Which fungal features supports the phylogenetic conclusion that fungi are more closely related to animals than plants?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Because fungi like animals are heterotrophs

Explanation:


Related Questions

Number the events from earliest (1) to most recent (6) to outline the development of the cell theory.


Anton van Leeuwenhoek observed small organisms he called "animalcules."


Robert Hooke was the first to use the word "cell."


Matthias Schleiden theorized that plants are made of cells.


Theodor Schwann theorized that animals are made of cells.


Hans and Zacharias Janssen created the first microscope.


Rudolf Virchow theorized that cells come from other pre-existing cells.

Answers

Answer:

The chronological order of events ealiest to most recent (1-6) are given below:

Explanation:

1. Hans and Zacharias Janssen created the first microscope in the year 1590.

2. Robert Hooke was the first to use the word "cell." In the year 1665

3. Anton van Leeuwenhoek observed small organisms he called "animalcules." In the year 1674  

4. Matthias Schleiden theorized that plants are made of cells in the year 1838

5. Theodor Schwann theorized that animals are made of cells in the year 1839

6. Rudolf Virchow theorized that cells come from other pre-existing cells in the year 1855

Answer:

The chronological order of events ealiest to most recent (1-6) are given below:

Explanation:

1. Hans and Zacharias Janssen created the first microscope in the year 1590.

2. Robert Hooke was the first to use the word "cell." In the year 1665

3. Anton van Leeuwenhoek observed small organisms he called "animalcules." In the year 1674  

4. Matthias Schleiden theorized that plants are made of cells in the year 1838

5. Theodor Schwann theorized that animals are made of cells in the year 1839

6. Rudolf Virchow theorized that cells come from other pre-existing cells in the year 1855

Too much calcium in the bloodstream, a condition called hypercalcemia, can be very dangerous. The thyroid gland releases a hormone, calcitonin, when calcium is too high. How does calcitonin lower calcium levels in the blood

Answers

Answer:

Calcitonin reduces blood calcium

Explanation:

Calcitonin reduces blood calcium by suppressing the activities of osteclast (bone cells that breaks down bone tissue resulting in excess calcium) and increase the amount of calcium passed out as urine.

As her professor distributed the mathematics test to the class, Blair's heart started to pound and her palms began to sweat. These physiological reactions were activated by her ________ nervous system. Group of answer choices central endocrine sympathetic somatic parasympathetic

Answers

Answer:

sympathetic nervous system

Explanation:

The sympathetic nervous system is part of the autonomous nervous system which controls the involuntary body functions as heart rate, breath rate, perspiration etc. The sympathetic nervous system is specifically responsible for the increase in the function of body functions when the body perceives a threat. When faced with a threat or distress, the sympathetic nervous system initiates physiological reactions known as the “fight or flight” response, thereby increasing the body’s alertness to such threat. Examples of increased body functions or “fight or flight response” include increased perspiration and increased heart rate, as exhibited by Blair.

The answer is the Sympathetic nervous system as a Group of answer choices central endocrine sympathetic somatic parasympathetic shows these symptoms.

The sympathetic nervous system is a part of the self-sustaining fearful device which controls the involuntary frame capabilities such as coronary heart rate, breath rate, perspiration, etc. The sympathetic is in particular answerable for the boom withinside the feature of frame capabilities while the frame perceives a risk. When confronted with a risk or distress, the sympathetic nervous system initiates physiological reactions called the “combat or flight” response, thereby growing the frame’s alertness to such risk. Examples of improved frame capabilities or “combat or flight response” consist of improved perspiration and improved coronary heart rate, as exhibited via way of means of Blair.

What is the sympathetic nervous system?

The sympathetic nervous system directs the body's speedy involuntary reaction to risky or disturbing situations. A flash flood of hormones boosts the body's alertness and system coronary heart rate, sending greater blood to the muscles.

Hence conclude the sympathetic nervous system is the answer.

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Once alcohol enters the bloodstream it is quickly circulated to the __________, which impairs judgment and reasoning, the most critical skills needed by drivers.

