Answer: (E) Focus group
Explanation:
The focus group is the term which refers to the diverse group of the various types of people that basically used the traditional market researcher for gathering the various types of opinions about the various types of products and the services.
The focus group is mainly used by the various types of organizations for analyzing the consumer feedback about the specific products in the market.
According to the given question, the focus group is one of the market research exploratory method that involve the product oriented various types of discussions.
Therefore, Option (E) is correct answer.
) Which of the following statements about "open-perils" coverage is (are) true?
I. All losses are covered except those losses specifically excluded.
II. The burden of proof is on the insured to prove that a loss is covered.
A) I only
B) II only
C) both I and II
D) neither I nor II
Answer:
A is the answer
Explanation:
Danielle Corporation received $2,000,000 from investors and issued them shares of its stock. Danielle's journal entry to record this transaction would include a: a. Credit to revenue. b. Debit to investments. c. Credit to common stock. d. Credit to retained earnings.
Answer:
c. Credit to common stock.
Explanation:
Usually it's the credit to common stock in an amount equal to the par times stocks issued with the rest credited to Paid-in capital in excess of par.
A logically related set of activities that defines how specific business tasks are performed and represents a unique way in which an organization coordinates work, information, and knowledge is called a(n) __________.
Answer:
a business process
Explanation:
A business process -
It refers to the steps involved to complete a particular task or project in an organisation or company , is referred to as a business process .
It is the set of activities or task , which are followed and performed till the completion of the project .
Hence , from the given information of the question ,
The correct term is a business process .
What can the Performance Planner assist you with? A. To create an optimized copy of your existing campaign, so that it can be tested with the drafts and experiments tool B. To determine which Google Ads features should be enabled to get the best performance from your campaigns C. To improve return on investment so you can drive more conversions within your target CPA (cost-per-acquisition) D. To analyze the search term report and add both keywords and negative keywords, depending on historical performance
Answer: The correct answer is C). To improve return on investment so you can drive more conversions within your target CPA (cost-per-acquisition)
Explanation: Performance Planner is a tool used in advertising planning. It helps the advertiser to organise bids and budget in order to maximise a specific metric across his campaigns.
The tool helps to drive incremental conversions which is within your target and improve retunr on investment as well.
Organizations can utilize a(n) ________ as an internal corporate communication network that uses Internet technology to link company departments, employees, and databases. A. market intelligence system B. marketing decision support system (MDSS) C. intranet D. marketing information system (MIS) E. database
Answer:
The answer to this question is E.database.
Explanation:
The key feature of an oligopolistic market is that Select one: a. a single firm chooses a point on the market demand curve. b. each firm produces a different product from other firms. c. a small number of firms are acting strategically. d. each firm takes the market price as given.
An oligopolistic market is characterized by a small number of firms strategically acting, having mutual interdependence and likely leading to strategic behavior and game theory in decision-making.The correct option is C.
Explanation:The key feature of an oligopolistic market is that a small number of firms are acting strategically. In an oligopoly, few firms dominate the market and each one is aware of the others' actions and decisions.
They strategically make decisions considering the reactions of the rival firms, like pricing and output level. This mutual interdependence often leads to strategic behavior and game theory in decisions related to price and output.
Hence, option C is correct. Options A, B, and D are characteristics of monopoly, monopolistic competition, and perfect competition markets respectively.
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An oligopolistic market is characterized by a small number of firms that make strategic decisions based on the actions of other firms in the market. These markets are characterized by high barriers to entry and can exhibit characteristics of both monopoly and perfect competition. Firms within an oligopolistic market may choose to behave like perfect competitors or collude and behave like a monopoly to maximize profit.
Explanation:The key feature of an oligopolistic market is that a small number of firms are acting strategically. The term oligopoly refers to a market structure wherein a small number of large firms dominate most or all of the sales in an industry. Examples of oligopoly abound and include the auto industry, commercial air travel, and the U.S. soft drink industry. These firms decide on output, pricing, and other aspects strategically based on the decisions of the other firms in the market.
Firms in an oligopolistic market can either choose to compete hard which may result in actions very similar to perfect competitors, driving down costs, or they can collude with each other to effectively act like a monopoly, pushing up prices, and earning consistently high levels of profit.
