Which feature forms at this plate boundary?

Answers

Answer 1

There are three plate boundaries: Constructive, Destructive and transform plate boundary. At constructive plate boundary mountains form, at destructive plate boundaries earthquake and volcanism occurs and at transform boundary faults occur.

Explanation:

Plates are solid and rigid mass. It mainly floats over asthenosphere which is a part of upper mantle. There are seven major plates and twenty minor plates. The zone between two plates are known as plate boundary and the edge of a plate is known as plate margin.

There are three plate boundaries: Conservative, destructive and transform plate boundary. Where two plates collide with each other known as destructive plate boundary and where two plates move in opposite direction from each other known as constructive plate boundary. Where two plates slide each other called transform fault.

Answer 2

Answer:

Volcanoes are one kind of feature that forms along convergent plate boundaries, where two tectonic plates collide and one moves beneath the other.

Explanation:


Related Questions

what is quantum programing

Answers

Answer: Quantum programming is the process of assembling sequences of instructions, called quantum programs, that are capable of running on a quantum computer. Quantum programming languages help express quantum algorithms using high-level constructs.

Explanation:

Final answer:

Quantum programming involves creating algorithms and software for quantum computers, utilizing qubits and principles like superposition and entanglement. It requires knowledge of quantum mechanics and is supported by programming languages like Q# and Qiskit.

Explanation:

Quantum Programming

Quantum programming is a field within computer science that focuses on the development of algorithms and software for quantum computers. These computers leverage the principles of quantum mechanics to process information in ways that traditional computers cannot. Quantum programming often involves the use of quantum bits or qubits, which, unlike classical bits, can exist in multiple states simultaneously. This state is known as superposition, and it allows quantum computers to perform certain computations much faster than classical computers. Another key concept in quantum computing is entanglement, which enables qubits that are entangled to be correlated with one another even when separated by large distances.

Quantum programming languages, such as Q# by Microsoft and Qiskit by IBM, provide frameworks for developers to write programs that can run on quantum computers. The field is highly interdisciplinary, drawing from areas such as physics, mathematics, and computer science.

How much kinetic energy does a 4.50kg block with a speed of 5.00m/s have?
O
11.23
28.13
5.62)
56.23

Answers

Answer:

56.25J

Explanation:

Kinetic energy = 1/2 mv^2

Where m = mass

v = velocity

Given m = 4.50kg

v = 5.00m/s

Kinetic energy = 1/2 x 4.50 x (5.00)^2

= 1/2 x 4.50 x (5.00 x 5.00)

= 1/2 x 4.50 x 25

Multiply through

= 112.5/2

= 56.25J


What is a mutation?​

Answers

Answer:

the changing of the structure of a gene, resulting in a variant form that may be transmitted to subsequent generations, caused by the alteration of single base units in DNA, or the deletion, insertion, or rearrangement of larger sections of genes or chromosomes

Explanation:

What is the kinetic energy of a 7.26kg bowling ball Thai is rolling at a speed of 2m/s

Answers

Answer:14.52joules

Explanation:

Mass(m)=7.26kg

Velocity(v)=2m/s

Kinetic energy=(mv^2)/2

Kinetic energy=(7.26x2^2)/2

Kinetic energy =(7.26x4)/2

Kinetic energy =29.04/2

Kinetic energy =14.52joules

without fluid friction, all objects accelerate at?

Answers

Answer:

Without fluid friction, all objects accelerate at the gravity acceleration.

Explanation:

When an object moves through a fluid, like air, water or oil, the object experiences a resistance to flow; this is, to pass through the fluid.

This resistance force is the fluid friction.

In few words, fluid friction is a force that opposes the motion of the objects through the fluid.

Then, in the abscence of fluid friction, all objects falling accelerate at the gravity acceleration.

Match the scientists with the correct atomic models.
Democritus and Dalton
J.J. Thomson
Ernest Rutherford

Answers

Answer:

JJ. Thomson-  electrons mixed in a positive sphere

Ernest Rutherford- central nucleus

Democritus and Dalton- indivisible sphere

Explanation:

Hope this helps!

Ernest Rutherford discovers the Concept of nucleus. J.J Thompson contributes to the Discovery of electrons. Dalton gives the concept of the Indivisibility of atoms.