Answers

Brain

Explanation:

Alcohol has an effect on the structures of brain which are complex. The chemical signals between brain cells are blocked by the alcohol which leads to the symptoms such as poor memory, slurred speech, impulsive behavior and slowed refelexes.Once the alcohol is ingested in our body, it affects our body immediately.It is absorbed in our bloodstream through the lining of or stomach, which then diffuses in the tissues present in our body.When we consume alcohol in excess, it kill our brain cells.

Intact skin and mucous membranes: First line of defense. 2. : Second line of defense. 3. : Third line of defense. 4. : Innate defense system. 5. : Adaptive defense system.

Answers

Answer:

Skin and mucous membranes are the First line of defense of the body against disease.

First line of defense means that it is the first part which stops the disease infection and prevent it from infecting the animal body.

Skin also protects the body due to its rigid surface which does not allow pathogens inside the body.

Mucous contains white blood cells which attacks on the disease causing microorganisms and kill them before harming the body.

Final answer:

The first line of defense includes intact skin, mucous membranes, and various barriers. The second line of defense is the innate immune system, consisting of specialized cells and soluble factors. The third line of defense is the adaptive immune system, controlled by lymphocytes.

Explanation:

The body's first line of defense is the intact skin and mucous membranes. They act as physical barriers that prevent pathogenic invasion into the body tissues. These barriers include the skin, tears, mucus, cilia, stomach acid, urine flow, and friendly bacteria.

The second line of defense is the innate immune system. It is a rapid but nonspecific response that involves specialized cells and soluble factors to destroy pathogens that manage to enter the body.

The third line of defense is the adaptive immune system. It is a slower but more specific and effective response that involves various cell types and soluble factors, primarily controlled by white blood cells known as lymphocytes.

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Which of the following is NOT true regarding bulk flow? Select one: a. It requires active muscle movements b. It is an exergonic (energetically favorable) process that releases energy c. It requires ATP d. It provides for a much more efficient movement of oxygen from the atmosphere to cells

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

Bulk flow is an energy-requiring mechanisms, whereby water and solutes move through the cell due to its pressure gradient. This process is much faster when compared to osmosis and diffusion.

Erica is an 18-year-old and in her first year of university. One day while she was watching a video in class, Erica started to hear what she thought was music playing. Suddenly she began shaking in her seat and fell to the floor. After the incident ended, one of her classmates helped her to the campus medical center, where she was later diagnosed as having:

Answers

Answer: Epilepsy

Explanation:Epilepsy is part central nervous system (neurological) disorder in which brain activity becomes abnormal, causing seizures or periods of time and having unusual behavior, sensations, and sometimes loss of awareness.

ecology is the study of environmental interactions at the following levels, from least inclusive to most inclusive: __________. View Available Hint(s) Ecology is the study of environmental interactions at the following levels, from least inclusive to most inclusive: __________. organism, population, community organism, population, community, ecosystem organism, community, population, ecosystem ecosystem, community, population, organism

Answers

Answer: Population, Community

Ecology is the study of environmental interactions at the following levels, from least inclusive: population to most inclusive: community

Explanation:

Starting from the total number of each single specie breeding freely together (population) to the entire group of plants, animals and microorganisms relating with the environment (community) in a given area; ecology seeks to understand the relationship between living things and their environment.

Ecology studies environmental interactions across four levels: organism, population, community, and ecosystem, arranged from the least to most inclusive, to understand complex natural interrelations.

Ecology is the study of environmental interactions at the following levels, from least inclusive to most inclusive: organism, population, community, and ecosystem. This hierarchical arrangement begins with the individual organism, which interacts with its immediate environment. A group of organisms of the same species living in a specific area forms a population. These populations interact with other populations to form a community. Finally, the interaction between communities and their physical environment (both biotic and abiotic components) constitutes an ecosystem. This framework helps scientists understand the complex interrelations among the different components of the natural world.

Which are the main points of the cell theory? Select all that apply. A. Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things. B. New cells are produced from existing cells. C. All cells enclose their DNA within a nucleus. D. All living things are made up of cells.

Answers

The cell theory emphasizes that cells are the fundamental units of structure and function, new cells arise from pre-existing cells, and all living organisms are comprised of cells. Here options A, B, and D are correct.

A. Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things. This means that all living organisms, from the tiniest bacteria to the largest whales, are built from tiny, membrane-bound units called cells. These cells are like the building blocks of life, responsible for carrying out all the essential processes that keep an organism alive and functioning.

B. New cells are produced from existing cells. This concept, known as cell division, ensures the continuity of life. Cells don't just spontaneously appear; they arise from the division of pre-existing cells. This process allows organisms to grow, repair damaged tissues, and reproduce.

D. All living things are made up of cells. This fundamental principle encompasses the universality of cellular life. Whether it's a simple single-celled organism like an amoeba or a complex multicellular organism like a human, all living things are composed of one or more cells. Here options A, B, and D are correct.

In general, each species of fruit fly in the Hawaiian archipelago is restricted to a single island. One hypothesis to explain this pattern is that new species formed after a small number of flies colonized each new island. This mechanism is called:

Answers

Answer:

Geographical isolation

Explanation:

The formation of new species by a small number of fruit flies colonized each new island. This mechanism is called geographical speciation or allopatric speciation.

The geographical speciation takes place when some members (biological populations) of the same species become isolated due to geographical changes such as mountain building or migration. Due to isolation, the organisms prevents two or more groups from mating with each other on regular basis. The gene flow between them is greatly reduced which eventually causing that formation of new species.  

Which structure is correctly paired with its tissue system?
companion cell – ground tissue
root hair – vascular tissue
guard cell – vascular tissue
tracheid – vascular tissue

Answers

The guard cell pairs with vascular tissue because of the type of cell that matches with tissue.

The study of plants is called botany.

The correct answer is option D which is tracheid-vascular tissue.

What is a tissue system?All the tissue is made up of cells and when more than one tissue worker together to perform a single function is called a tissue system.

What is vascular tissue?The tissue which is made up of vessels is called vascular tissue. For example - xylem and phloem.

The tracheids are part of the xylem hence, it is related to the vascular tissue.

Hence, the correct option is D.

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Flowering plants that complete their life cycle in one growing season are called perennials.

True or false

Answers

Answer: False

Explanation:

Final answer:

The statement is false; flowering plants that complete their life cycle in one growing season are called annuals, not perennials. Biennials require two seasons, while perennials live for more than two years.

Explanation:

Flowering plants that complete their life cycle in one growing season are not called perennials; this statement is false. The correct term for plants that complete their life cycle in one season is annuals.

An example of an annual is Arabidopsis, also known as mouse-ear cress. Biennials, such as carrots, complete their life cycle in two seasons. The first season is dedicated to vegetative growth, while the reproductive phase occurs in the second season. In contrast, perennials, like the magnolia, have a life cycle that spans two years or more, often flowering annually once established and living for several to many years.

In a dihybrid cross involving two autosomal traits on different chromosomes in which the parents are purebred for the opposite forms of both traits, how many of the offspring would be expected to be homozygous recessive for both traits?

Answers

Answer:

The question lacks options, the options are:

A) 1 out of 16

B) 3 out of 16

C) 6 out of 16

D) 9 out of 16

The answer is 1 out of 16

Explanation:

This is a DIHYBRID cross because it involves two different genes coding for distinct traits. One of the traits will be dominant while the other recessive. Hence, parents that are purebred for opposite forms of the trait means that one parent is homozygous dominant while the other is homozygous recessive. When these two parents cross, they produce F1 offsprings that all possess the dominant trait but heterozygous/hybrids.

When these hybrids are self-crossed, they produce four different combinations of gametes which when crossed using a punnet square will result in F2 offsprings with a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio according to Mendel's observation.

9 represents offsprings that are dominant for both traits

The two 3's represents offsprings that are recessive for one trait and dominant for the other respectively.

1 represents offsprings that are homozygous recessive for both traits.

Hence, 1 out of 16 offsprings will be homozygous recessive for both traits.

Final answer:

In a dihybrid cross between purebred parents, the F₂ generation will produce one offspring out of sixteen that will have homozygous recessive traits for both characters.

Explanation:

In a dihybrid cross involving two purebred parents, the resultant offspring will all be heterozygous for both traits. Now, if these F₁ generation offspring are allowed to self-cross, their resultant F₂ generation would have a spectrum of possible combinations. The homozygous recessive traits would occur in 1:16 ratio, that is due to the probability of 1/4 recessive for each trait in a monohybrid cross, and these probabilities are multiplied together for the dihybrid cross.