Noteworthy is the fact that high barriers to entry characterized oligopolies, resulting in fewer firms operating in the industry. Oligopolistic markets can take on elements of monopoly and perfect competition, depending on the strategic actions taken by firms within the market.
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On September 30, the Cash account of Value Company had a normal balance of $5,000. During September, the account was debited for a total of $12,200 and credited for a total of $11,500. What was the balance in the Cash account at the beginning of September?a. A $0 balance.
b. A $7,400 credit balance.
c. A $7,400 debit balance.
d. A $6,000 debit balance.
e. A $6,000 credit balance.
Final answer:
The balance in the Cash account at the beginning of September was a $4,300 debit balance, which is calculated based on the normal ending balance and the transactions during the month.
Explanation:
To determine the balance in the Cash account at the beginning of September for Value Company, we need to use the account's normal balance and the transactions that took place during the month. The normal balance at the end of September was $5,000. We also know that the account was debited for a total of $12,200 and credited for $11,500.
To find the beginning balance, we perform the following calculation:
Ending Balance = Beginning Balance + Debits - Credits$5,000 = Beginning Balance + $12,200 - $11,500$5,000 = Beginning Balance + $700Beginning Balance = $5,000 - $700Beginning Balance = $4,300Therefore, the correct answer is none of the given options. The balance in the Cash account at the beginning of September was a $4,300 debit balance.
Harper Co. incurred an apparently permanent inventory loss from market decline of $840,000 during June year 1. What amount of the inventory loss should be recognized in Harper’s quarterly income statement for the 3 months ended June 30, year 1?
A. $840,000
B. $280,000
C. $210,000
D. $420,000
Answer:
$840,000
Explanation:
The international Accounting Standard 2 postulates that cost be adjusted to the lower of Cost and Net Realizable Value. Hence the value of Stock to be shown has to reflect the FULL REDUCTION IN VALUE to reflect the Net Realizable Value.
Furthermore the transaction occurred in June and must be included in June's financial statement. It is not to be apportioned as the drop in value did not have across periods but in one particular period.
Which of the following would best describe what would happen to the time value at the same nominal annual rate of a cash flow as the number of interest compounding periods increases?
A) Both the present value and future value would increase.
B) The present value would decrease and the future value would increase.
C) Both the present value and future value would decrease.
D) The present value would increase and the future value would decrease.
The following would best describe that what would happen to the time value at the same nominal annual rate of a cash flow as the number of interest compounding periods increases: The present value would decrease and the future value would increase. The correct option is B.
The impact of compounding is stronger as there are more interest compounding periods. Earning interest through compounding entails earning interest on both the initial capital and the total interest accumulated over time. As a result of the compounding effect, a cash flow's future worth will rise.
In contrast, as the number of compounding periods rises, the present value of a future cash flow falls. This is due to the fact that when the frequency of compounding increases, the discounting of future cash flows back to the present gets more aggressive.
Thus, the ideal selection is option B.
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Increasing compounding periods would cause the present value to decrease and the future value to increase. This is because as compounding periods increase, the interest rate per period decreases which reduces the present value. Conversely, the future value increases because the more often interest is compounded, the greater the future value.
Explanation:The best description of what would happen to the time value at the same nominal annual rate as the number of interest compounding periods increases is option B): The present value would decrease and the future value would increase.
Present value is the current worth of a future sum of money at a specified rate of return. If the number of compounding periods increase, the interest rate per period decreases, resulting in a lower present value. The rationale behind it is that the money receives less interest over each period because it is divided over more periods.
On the other hand, the future value would increase. Future value is the value of a current asset at a future date based on an assumed rate of growth. The more frequently interest is compounded within a time period, the greater the future value of the investment at the end of the time period.
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An economy that maximizes its scarce resources and can deliver the right goods in the right quantity to the right people at the right price has achieved which economic goal?
a. Efficiency
b. Freedom
c. Security
d. Equity
Answer: Efficiency.
Explanation:
An economy is said to be efficient if the economy is able to make the best use of the available resources found in that economy, in meeting the needs of consumers within the economy and even exporting to consumers found in other economies.
An economy that maximizes its scarce resources and can deliver the right goods in the right quantity to the right people at the right price has achieved:
a. Efficiency
An economy aims to manage its resources in such a way that it can produce the maximum possible output with the minimum input or cost. When an economy can effectively allocate its resources to produce the right goods in the right quantity and deliver them to the right people at the right price, it is said to be operating efficiently.