A. Ernest Rutherford: Contribution - Concept of the nucleus. Rutherford's famous Gold Foil Experiment led to the discovery that most of the atom's mass and positive charge are concentrated in a small, dense nucleus at the center of the atom.

B. J.J. Thompson: Contribution - Discovery of electrons. J.J. Thompson discovered electrons using cathode ray tubes and proposed the "Plum Pudding Model," which suggested that atoms contained negatively charged electrons embedded in a positively charged material.

C. Dalton: Contribution - Indivisibility of atoms. Dalton's Atomic Theory proposed that matter is made up of indivisible and indestructible particles called atoms, which combine to form compounds in fixed ratios.

Therefore, Ernest Rutherford discovers the Concept of the nucleus. J.J Thompson contributes to the Discovery of electrons. Dalton gives the concept of the Indivisibility of atoms.

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The complete question is:

Match column A (name of the Scientists) with column B (their contributions towards the understanding of the atomic structure).

Column A                  Column B

A. Ernest Rutherford  1. Indivisibility of atoms

B. J.J Thompson          2. Concept of nucleus

C. Dalton                  3. Discovery of electrons

without fluid friction, all objects accelerate at?

Answers

Answer:

Acceleration of gravity=[tex]9.8m/s/s[/tex]

Explanation:

Newton's Second Law-acceleration is proportional to the net force acting on an object.

All objects usually free fall at the same acceleration of [tex]9.8m/s/s[/tex]-this regardless of their mass. This acceleration is known as acceleration of gravity.

The body weighing 2 kg moves through the horizontal surface and crosses the path x = 75 cm The coefficient of friction of the body and horizontal surface is 0.8. If the kinetic energy of the body in the starting position is 16J, how much will the kinetic energy of the body be in the definitive position?

Answers

The kinetic energy of the body in definitive position is 4.24 J.

Explanation:

As per the work energy theorem, the work done on any system or object to move it from one position to another is equal to the change in kinetic energy of the object. In this case, the body weighing 2 kg is moved over an horizontal surface for a distance of 75 cm. As there will be frictional force acting on the body while moving over the surface. This frictional force multiplied by the distance the object is moved will give the work done on the body.

Frictional force = Coeffficent of friction × Normal force.

As the weight of the body is 2 kg, the normal force acting on it will be mass multiplied with acceleration due to gravity.

Frictional force = - 0.8×9.8 × 2 =-15.68 N

So the work done will be the product of frictional force with the displacement of 75 cm or 0.75 m.

Work done =  Frictional force × Displacement

Work done = -15.68×0.75 = -11.76 J.

So the work is done by the object.

If the kinetic energy of the body at starting is 16 J, then the kinetic energy of the body at definitive position will be obtained as below.

Work done = change in kinetic energy

-11.76 J = Final kinetic energy-16 J

Final Kinetic energy = - 11.76+16

Final kinetic energy = 4.24 J

Thus, the kinetic energy of the body in definitive position is 4.24 J.

A missile is moving 1350 m/s at a 25.0 degree angle. It needs to hit a target 23500 m away in a 55.0 degree direction in 10.20s. What is the direction of its final velocity?

Answers

Answer:

V=[tex]3204m/s[/tex]

Direction is normal to the incline

Explanation:

This question tests on projectile motion.

First, calculate the acceleration of the missile.

Incline=55º,Distance=23500m, t=10seconds.

Horizontal motion of projectile

[tex]x=V_xt+0.5a_xt\\23000Cos55\textdegree=1350Cos25\textdegree\times10.20+0.5a_x(10.20)^2\\a_x=19.2m/s^2[/tex]

Final velocity

[tex](V_x)\prime=V_x+a_xt=1350Cos25\textdegree+19.2\times10.20=1419m/s[/tex]

The vertical motion of the missile can be calculated as:

[tex]23500 Sin55.0\textdegree =1350Sin25\textdegree\times10.2+0.5a_y\times10.2^2\\a_y=258.2m/s^2[/tex]

Final Velocity is:

[tex](V_y)\prime=V_y+a_yt=1350Sin25\textdegree+258.2\times10.20=3204m/s[/tex]

Combining both we get

[tex]V=\sqrt(V\prime x^2+V\primey^2)=3504.2m/s[/tex]

*Misile's motion is normal to the 55º incline.