So, we can say that if we don't consider any specific influence other than genetic inheritance, one offspring out of sixteen would be expected to be homozygous recessive for both traits.

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The apoplast in plant tissues consists of:________. a. cell walls, extracellular spaces, and vessel elements b. cell walls, extracellular spaces, and plasmodesmata c. vessel elements, plasmodesmata, and extracellular spaces d. cell walls, plasma membrane, and cytosol

Answers

The correct answer is a. cell walls, extracellular spaces, and vessel elements.

Here's why the other options are incorrect:

* b. cell walls, extracellular spaces, and plasmodesmata: Plasmodesmata are specialized channels connecting the cytoplasm of adjacent cells, and they are considered part of the symplast, not the apoplast.

* c. vessel elements, plasmodesmata, and extracellular spaces: As mentioned above, plasmodesmata are part of the symplast. Additionally, vascular elements like xylem and phloem contain internal lumens, which are considered part of the apoplast, but not vessel elements themselves.

* d. cell walls, plasma membrane, and cytosol: The plasma membrane and cytosol are inside the plant cell, while the apoplast refers to the extracellular space outside the plasma membrane.

Therefore, the apoplast encompasses the non-living spaces outside the cell walls, including the cell walls themselves, the intercellular spaces between cells, and the internal lumens of xylem and phloem elements.

The ice age 10,000 years ago killed off most cheetahs. This is an example of A. artificial selection. B. the founder effect. C. the bottleneck effect. D. natural selection. E. macroevolution.

Answers

Answer:

C. "THE BOTTLENECK EFFECT".

Explanation:

This could be placed as a rigid example of genetic glitch that happens when the size of a population is severely reduced. Events like earthquakes, floods, fires can reduce a population, killing most individuals and leaving behind a small random group of survivors.

__________is the process by which stimuli lose their ability to evoke learned responses because the events that had followed the stimuli no longer occur.

Answers

Answer:

learned response

Explanation:

learned response is the process by which stimuli lose their ability to evoke learned responses because the events that had followed the stimuli no longer occur.

The hydrophilic regions of a membrane protein are most likely to be found are

Answers

Answer:

is asnwer B

Explanation:

The hydrophilic regions of a membrane protein are most likely to be found EXPOSED on the surface of the membrane.

A membrane protein is a protein that is attached to a biological lipid membrane.

The membrane proteins can be divided into integral membrane proteins (permanently attached to the membrane)peripheral membrane protein (temporarily attached to the membrane)

Membrane proteins have hydrophilic domains that are in contact with water (H2O) molecules on the outside of the lipid bilayer.

These hydrophilic regions are composed of hydrophilic amino acids such as glutamic acid, lysine and arginine.

Moreover, membrane proteins have hydrophobic regions when they are incorporated into the hydrophobic portion of the lipid bilayer.

In conclusion, the hydrophilic regions of a membrane protein are most likely to be found EXPOSED on the surface of the membrane.

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What are the characteristics of the vertebrate's nervous systems?

Answers

Answer:

Vertebrates contain nervous system which is highly specialized organ.

Explanation:

The nervous system is the complex system in the vertebrate body which is composed of central nervous system that contain brain,spinal cord and peripheral nervous system which contain cranial nerve, spinal nerve,involuntary nerve etc.

The nervous system contain neurons that mainly transmit signal to the different parts of the body.

The peripheral nervous sytem contain somatic and visceral part.

The grey matter and white matter are the 2 areas in vertebrate nervous system.

A cutting is taken from a red-flowered geranium and placed in water to develop roots. Once roots have grown, the new plant is placed in soil and grows to produce another red-flowered geranium. a. sexual.b. asexual

Answers

Explanation:

it is (A sexual ) as the sexual reproduction involve the fusion of gametes there is no fusion of gametes which requires two plant , there is only one which produces the other one ( I hope this might help you )

Dorothy Peterson was diagnosed with breast cancer. She and her doctor agreed upon treating this surgically with a/an . This is a procedure in which the cancerous tissue with a margin of normal tissue is removed.