Efficiency is about optimal use of resources. In an efficient economy, resources are not wasted. Instead, they are used in a way that maximizes the benefit to society. If resources are allocated in a manner where no one can be made better off without making someone else worse off, then we have reached a point known as Pareto efficiency.
In the context of the options given:
- b. Freedom generally refers to the level of autonomy and choice that consumers and producers have in the marketplace.
- c. Security typically pertains to the stability of the economy, including factors like job security and safety nets for the vulnerable.
- d. Equity is about fairness in the distribution of resources and wealth.
Given the description provided in the question, the best match is:
a. Efficiency, which encompasses the optimal use of scarce resources and the delivery of goods in the most effective manner.
When discussing economic concepts, understanding the clear distinctions between terms ensures readability and clarity for readers, especially those researching for educational or informational purposes.
The total amount of equity (common stock, additional paid-in capital and retained earnings) that should appear on the balance sheet of the combined companies immediately following the merger should be
Answer:
Equal to the sum of their net assets (whether or not the assets are revalued)
Explanation:
Mathematically, equity equals the total asset of a company, less its total liabilities. This is also referred to the net assets of the company.
[tex]Equity = Total Assets - Total Liabilities[/tex]
However, when two companies are merging, the total assets of the combining companies are usually revalued to reflect their current values and not the historical values usually carried in the books before the merger. In a revaluation, if the value of total assets increases, a corresponding increase will be recorded in Equity (revaluation surplus). This keeps the Equity-Net Assets equation equal at all times.
Thus, when two companies merge, the total amount of equity of the combined companies will equal the net assets of the combined companies, irrespective of whether a revaluation of the assets of the companies was done or not.
Melanie has a choice of driving or flying from Durham, North Carolina to Knoxville, Tennessee for a one-day business trip. If she travels by air, she will be able to work seven hours in Knoxville, while if she drives, she will only have time to work four hours once there. Her expected income from each hour of work in Knoxville is $40. If Melanie a rational decision maker, she will chose to fly if and only if the price differential (air cost minus driving cost) is less than
a. $40.
b. $120.
c. $160.
d. $280.
Answer:
Correct option is (b)
Explanation:
Time available for work if Melanie chooses to travel by air = 7 hours
Income per hour = $40
Total income earned if chooses to travel by air = 40 × 7 = $280
Time available for work if Melanie chooses to drive = 4 hours
Total income earned if chooses to drive = 40 × 4 = $160
Price differential = 280 - 160 = $120
As a rational decision maker, Melanie will choose to fly over drive only if her price differential is below $120. She will choose to drive if price differential is above $120.
Melanie should choose to fly if the price differential is less than $120.
Explanation:The Question:Melanie has a choice of driving or flying from Durham, North Carolina to Knoxville, Tennessee for a one-day business trip. If she travels by air, she will be able to work seven hours in Knoxville, while if she drives, she will only have time to work four hours once there. Her expected income from each hour of work in Knoxville is $40.
To determine the price differential at which Melanie would choose to fly, we need to consider her income from working and the cost of each mode of transportation:
- If she flies, she can work for 7 hours, earning a total of $280 (7 hours * $40/hour income).
- If she drives, she can only work for 4 hours, earning a total of $160 (4 hours * $40/hour income).
Therefore, the price differential should be less than $120 for Melanie to choose to fly (her income from flying subtracted by her income from driving): $280 - $160 = $120.
The Answer:The correct answer is b. $120.
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In considering ending her relationship with her husband, Marie considers how they might divide up their household goods, and how it might impact their children and their friends. In interdependence theory terms, Marie is thinking about: A. comparison level. B. comparison level of alternatives. C. outcomes. D. investments.
Answer:
D) investment
Explanation:
Marie has decided to end her relation with her husband and considering how she can divide the household goods, how the end of the relationship impacts her children. By considering all this point, Marie is thinking about the investment.
Interdependence theory state that interpersonal relationships depend upon interdependence. it determine the how people interact each other and what will be the outcomes of their interaction.
Which of the following is a similarity between goods and services? Question 21 options: A) mass production B) Both have quality standards. C) Both can usually be kept in inventory. D) automation E) consistency
Answer:
The correct answer is option B.