2. A 4-kg gun shoots a 0.1-kg bullet at 400 m/s. Find the recoil speed of the gun.

Answers

Answer:10m/s

Explanation:

M=mass of gun=4kg

U=recoil velocity of gun

m=mass of bullet=0.1kg

V=velocity of bullet=400m/s

M x U=m x V

4 x U=0.1 x 400

4xU=40

Divide both sides by 4

(4xU)/4=40/4

U=10m/s

Recoil velocity=10m/s

What is the wavelength of a radio wave with a frequency of 2.00 x 10^4 Hz? (hint: what is the speed of all electromagnetic radiation?)
ОА
6.67 x 105 m
O
B
1.50 x 104 m
6.00 x 1012 m
6.67 x 10m

Answers

Answer: Option B

The wavelength for a radio wave with a frequency of  2 × 10⁴ Hz is

1.5 × 10⁴ m.

Explanation:

Wavelength is the measure of distance between two successive crests or troughs in a standing wave. Also wavelength can be measured as the ratio of velocity of light to frequency. It is like this because wavelength is inversely proportional to the frequency.

[tex]Wavelength =\frac{c}{frequency}[/tex]

As c = 3 × 10⁸ m/s and the frequency is 2 × 10⁴ Hz, then the wavelength will be

[tex]Wavelength =\frac{3*10^{8} }{2*10^{4} } =1.5*10^{4} m[/tex]

So, the wavelength for a radio wave with a frequency of  2 × 10⁴ Hz is

1.5 × 10⁴ m.

What are the similarities and differences between chemical and physical properties?

Answers

Answer:

Physical properties are different from chemical properties of a substance. The main difference between physical and chemical properties is that physical properties can be observed without changing the chemical composition of a substance whereas chemical properties can be observed by changing the chemical composition of a substance.

Explanation:

The differences are:

1. Physical change is easily reversible while chemical change is not easily reversible

2. Physical change forms no new substance. while chemical change forms new substance

3. In Physical change there is no change in the mass of a substance involved while In chemical change, there is a change in the mass of the substance involved.

4. Physical change does not involve great heat. while chemical change involves considerable amount of heat.

The Similarities are :

1. They can be both reversible.

2. Heat is involved

3. They both involve reasonable amount of substance or matter.

Physical properties exhibit physical changes such as:

boiling and melting point of a substance, density, hardness, malleability, crystalline form and some properties that can be detected by our sense organ, such as taste, color and odor.

While chemical properties occur when matter or substance undergoes a change to form another new substance. For example : rusting of iron and burning of wood.

The differences are:

1. Physical change is easily reversible while chemical change is not easily reversible

2. Physical change forms no new substance. while chemical change forms new substance

3. In Physical change there is no change in the mass of a substance involved while In chemical change, there is a change in the mass of the substance involved.

4. Physical change does not involve great heat. while chemical change involves considerable amount of heat.

The Similarities are :

1. They can be both reversible.

2. Heat is involved

3. They both involve reasonable amount of substance or matter.

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in addition to power output light bulbs should also be labelled with the rate at which they emit visible light ​

Answers

Final answer:

To compare the brightness of light bulbs, you should look for the luminous flux in lumens on their labels, as this measures the perceived power of light by the human eye, offering a more accurate representation of brightness than wattage alone.

Explanation:

To compare the brightness of light bulbs for sale in a store, you should look on the labels to see how they are rated in terms of luminous flux, which is measured in lumens (lm). The luminous flux is a measure of the perceived power of light by the human eye. Energy-saving light bulbs like compact fluorescent lamps and LED bulbs provide more luminous flux for a given use of electricity, meaning they have higher luminous efficacy, represented in lumens per watt. When replacing an old incandescent bulb with an energy-saving one, it is important to compare lumens to ensure the same level of brightness is achieved.

Traditionally, people have been accustomed to associating the brightness of a bulb with its power consumption in watts due to the prevalence of incandescent bulbs. However, as technology has advanced, the importance of comparing lumens, rather than just wattage, has become clear for a more accurate representation of a bulb's light intensity. A higher wattage does not necessarily mean more visible light, since not all electrical power is converted into visible light. Also, different types of bulbs convert electricity to light with varying efficiencies.