Answers

Answer: Lumpectomy

Explanation: Lumpectomy is procedure in which Cancerous tissues are removed. Lumpectomy is a surgical removal of lump or cancerous tissue of breast tissue usually in the treatment of breast Cancer.

In a laboratory experiment, one group of people consumes an amount of pure water, a second group an equal amount of beer, and a third group an equal amount of concentrated salt solution that is hypertonic to their blood. Their urine production is monitored for several hours. At the end of the measurement period, which group will have produced the greatest volume of urine and which group the least?

Answers

Answer:

Salt solution

Explanation:

The body releases salt and water that the body doesn't need .. therefore the body would get rid of the salt solution the most from the added salt

Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because

Answers

Protozoan and Helminthic Diseases

Explanation:

Their functionally similar and cell structure to human cells.Protozoa caused Most protist diseases in humans . Protozoa make people wiped out when they become human parasites. Chagas malady and sleeping sickness disease caused by Trypanosoma protozoa. The  giardiasis, and Plasmodium protozoa cause malaria by the Giardia protozoa.Many of the most common and destructive human ailments are brought about by a protozoan infection.   Any macroparasitic sickness of people and different creatures in which a piece of the body is tainted with parasitic worms, known as helminths.Schistosomiasis and Soil-transmitted helminthiasis are the most significant helminthiases, and are among the disregarded tropical sicknesses.

Treating protozoan and helminthic diseases is challenging because these pathogens are eukaryotes, making it hard to target them without harming human cells.

Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because these pathogens are eukaryotic organisms, much like human cells. Developing antimicrobial drugs that are specific to these pathogens without harming human cells is a significant challenge. Viruses present an added difficulty in treatment because they replicate within human cells, further complicating the development of drugs with selective toxicity. Fungal infections are particularly troublesome as they are also eukaryotes and do not respond to traditional antibiotic therapy.

Infections caused by protozoa require antiprotozoal drugs which may vary in effectiveness due to the diverse biology of protozoan organisms. Similarly, a variety of drugs must be used to target different helminthic parasites. Resistance to drugs is another problem, particularly noticed in the case of anti-malarial drugs where Plasmodium pathogens have developed resistance. These infections can be especially dangerous for those with compromised immune systems.

Which groups in the domain archaea require high salt concentrations for survival?

Answers

Answer:halophiles

Explanation:archaea and bacteria are the types groups of prokaryotes.prokaryotes are organism which lacks membrane bound organelle including the nucleus.as a result,they contain their chromosomes in the nucleoid;a poorly defined region in the cytoplasm.

Archaea and bacteria have several differences including in their cell wall.the cell wall of archaea contains isoprene while that of bacteria contains fatty acid chains.

Archaea are found in extreme environment. The methanogens are obligated anaerobes that produces methane gases and lives in swamps and sewage treatment plants.

The halophiles only lives in water with high salt concentration .

Some lives in acidic and sulphur hot springs and also in ocean depths

Bobby touches his newborn brother's palm, and his little brother takes hold of Bobby's finger and will not let go. This is known as the __________ reflex.

Answers

Answer: conditioned

Bobby touches his newborn brother's palm, and his little brother takes hold of Bobby's finger and will not let go. This is known as the conditioned reflex.

Explanation:

A conditioned reflex is a response or behaviour learned after birth. So, once the newborn acquires this learned response, they can perform them even without thinking about it.

Thus, Bobby's brother (the newborn) holding on to his finger and not letting go shows that it is a conditioned reflex

If a horticulturist breeding gardenias succeeds in having a single plant with a particularly desirable set of traits, which of the following would be her most probable and efficient route to establishing a line of such plants?A) Backtrack through her previous experiments to obtain another plant with the same traits.B) Breed this plant with another plant with much weaker traitsC) Clone the plant.D) Force the plant to self-pollinate to obtain an identical one

Answers

Answer is option "C"

Explanation:

