diffusing into the atmosphere. The extra CO2 would cause increased global warming, eventually causing a spike in Earth's temperatures and massive extinctions.' This prediction aligns with scientists' understanding of the air-sea exchange and the impact of temperature on it.

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What process causes all stars to glow and produce energy

Answers

Answer:

The simple answer is that deep inside the core of the Sun, enough protons can collide into each other with enough speed that they stick together to form a helium nucleus and generate a tremendous amount of energy at the same time. This process is called nuclear fusion.

Explanation:

Answer:

Explanation:stars shine Because they are extremely hot (like fire gives off light because it is hot) .

The source of this energy is present deep inside the star where the nuclear reactions are taking place.

In most of the stars the hydrogen is being converted into helium ,a process which gives off energy that heats the star

What is one virulence factor that differentiates staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylococci? what is one virulence factor that differentiates staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylococci? it has a capsule. it produces lipase. it can produce coagulase. it can live on the surface of the skin and in cutaneous oil glands. it produces catalase?

Answers

Answer:

B) It can produce coagulase

hope this helps.

Determine the proportion of offspring phenotypes that would result when two merle dogs mate, if both dogs are heterozygous (Ll) for the gene that regulates coat length.

Answers

Answer:

75% would have the dominant traits for coat length, 25% would have recessive trait for coat length.

Explanation:

After completing a punnet square, we could find that our genotypes are 25% LL, 50% Ll, and 25% ll.

If these genotypes were to be physically expressed, LL and Ll would both be expressed as showing the dominant trait.

This means that 75% would have the dominant traits for coat length and 25% would have recessive trait for coat length.

I hope this was helpful! Let me know if you need any clarity.

Final answer:

When determining the offspring phenotypes of two heterozygous dogs (Ll x Ll) for coat length, a Punnett square reveals a 3:1 phenotypic ratio, resulting in three-quarters of the progeny having long fur (dominant) and one-quarter having short fur (recessive).

Explanation:

Understanding Offspring Phenotypes from a Genotype Cross

In genetics, when determining the proportion of offspring phenotypes, specifically with coat color and texture traits, a Punnett square is used commonly. This allows us to visually see the potential genotypes and phenotypes of the progeny when the parents have known genotypes. When two dogs that are heterozygous for a trait mate, each parent has one dominant and one recessive allele for the trait in question. To determine the proportion of phenotypes, you need to establish the alleles for each trait. For example, if we denote 'L' as the dominant allele for long fur and 'l' as the recessive allele for short fur, two heterozygous dogs would have the genotype Ll.

Setting up a Punnett square for Ll x Ll:

The first row and column will have the alleles from each parent (L and l).

By filling out the squares, we predict the potential genotypes of the offspring.

The resulting genotype ratio for Ll x Ll is: 1 LL (homozygous dominant), 2 Ll (heterozygous), and 1 ll (homozygous recessive).

The phenotypic ratio would be:

3 long fur (1 LL and 2 Ll, since L is dominant)

1 short fur (1 ll, as both alleles are recessive)

This gives us a phenotypic ratio of 3:1, where three-quarters of the offspring will have long fur, and one-quarter will have short fur, assuming that long fur is the dominant phenotype associated with the L allele.

A patient has diabetes, a disease that causes high blood sugar levels. Which macromolecule will a dietician monitor most closely in a patient that has the disease?

A: carbohydrates
B: lipids
C: nucleic acids
D: proteins

Answers

The answer is a: carbohydrates
Carbs contain high amounts of different sugars, so they should be monitored if someone has diabetes.

Carbohydrates is the macromolecule that will be monitored most closely in a patient that has the disease diabetes by a dietician.

What is a macromolecule?

"Macromolecule is a molecule containing a very large number of atoms, such as a protein, nucleic acid, or synthetic polymer."

What are all the macromolecules?

A large, organic molecule such as

carbohydrates,lipids,proteins,nucleic acids.

What is diabetes?

"Diabetes is a disease that occurs when your blood glucose, also called blood sugar, is too high."

What are the types of diabetes?

There are three main types of diabetes:

type 1,type 2,gestational diabetes.

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Name two features found in birds and their role in ensuring the ability to fly

Answers

Answer:

There two features which facilitates bird to fly are presence of light and smooth feathers and light bones.

Explanation:

Birds are the only living creatures which has the ability to migrate from one place to another through flying. There are many physical features present in their body which facilitates them in flying.

Among the two features and their role in flying are as follows:  

Light and smooth feathers: Wings are the organ which is involved in flying. It is composed of feathers which are very colorful and are light in weight and smooth in its appearance. This apart from reducing the body weight helps the bird to reduce the force and drag during flying. Light bones: The skeletal system of the birds is composed of light bone which are primarily hollow with air sacs. This accounts for less body weight while flying.

"what kind of sand dune appears to be most common in this dune field"

Answers

The most common dune form on Earth and on Mars is the crescentic. Crescent-shaped mounds generally are wider than long. The slipface is on the dune's concave side. ... Some types of crescentic dunes move faster over desert surfaces than any other type of dune.

If you compared two samples of dna at three different locations in the genome and found they had different lengths of short tandem repeats(e.g. microsateliites.) at each location, what could you conclude?

Answers

Answer: please search in wikipedia

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