Note: The efficiency of a light bulb, which is the fraction of its total light output that falls within the visible range, is never 100% due to the nature of thermal sources and the distribution of emitted wavelengths.

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A balloon has a volume of 18.0-L at a pressure of 87.6 kPa. What will be the new volume when the pressure is 48.2 kPa?

Answers

Answer:

32.71 L

Explanation:

We can solve this question using Boyle's law of ideal gas. The law states that the volume and pressure are inversely proportional when the temperature is constant. At first, the volume is 18L (V1) and the pressure is 87.6 kPa(P1). Then the pressure changed into 48.2 kPa(P2). We are asked to find the volume(V2).

The calculation will be:

P1 * V1= P2 * V2

87.6 kPa  *18L = 48.2 kPa * V2

V2=  87.6 kPa  *18L / 48.2 kPa

V2=32.71 L

Organisms have very few parts that are not useful to the organism. This is because

Answers

Answer:

Those parts have become vestigial

Explanation:

Organisms have few parts that are not useful to them because those parts in them have become vestigial.

When an organism has a part is no more using, it relates to the evolutionary history of such organism.

These parts are called vestigial body parts. They are not needed for the survival of an organism again and they can do without them. At a certain point in time, those parts might be very vital to the sustenance of such organism. With time, those parts becomes useless and redundant.

Answer:

Those parts have become vestigial

Explanation:

Organisms have a few parts that are not useful to them because those parts in them have become vestigial.

When an organism has a part that is no more used, it relates to the evolutionary history of such organism.

These parts are called vestigial body parts.

They are not needed for the survival of an organism again and they can do without them.

At a certain point in time, those parts might be very vital to the sustenance of such organisms.

With time, those parts become useless and redundant.

When it is cloudy, many of the sun’s rays never reach the Earth. What does this do to the temperature

Answers

Answer:

When it is cloudy, many of the sun’s rays never reach the Earth. It leads to cooler temperatures.

Explanation:

During the day, the sun warms the earth. When the sky is clear, more heat reaches the earth's surface . This leads to warmer temperatures.

However, when the sky is cloudy, a few drops of clouds reflect some of the sun's rays. As a result, less solar energy can reach Earth's surface, causing Earth to heat up more slowly. This leads to cooler temperatures.

If cloudy skies are forecast when forecasting daytime temperatures, expect lower temperatures than you would expect if clear skies were forecast.

Similarly, cloud cover at night has the opposite effect. When the sky is clear, the heat emitted from the earth's surface freely escapes into space, resulting in cooler temperatures.

However, when there are clouds, some of the heat from the earth's surface is captured by the clouds and returned to the earth. As a result, temperatures drop more slowly than when the sky is clear.

Final answer:

Cloud cover influences Earth's temperatures, with thick clouds leading to cooler days by blocking sunlight and warmer nights by trapping heat. Low clouds primarily cool the Earth while high clouds can contribute to warming due to trapping of infrared radiation. This results in different temperature outcomes depending on cloud type and time of day.

Explanation:

When it is cloudy, many of the sun’s rays are either reflected or absorbed by clouds, which can significantly influence temperature conditions on Earth. During the day, thick clouds can prevent the sun's energy from warming the Earth's surface as effectively, leading to cooler daytime temperatures. Conversely, at night, these same clouds can act as an insulating layer, trapping longwave radiation that is emitted from the Earth's surface and preventing it from escaping into space, resulting in warmer nighttime temperatures.

Furthermore, cloud cover affects the radiation balance of Earth differently based on the type of clouds. Low clouds generally have a net cooling effect since they reflect more sunlight back into space. On the other hand, high cirrus clouds tend to have a net warming effect by trapping more infrared radiation. This dynamic leads to a complicated system of cloud feedbacks that influence global temperature patterns.

In summary, clouds play a critical role in the Earth's climate system by influencing how much of the sun's energy is absorbed or reflected, and how much earthly heat is retained or released, thereby affecting the overall temperature experienced at Earth's surface.