To clone a plant means to create an identical copy of an adult plant. These identical copies become young plants that in turn become adult plants that can be cloned again. This process can go on indefinitelyThe most common method of cloning plants and the one that has been used for a very long time is that of taking cuttings from an adult plant. A cutting is a stem or leaf that is cut from an adult plant. The cutting is then planted into moist soil or other moist growing media. The cutting will produce roots of its own and then become a whole new plant identical to the original adult plant. Not all plants can be cloned via cuttings, thoughVegetative proliferation works in light of the fact that the finish of the cutting structures a mass of non-particular cells called a callus. With karma, the callus will develop, gap and structure different specific cells (roots, and so on.), in the end framing another plantHence, the right answer is option C "Clone the plant"

Expected prevalence of a disease is:______.
a) the expected occurrence of a disease based on past observations
b) the total number of cases of a disease over a period of time
c) the anticipated geographical spread of a disease based on past observances
d) the number of new cases of a disease over a period of time

Answers

Answer: c) the anticipated geographical spread of a disease based on past observances.

Explanation: Prevalence simply means the widespread of a thing or condition. In epidemiology, prevalence can be defined as the total number of people in a population that is affected by a medical condition or total number of cases of a disease in a population in a given period of time.

Expected prevalence of a disease is therefore the anticipated widespread of a disease or the anticipated total number of cases of a disease in a population based on past observed incidences.

Final answer:

Expected prevalence of a disease refers to the expected occurrence of a disease based on past observations. It is different from the total number of cases over time, the anticipated geographical spread, or the number of new cases over a period of time.

Explanation:

The expected prevalence of a disease refers to the expected occurrence of a disease based on past observations (option a). Prevalence quantifies the proportion of individuals in a population who have a disease or healthcare-related event. It helps epidemiologists understand the likelihood of disease patterns in a population at a certain time.

For example, if healthcare professionals noticed an increased occurrence of a specific disease in a population every winter season in the past years, the expected prevalence of that disease would be high for the upcoming winter.

Prevalence is not to be confused with the total number of cases of a disease over a period of time (option b), the anticipated geographical spread of a disease based on past observances (option c), or the number of new cases of a disease over a period of time (option d), which are definitions for incidence, forecast spread, and incidence rate respectively.

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Scientists have warned doctors of the danger of their increasing use of antibiotics for treating minor illnesses. They are concerned because __________.

Answers

Answer:

Excess amount of consuming antibiotics may lead to side effects in health.

Explanation:

Antibiotics are antimicrobial substance which is activated against certain bacteria.

Antibiotics are used against foreign substance or bacteria or any other pathogen but these are useless against viral infections,fungal infection etc.

Intake of high amount of antibiotics may create certain health issues like-

Diarrhea with watery dischargeVomitingAllergic reactionItching with discharge.white patches on tongue.shortness of breathing.Nausea,loss appetite,indigestion.Stomach cramping,painfeeling of fullness.

____________ is a process that can completely catabolize an organic energy source to CO2 using the glycolytic pathways and TCA cycle with O2 as the terminal electron acceptor for an electron transport chain.1. Aerobic respiration2. Anaerobic respiration 3. Catabolism4. Anabolism

Answers

Aerobic Respiration

Explanation:

Aerobic respiration utilizes Oxygen.Aerobic breath happens in most cells.The measure of energy discharged is high which is around 36-38 ATP atoms.   The stages engaged with aerobic respiration are glycolysis, krebs cycle, electron transport chain.The items which are formed in aerobic respiration are Carbon dioxide, Water and ATP.The reaction's site of aerobic respiration are Mitochondria and Cytoplasm. The reactants included are glucose and oxygen.The ignition is complete.
Final answer:

The process which complete catabolizes an organic energy source to CO2 using glycolytic pathways and TCA cycle with O2 as the terminal electron acceptor is Aerobic respiration, a process that uses oxygen to breakdown glucose into water and carbon dioxide, releasing ATP in the process.

Explanation:

The process described that can completely catabolize an organic energy source to CO2 using the glycolytic pathways and TCA cycle with O2 as the terminal electron acceptor for an electron transport chain is called Aerobic respiration.

Aerobic respiration is the process by which organisms like animals and plants break down glucose into water and carbon dioxide in the presence of oxygen, releasing high-energy molecules (ATP) as a result. The process happens in three major steps: glycolysis, the Krebs cycle (or TCA cycle), and the electron transport chain. Oxygen acts as the terminal electron acceptor in the electron transport chain, resulting in the formation of water molecules.