Explanation:
Goods are physical and tangible products that are used to satisfy human wants and needs. While services are non-tangible products that are used for the same purpose.
The difference between the two is that is in terms of tangibility. Also, goods can be produced in advance and stored in inventories, unlike services. Services are immediately consumed as produced.
The similarity between the two is that both have quality standards. However, the quality standards of services depend on the expectations before the consumption.
Both goods and services have quality standards.
Explanation:A similarity between goods and services is that both have quality standards.
Quality standards are criteria or measures set to ensure that products or services meet certain expectations or specifications.
For example, a car manufacturer may have quality standards in place to ensure that every car produced meets specific safety, performance, and reliability criteria. Similarly, a service provider, such as a hotel, may have quality standards to ensure that guests are provided with a clean, comfortable, and satisfactory experience.
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If one firm has a higher total debt to total capital ratio than another, we can be certain that the firm with the higher total debt to total capital ratio will have the lower TIE ratio, as that ratio depends entirely on the amount of debt a firm uses.True / False.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Total debt to total capital ratio, also known as D/C ratio is a ratio that measures a company's capital structure, financial solvency, and degree of leverage, at a particular point in time.
While the Times Interest Earned (TIE) is a ratio which measures the ability of an organization to pay its debt obligations.
So A company with high debt-to-capital ratios, compared to a general or industry average, may show weak financial strength and hence would have a lower ability to pay its debt obligations one which the TIE ratio measures.
Jacob and Mason go to a diner that sells burritos for $5 and tacos for $3. They agree to split the lunch bill evenly. Mason chooses a taco. The marginal cost to Jacob of ordering a burrito instead of a taco is________
Answer:
$1
Explanation:
The marginal cost is the extra costs that are to be incurred for producing an additional units
Provided that
Burritos = $5
Tacos = $3
So, the Total sales price = $8
Now this sales price is split evenly, that means it would be given the $4 to Jacob and the remaining 4 to Mason
So, the marginal cost would be
= $5 - $4
= $1
Janice owns a firm that provides accounting services to a number of small businesses in the area. Her firm processes payroll, prepares quarterly payroll tax returns, and provides tax consulting services. Janice is a(n) _______ accountant.
Answer:
Janice is a public accountant
Explanation:
Public accounting refers to a business that provides its services to other firms at large. By Janice being the owner of such firm she is referred to an accountant that provides her services to the public and she can also be referred to as a certified public accountant
Suppose that you are on a date with an economics major, and you want to impress them by talking about economics. Your date challenges you to state your knowledge of positive and normative questions.
Answer:
The difference between positive and normative questions, is that positive questions have a correct answer, while normative questions have subjective answers. Positive questions ask about how something really is, e.g. what is the GDP per capita in the US? Normative questions ask about how things should be, e.g. Is the US GDP per capita large enough?
A management trainee at an organization with a pyramid structure is unhappy with the way he is treated by his immediate supervisor. Instead of discussing this privately with his supervisor, he complains directly to the senior manager. What is the type of political blunder committed here?
a) Criticizing the boss in a public forum
b) Failing to display loyalty
c) Bypassing the boss
d) Being tactless
Answer:
option c
Explanation:
Bypassing the supervisor or boss , in simple language, means considering hard questions which contradict existing mindsets and providing new ways of working. Yet being a think-tank member and building an image for yourself when reporting to a supervisor who thinks she or he is the room's greatest star is indeed a true challenge-to put it lightly.
The management trainee committed the political blunder of bypassing the boss by complaining directly to the senior manager instead of discussing the issue privately with his immediate supervisor.
Explanation:The type of political blunder committed in this situation is c) Bypassing the boss. By complaining directly to the senior manager instead of discussing the issue privately with his immediate supervisor, the management trainee bypassed the chain of command and undermined the authority of his supervisor. This can create a negative perception of the trainee's loyalty and respect for the hierarchical structure of the organization.
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At the end of a full year mary garber had $6248.95 in her saving account. If the rate of interest was 12.253%, how much money did Mary have in the bank at the beginning of the year?