Possible reasons why seascorpions went extinct

Answers

Sea scorpions or Eurypterids lived about 251.9 million years ago. They were formidable predators and hunters, but they were wiped out in the Great Permian Mass Extinction, which is also known as the Great Dying (96% of all species on Earth went extinct).The largest species like Jaekelopterus was over 7 feet long! They were mainly thought to go extinct because of a slew of natural disasters that occurred when a comet hit the Earth, as well as increased volcanic activity polluting the seas that Sea scorpions lived in, as well as rising sea temperatures. The Silurian, when these Sea scorpions proliferated was when the water was cooler, holding in more nutrients, allowing both Sea Scorpions and other animals to spread all over the world. But as the oceans became polluted from the volcanoes (and the ash they produced) and the global ocean temperatures began to rise, many animals may not have been able to cope or adapt to the extreme change, becoming helpless in their nutrient deficient water (compared to what they were used to).

I hope this helps!

Which phase of matter consists of particles that vibrate only?

Answers

Answer: Solids

Explanation: Solids have very little movement and the particles have barely enough movement to vibrate. We can't see it but the particles are indeed vibrating. Solids have the least amount of kinetic energy which is moving energy.

Every object with mass exerts a gravitational force on every other object with mass. The gravitational force between which of the
following two objects would be easiest to detect with measuring equipment?
A.
an electron and a bowling ball
OB. the Moon and the Earth
C.
a baseball and a bowling ball
D.
a human and a dog

Answers

OB or B is the answer

A man pushes a cart with force of 120-N at an angle of 50 degrees with the ground. If he walks a horizontal displacement of 20-m going to cashier who’s much work is done!

Answers

Answer:

1543 J

Explanation:

The work done by a force when moving an object is given by the equation:

[tex]W=Fd cos \theta[/tex]

where:

F is the magnitude of the force applied on the object

d is the displacement of the object

[tex]\theta[/tex] is the angle between the direction of the force and of the displacement

For the  cart pushed in this problem, we have:

[tex]F=120 N[/tex] is the force applied by the man

[tex]d=20 m[/tex] is the displacement of the cart

[tex]\theta=50^{\circ}[/tex] is the angle between the directions of the force and of the displacement

Solving for W, we find the work:

[tex]W=(120)(20)(cos 50^{\circ})=1543 J[/tex]

Check
Use the drop-down menus to choose the planets being described.
This planet had the Great Dark Spot.
This planet has the most visible rings.
This planet rotates from top to bottom.
This planet has the Great Red Spot.

Answers

Answer:

the first one is: Neptune

second one: Saturn

third one: Uranus

fourth one: Jupiter

Explanation:

The classification is as follows:

This planet had the Great Dark Spot - Neptune .This planet has the most visible rings - Saturn.This planet rotates from top to bottom - Uranus. This planet has the Great Red Spot - Jupiter.  

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Kent throws a tennis ball that has a mass of 3.0 kg straight up in the air at 25 m/s. What height does it reach if the kinetic energy of the ball is 100% transferred into potential energy at the top of the throw

Answers

Explanation:

1/2mv^2 = mgh

1/2×3×25^2 = 3×9.8×h

937.5 =29.4h

29.4h/29.4 = 937.5/29.4

h=31.89 m

An Inter City Express train traveling at 250 km/h is
braked to a stop in a distance of 4820 m. If the mass of the
train is 8.63 X 105 kg, what is the average braking force?

Answers

Answer:

F = 431671.31 [N]

Explanation:

This problem can be solved using the work and energy theorem, which tells us that the initial mechanical energy (potential energy + kinetic energy) plus the sum of the work from the initial position to the end will be equal to the final mechanical energy.

[tex]E_{M1}+W_{1-2}=E_{M2}\\0.5*m*v_{1}^{2}+W_{1-2}=0.5*m*v_{2}^{2}[/tex]

As the train stops at the end, the speed at Point 2 is equal to zero,so we can determine the work, we first convert the speed from [km/h] to meters per second.

[tex]250[\frac{km}{h}]*1[\frac{h}{3600s} ]*1000[\frac{m}{1km} ]\\= 69.44[\frac{m}{s} ][/tex]

[tex]0.5*(8.63*10^{5})*(69.44)^{2}+W_{1-2}= 0.5*(8.63*10^{5})*(0)^{2}\\W_{1-2}=-2080.66*10^6[J][/tex]

The negative sign means that the work is done in the opposite direction to the movement.

Knowing the work we can calculate the force, since an initial input data is the distance

W = F * d

F = W / d

F = (2080.66*10^6) / 4820

F = 431671.31 [N]

How much force is required (in Newton’s) to accelerate a 4-kg skateboard, along with its 46-kg rider, at 3m/s2?