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Sickle-cell anemia is associated with a mutation in the gene encoding the beta subunit of hemoglobin that results in a change from glutamic acid to valine at position 6. All other amino acids are identical to a normal hemoglobin molecule. Based on the information above, which of the following mutations is the most likely cause of sickle-cell anemia?

a. A single base-pair substitution in the gene encoding the beta subunit.b. A single base-pair insertion in the gene encoding the beta subunitc. A single base-pair deletion in the gene encoding the beta subunit
d. A translocation of DNA from one chromosome to another

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

1. Sickle cell anemia is an inherited condition, disorder (disease).

2. It is a recessive condition, in which  red blood cell  become mutated and converted to a sickle like shape, and  there aren't enough healthy red blood cells to carry oxygen throughout the body.

3. This condition normally occur when, there is inheritance of two abnormal or mutated  copies of the β-globin gene, one allele from each parent.  

4. β-globin gene makes haemoglobin.

5. Sickle cell anemia results when glutamic acid being substituted by valine  at position 6 ( in short E6V substitution).

6. So, it a  single base-pair substitution in the gene encoding the beta subunit.

"The correct option is a. A single base-pair substitution in the gene encoding the beta subunit. The most likely cause of sickle-cell anemia is a single base-pair substitution in the gene encoding the beta subunit of hemoglobin.

Sickle-cell anemia is caused by a mutation in the gene that encodes the beta subunit of hemoglobin. The mutation results in the substitution of a single amino acid, glutamic acid, with valine at position 6 in the beta-globin chain. Since glutamic acid is encoded by the codons GAA or GAG, and valine is encoded by the codons GTT, GTC, GTA, or GTG, a single base-pair change can result in this amino acid substitution.

For example, if the original codon for glutamic acid is GAG, a single base-pair substitution of A for T would change it to GTG, which codes for valine. This is a classic example of a point mutation, specifically a missense mutation, where a single nucleotide change in the DNA sequence leads to the substitution of one amino acid for another in the protein sequence.

The other options are less likely to be the cause of sickle-cell anemia:

b. A single base-pair insertion in the gene encoding the beta subunit: An insertion would shift the reading frame of the gene, leading to a completely different amino acid sequence downstream of the insertion, which is not the case in sickle-cell anemia.

c. A single base-pair deletion in the gene encoding the beta subunit: A deletion would also shift the reading frame, resulting in a nonfunctional protein or a protein with a different sequence than the one associated with sickle-cell anemia.

d. A translocation of DNA from one chromosome to another: Translocation involves the movement of large segments of DNA between chromosomes, which is not consistent with the single amino acid change observed in sickle-cell anemia.

Therefore, the most likely cause of sickle-cell anemia is a single base-pair substitution in the gene encoding the beta subunit of hemoglobin."

What is the difference between evolution and coevolution? a) Evolution of one species only occurs in response to natural selection based on the changing environment that species lives in at a particular time. b) Coevolution is the only way speciation can occur. c) These concepts are not different; they only differ on time scale. d) Coevolution results when two or more species influence adaptation in each other.

Answers

Answer: d) Coevolution results when two or more species influence adaptation in each other.

Explanation:

The coevolution is a process of evolution in which two or more species affects each other evolution by the process of natural selection. The evolution of one species is dependent upon other species in coevolution process.  The coevolution is affected by the mutualism, predator prey relationships and host parasite relationships.

In the course of evolution of one species adapt to the natural changes occurring in the environment. The changes occurring is one species remain unaffected of the other species.

Final answer:

Evolution is the change in characteristics of living things over time through natural selection, while coevolution is the mutual evolutionary influence between two species in close ecological relationships. Evolutionary changes are driven by environmental pressures, genetic variation, and are not necessarily tied to another species, unlike in coevolution.

Explanation:

The main difference between evolution and coevolution is that evolution refers to the change in characteristics of living things over time, which occurs through natural selection and genetic variation, while coevolution involves the influence of closely associated species on each other's adaptation. In coevolution, as one species undergoes evolutionary changes, it affects the evolution of another species typically involved in a close ecological relationship. Evolution, on the other hand, can occur in response to a variety of environmental pressures and is not necessarily tied to changes in a specific other species.