Answer:
$5,566.84
Explanation:
to determine the amount of money that Mary had in her account at the beginning of the year we can use the resent value formula:
present value (PV) = future value (FV) / (1 + interest rate)ⁿ
where:
FV = $6,248.95interest rate = 12.253%n = 1PV = $6,248.95 / (1 + 12.253%) = $6,248.95 / 1.12253 = $5,566.84
Why should campaigns with different marketing objectives be separated into different Performance Planner plans?1. So that spend is not reallocated between two different marketing objectives2. To avoid any potential keyword duplicates between different marketing objectives3. So that seasonal trends can be better identified for each individual marketing objective4. To prevent campaigns from becoming "Limited by Budget"
Answer:
1) So that spend is not reallocated between two different marketing objectives
Explanation:
When you determine the objectives or goals of any type of activity, you must be sure that they are measurable and you can decide if they were successful or not.
If a company has two different marketing campaigns with two different objectives or goals, you will need a cost benefit analysis in order to be able to measure how successful each campaign was.
For example, marketing campaign A increased product's A sales by $100,000, but its total cost was $80,000. On the other hand, campaign B increased product's B sales by $200,000 and its total cost was $40,000. Since campaign B generated higher sales per dollar invested, then it was more efficient.
A non bottleneck worker currently has an idle time of 20 seconds per unit. Because of the large demand, the company improves the process by adding more capacity to the bottleneck. How does this impact the idle time of the worker?
1. The idle time would decrease.
2. The idle time would stay the same.
3. The idle time would increase.
4. Cannot determine from the given information.
Answer:The idle time would decrease
Explanation:Idle time refers to the time when employees are not doing any particular work but they are still paid for that time in simple terms it refers to an unproductive time of employees. This may be due to things beyond employees control like working with a slow machine may require that the people at the end product must weight for quite some time to have the product reach their side.
What Is a Bottleneck?
A bottleneck refers to congestion that result from being overloaded by so much work , when the work arrives too quickly such than that the production process can't handle it; this result to delays and higher production cost so increasing the capacity of the bottle neck will reduce the waiting time for the non bottle neck workers because this will increase the efficiency of production.
Adding capacity to the bottleneck improves the flow of work, but does not affect the idle time of non-bottleneck workers. Thus, the idle time would stay the same.
Explanation:The idle time of a non-bottleneck worker is affected by the capacity of the bottleneck process. In this case, the company is adding more capacity to the bottleneck. Therefore, there will be more work flowing through the system. However, since the worker in question is not a bottleneck worker, they were already able to handle the workload passing through their station. Improving the bottleneck does not affect the non-bottleneck worker's workload, so their idle time would stay the same. Therefore, the correct answer is 2. The idle time would stay the same.
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Eileen, a manager at an international restaurant chain, wants to know if it will be most cost effective to buy 1,000 pounds of sugar in Country X or in Country Y using U.S. dollars. Which of the following is Eileen most likely trying to determine?
A) Purchasing power parity.
B) Economic growth rate.
C) Gross domestic income.
D) Gross national product.
Answer:
A. Purchasing power parity
Explanation:
Purchasing power parity is a techniques that is used to determine the relative value or the exchange rates of currencies.
Eileen is using the purchasing power parity because she is comparing the cost effectiveness of buying a particular product in different countries using the dollar. The exchange rates of the currency of country X and country Y against will determine which country she will buy from.
In a nutshell, Purchasing power parity is a measurement of two currencies by taking the cost of living and inflation differences into account.
Today, establishing long-term, mutually beneficial arrangements in which both the buyer and seller focus on value enhancement through the creation of more satisfying exchanges is known as __________.
Answer: Relationship marketing
Explanation:
The relationship marketing is one of the type of business strategy that helps in developing the various types of long term business opportunity by interacting with the customer and also fulfill the actual requirement of the customers.
The main objective of the relationship marketing is that it helps in developing the strong connection with the consumers and promoting the products and the services to the users.
According to the given question, the relationship marketing is the helps in establishing the long term opportunities in which both the seller and the buyers are focus on the value enhancement process.
Therefore, Relationship marketing is the correct answer.
The economy is in short-run equilibrium when __________. a. aggregate demand intersects short-run aggregate supply. b. short-run aggregate supply intersects long-run aggregate supply. c. aggregate demand intersects long-run aggregate supply. d. aggregate demand intersects both long-run and short-run aggregate supply. e. the economy is at full-employment output.
Answer:
A. aggregate demand intersects short-run aggregate supply
Explanation:
Short run occurs when the amount a firm wishes to supply is equal to the amount demanded from the consumers. It is the area on the graph where the aggregate demand curve intersect with the short run supply curve.