Answers

Answer:150N

Explanation:

Total mass=mass of skate board + mass of rider

Total mass(m)=46kg + 4kg

Total mass(m)=50kg

Acceleration(a)=3m/s^2

Force(f)=mass x acceleration

Force=50 x 3

Force=150N

To accelerate the skateboard and rider at 3 m/s², a force of 150 N is required.

The force required to accelerate a 4-kg skateboard and its 46-kg rider at 3 m/s² can be calculated using Newton's second law, which states that Force = mass x acceleration.

Applying the formula, the total mass is 4 kg + 46 kg = 50 kg.

Therefore, the force required is 50 kg x 3 m/s² = 150 N.

the speed of the sound wave in the chosen m_____ should be known

Answers

Answer:

meters or meter...

Explanation:

....

What is the value, in meters per second squared, of the acceleration of
gravity?

Answers

Answer:

9.80665 is the value in meters per second squared

What is the charge on an object that has 1.09x10^13 excess electrons?

Answers

Answer:

[tex]-1.74\cdot 10^{-6} C[/tex]

Explanation:

The electron is the particle that rotates around the nucleus of the atom; it has a negative electric charge equal to :

[tex]e=-1.6\cdot 10^{-19}C[/tex]

which is known as fundamental charge.

For an object containing N excess electrons, the total charge of the object is

[tex]Q=Ne[/tex]

In this problem, the number of excess electrons in the object is:

[tex]N=1.09\cdot 10^{13}[/tex]

Therefore, by plugging it the numbers, we can find the value of Q, the total charge of the object:

[tex]Q=(1.09\cdot 10^{13})(-1.6\cdot 10^{-19})=-1.74\cdot 10^{-6} C[/tex]

2 resistors of resistance 1000 ohm and 2000 ohm are joined in series with a 100V supply. A voltmeter of internal resistance 4000 ohm is connected to measure the potential difference across 1000 ohm resistor. Calculate the reading shown by the voltmeter.

Answers

Final answer:

The potential difference across a resistor measured using a voltmeter takes into account the internal resistance of the voltmeter, altering the circuit dynamics. Calculations involve finding the equivalent resistance of the voltmeter-resistor parallel combination and applying Ohm's law accordingly.

Explanation:

When measuring the potential difference across a resistor in a series circuit using a voltmeter, it is essential to consider the internal resistance of the voltmeter itself, as it is placed in parallel with the resistor being measured. In this case, with resistors of 1000 ohm and 2000 ohm connected in series to a 100V supply and a voltmeter of 4000 ohm internal resistance connected across the 1000 ohm resistor, the circuit's behavior is modified. First, calculate the total series resistance, which is 3000 ohms. This gives a total current (I) of 100V/3000 ohms = 0.0333 A. The voltage across the 1000 ohm resistor without the voltmeter would be V = IR = 0.0333A × 1000 ohm = 33.3V.

However, the presence of the voltmeter alters this calculation by creating a parallel circuit with the 1000 ohm resistor and the voltmeter's 4000 ohm resistance. The equivalent resistance of this parallel circuit can be calculated with 1/Req = 1/R1 + 1/R2, leading to an equivalent resistance of 800 ohms. Applying Ohm's law again for the modified circuit gives a slightly different current, and subsequently, the potential difference can be calculated.

please help!!!!!!! (attached to the file)

Answers

Answer:

B

Explanation:

the battery isn't chemical energy so any answer saying that you can cross out and that leaves you with B

Which of these is not a part of the
cardiovascular system?

Answers

Answer:I don't see any

Explanation:

Answer: (B)  The pancreas is a part of the cardiovascular system. The heart and your circulatory system is a part of it (which includes blood and your veins/arteries).