Evolution does not have a predetermined goal of creating superior beings but is rather a response to changing environments, ensuring that species develop adaptations that maximize their reproductive success under current conditions. It's important to note that evolution can result in new species over time but does not always do so, as it can occur within the same species without leading to speciation.

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A person applies a 13.5 N force to a hammer while it moves a distance of .12 m. The hammer completes 1.56 J of work on the nail. What is the efficiency of the hammer? Must show all work, correct sig figs, and include correct units. Solve for x 3(2x-4)=6 How may moles are in 145.54 g of SIO2 f we apply an electrical stimulus to a muscle cell to cause it to contract, the magnitude of that stimulus must be strong enough to reach a critical value that is essential to initiate contraction. This critical value is known as __________. The particular price that results in quantity supplied being equal to quantity demanded is the best price because it a. maximizes tax revenue for the government. b. minimizes the expenditure of buyers. c. maximizes the combined welfare of buyers and sellers. d. maximizes costs of the seller. The fraction 40/50 is equivalent to ___. *1 point.131.2580%20% Cassius Corporation has provided the following contribution format income statement. Assume that the following information is within the relevant range. Sales (7,000 units) $ 210,000 Variable expenses 136,500 Contribution margin 73,500 Fixed expenses 67,200 Net operating income $ 6,300 The number of units that must be sold to achieve a target profit of $31,500 is closest to______________. Youre trying to save to buy a new $215,000 Ferrari. You have $36,000 today that can be invested at your bank. The bank pays 4.3 percent annual interest on its accounts. How long will it be before you have enough to buy the car? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to 2 decimal places, e.g., 32.16.) Length of time years The Argument that we should not use people merely as a means (from section 1.2 of Rachels book) is an attempt to show that a) we ought to transplant baby Theresa's organs because it has overall good consequences (it benefits someone without harming anyone). b) we ought not to transplant baby Theresa's organs because it would involve using her merely as a means. c) we ought not to transplant baby Theresa's organs because it would kill her. d) none of the above. Tarik winds a small paper tube uniformly with 189 turns 189 turns of thin wire to form a solenoid. The tube's diameter is 7.99 mm 7.99 mm and its length is 2.19 cm 2.19 cm . What is the inductance, in microhenrys, of Tarik's solenoid? What does the quote from Trotskys Diary in Exile reveal about his and his like-minded comrades point of view regarding the fate of the Romanovs? Cite evidence from the text to support your answer. what created the 2 houses of congress 600 or 600 decreased by 20% and then increased by 20% of the result? Which amount is larger and by how much Question 11 ptsThe cause of the damaged relations between Japan and the United States was that...the United States used economic pressures to prevent Japan from joining the Axis Alliance.Japan invaded China and the U.S. responded with diplomatic and economic pressure.Japan threatened to cut off trade with the United States.the United States used military force to halt Japanese expansion. Which expression is equivalent to y times y times y times z times z times z times z? y cubed z Superscript 4 12xy (y z) Superscript 7 7xy help, ill mark brainliest At 19.9 degrees Celsius, we dissolve a salt crystal.The Red dot on the graph in the image above represents the time it took to dissolve this salt crystal and the temperature at which it dissolved.What temperature is represented by the red dot?Enter the number of degrees Celsius only; no units. Your BFF is a red-headed, left-handed, blue-eyed girl. She finds out that you are taking Human Genetics and wants you to explain to her the genetic basis of her three traits. So, your task is to provide her with the most up-to-date explanation, to the extent that is possible. You have to do so in 400-500 words. Brett has 100 feet of fence with which tomake a rectangular cage for his dog. Thearea of the cage in square feet is givenby the polynomial -W + 50w, where wisthe width of the cage in feet. What is thearea of the cage if the width is 8 feet?a) 114 ft2. b) 336 ft?C) 384 ft? d) 464 it Two objects have the same size and shape, but one is much heavier than the other. When they are dropped simultaneously from a tower, they reach the ground at the same time (assuming that there is no air resistance), but the heavier one has a greaterspeedaccelerationnone of the aboveall of these