Or, simply put, when the aggregate output supplied is equal to the aggregate output demanded. The equilibrium is made up of equilibrium prices and quantity.
Short-run equilibrium in the economy occurs when the aggregate demand curve intersects with the short-run aggregate supply curve.
The economy is in short-run equilibrium when aggregate demand intersects short-run aggregate supply. This intersection determines equilibrium real GDP and the price level in the short run. In contrast, the intersection of aggregate demand and long-run aggregate supply determines the long-run equilibrium, which corresponds to the economy's potential level of output. The short-run equilibrium can see output levels both below and above potential due to nominal wage and price stickiness. Over time, the economy may adjust to reach long-run equilibrium where full wage and price flexibility is achieved.
Which statement is TRUE? a. The concept of equilibrium requires that all individuals have an equal amount of income. b. If a market is in equilibrium, there will be no remaining opportunities for individuals to make themselves better off. c. A market is in equilibrium when the number of buyers is equal to the number of sellers. d. If a market is in equilibrium, the price in that market will not fluctuate by more than 5%.
Answer:
b. If a market is in equilibrium, there will be no remaining opportunities for individuals to make themselves better off
Explanation:
Equilibrium refers to a state of rest. Market equilibrium refers to a situation wherein quantity demanded of a product equals quantity supplied of that product.
Market equilibrium only gets disrupted when factors affecting demand other than the price changes which leads to either increase/decrease in demand or increase/decrease in supply.
At the equilibrium level, the possibility of individuals making themselves better off get wiped out.
Discuss what happens to the equilibrium price and quantity of Colgate Toothpaste when there is an increase in the demand for Colgate Toothpaste but no change in the supply. What could cause an increase in the demand for Colgate Toothpaste but no change in supply?
Answer:
The demand of a product may increase due to several factors, including a decrease in the product's price, an increase in the price of the competition (substitute products), a decrease in the price of complement, or an increase in consumer income.
The company can only control the price they charge for the product, but they do not control the other external factors. If the supplier is able to increase the quantity supplied, the equilibrium price might not vary at least in the short run. If the external factors continue then the equilibrium will probably increase.
If the quantity demanded for Colgate increases, but the supplier is not able to increase the quantity supplied, then the equilibrium price will increase due to a shortage of the product.
According to the law of demand, as prices rise, ceteris paribus A. quantity demanded decreases. B. quantity demanded increases. C. demand increases. D. demand decreases.
Answer:
A) quantity demanded decreases.
Explanation:
The law of demand states that as the price of a good or service increases, the quantity demanded (not the demand) of the good or service will decrease. This happens because less consumers are willing to purchase the goods or services and since the supply doesn't change, overstocking will result, which will decrease the equilibrium price.
*The demand of a good or service is shown by the demand curve, but the points in the curve represent the quantity demanded.
Answer:
A. Decreases
Explanation:
decreases.
increases.
stays the same.
disappears.
Ritufa Foods, a food processing company, has collaborated with a nonprofit organization in an initiative to fund salad bars in schools across the country. A small percentage of the money that consumers use to buy products of Ritufa Foods will be given to the nonprofit organization. The money will then be used by the nonprofit organization to fund the salad bars. This partnership with the nonprofit organization is an example of _____.
a. relationship marketing
b. green marketing
c. effect-related marketing
d. cause-related marketing
Answer:
The correct answer is letter "D": cause-related marketing
Explanation:
Cause-related marketing results in the collaboration between a company and a non-profit organization. Usually, the company takes advantage of its position in the market to promote a good or service being introduced by the non-profit organization so its sales increase. Then, the non-profit organization uses the revenues from the sales to fund its humanitarian activities.
Elena, an employee at ABC Marketing, has observed misconduct at work and wonders if she should report it. In the end she decides not to do so because of the possible repercussions at work. Which of the following has determined the Elena's action?
a. Organization factors
b. Individual factors
c. Opportunity
d. Control issues
e. Corporate culture
Answer:
a. Organization factors
Explanation:
Elena has decided not to report the incident at work because of the possible repercutions that doing so may have inside the organization enviroment (or work enviroment).
She is considering the organization factors before the individual factors that may motivate her to report the incident (such as morality, ethics, or personal desire).