Explanation:

Other Questions
6. Write the following multiplications as exponential abbreviations.a. 5x5b. 7 x 7 x 7 x 7c. 2 x 2 x 2d. 9 x 9 x 9 x 9 9 2.0 L of gas A at 1.0 atm and 1.0 L of gas B at 1.0 atm are combined in a 3.0 L flask. The flask is sealed and over time they react completely to give gas C according to the following chemical equation: 2A(g) + B(g) C(g) Assuming the temperature stays constant, what will be the pressure after the reaction goes to completion? what is the meaning of the saying "the power of a lens is 1 dioptre " (17 letter answer) breaking an unconstitutional law to bring attention to the problem is __________. Which of the following factors would be a top down strategy for improving a visual search task? a. Reducing the number of distractors b. Adding motion c. Increasing the size of the target d. Alphabetizing a list e. (a) and (d) f. All of the above Mr. S. has stage IV lung cancer and was admitted to your unit yesterday because of shortness of breath. His breathing has improved with treatment and you tell him you are hoping to get to know him better so you can provide the best care possible. Which of the following statements reflects your interest in getting to know him? A) "Can you tell me what has given your life meaning?" B) "Do you know much about your disease?" C) "Is your cancer treatment helping you?" D) "If I can do anything to help you, let me know." what type of forage is cut and dried until it contains low moisture ? Erica is driving to work when she hears a loud police siren. She automatically turns off her car radio and looks for the siren so she can pull over if needed. How is this an example of nonassociative learning? Virginia is known for its hot springs. Recently, the number of destination spas and wellness centers has increased tremendously worldwide. What could the rise in spas and wellness centers in Virginia be attributed to? Find an equation for the nth term of the arithmetic sequence. -17, -13, -9, -5, ...an = -17 + 4(n + 2)an = -17 x 4(n - 1)an = -17 + 4(n - 1)an = -17 + 4(n + 1) Lucas Co. has a job order cost system. For the month of April, the following debits (credits) appeared in the general ledger account, work-in-process: April 1 Balance $24,000 30 Direct materials 80,000 30 Direct labor 60,000 30 Factory overhead 54,000 30 To finished goods (200,000) Lucas applies overhead to production at a predetermined rate of 90% based on direct labor cost. Job No. 100, the only job still in process at the end of April, has been charged with factory overhead of $4,500. The amount of direct materials charged to Job No. 100 was A) $4,500. B) $18,000. C) $5,000. D) $8,500. On a web page coded in HTML, there is a sentence that reads, "Welcome to Assessments Section." Sam wants to insert the word "the" before "Assessments." He also wants to delete the word Assessments and replace it with another word. How will the inserted and deleted text appear?The inserted text will appear as ___________ text. The deleted text will appear as ___________ text. 1st blank answer choices :- italicized - struck through - bold - underlined 2nd blank answer choices : - italicized - struck through - bold - underlined Nancy is a new employee at a company. On her first day at work, she was introduced to a few co-workers with whom she shared some nonthreatening information such as her age, college major, and previous job. In this scenario, Nancy is involved in What does Mark Antony do when Caesar is murdered? Did he witness the assassination? Information Systems Guidelines are a set of statements specifying how the firm should use its technical and organizational IS resources to achieve the IS vision. What is (are) the purposes(s) of these guidelines? One of the first drugs to be approved for use in treatment of acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) was azidothymidine (AZT). How many carbon atoms are hybridized? which unit rate is the lowest price per ounce 30 ounces or 40 ounces Mr. Kim's eighth grade science class was trying to maintain a classroom garden. Unfortunately, the weeds were taking over. Mr. Kim saw a weed killer advertised on TV which said that one application would kill the three most common garden weeds and would be effective for at least one month. Mr. Kim bought some and applied it to the classroom garden. His students kept track of the weeds growing in their garden. A hollow aluminum cylinder 19.0 cm deep has an internal capacity of 2.000 L at 23.0C. It is completely filled with turpentine at 23.0C. The turpentine and the aluminum cylinder are then slowly warmed together to 91.0C. (The average linear expansion coefficient for aluminum is 2.4 x10^-5/C, and the average volume expansion coefficient for turpentine is 9.0 x10^-4/C.)(a) How much turpentine overflows?in cm^3?(b) What is the volume of turpentine remaining in the cylinder at 91.0C? (Give you answer to four significant figures.)in cm^3?(c) If the combination with this amount of turpentine is then cooled back to 23.0C, how far below the cylinder's rim does the turpentine's surface recede?in cm? The final step in the reading comprehension strategy of asking questions is to determineO what the text is about through chapter names and headings.what message the author wants to communicate.what the reader wants or needs to get out of the text.who and what the text is about, if the titles are unclear.