Answer:
A
Explanation:
510K approval is required to demonstrate that device to be marketed is substanitally similar to an already legally approved and marketed device and therefore safe to use
PMA approval is required to approve Class III type medical devices that are new and have not been marketed. They involve human participants.
Clinical trials involve volunteers and is carried out when a drug or device has been tested in laboratory
Exempt status is given to class I devices and not to class III devices.
Answer:
a. 510K
Explanation:
510K is a process carried out by the US government, whenever it is necessary to approve a medical device, where it will not be necessary a series of clinical trials to establish whether the device is safe and whether it really improves an individual's health, that is, this device needs little or no supervision so that it receives government approval and can be marketed.
An example of this can be seen in the question above, where the 510K will allow the approval of a new heart rate monitor substantially similar to a previously approved device. Since this previously approved device has already received all the necessary assessments, the new device does not need to go through all the assessments.
WILL GIVE A BRAINLEST
A new mountain lake just formed by a retreating glacier. The lake starts out with little nutrients or life, but over time it begins to support a variety of species.
Which type of succession does this describe?
primary
secondary
aquatic
island
Answer: Primary succession
Explanation:
Primary succession occurs when living organisms colonize (appear on) a newly found area. So, since the retreating glacier (a large body of ice flowing downwards) resulted in a new environment, it tells that no living organisms previously existed in the area.
Therefore, the presence of nutrients in the lake would then support new life activities brought by the various species of living organisms.
Thus, primary succession occurs
21. Quiet inspiration will ____ thoracic and lung volume and _____ intrapulmonary pressure. A. increase, increase B. increase, decrease C. decrease, increase D. decrease, decrease
Answer:
B. increase, decrease.
21. Quiet inspiration will increase thoracic and lung volume and decrease intrapulmonary pressure.
Explanation:
Inspiration is the process by which air enters from the outside to the inside of the lungs. The communication of the lungs with the outside is done through the upper airways. Inspiration is the active phase of breathing, for it to occur it is necessary that different muscles contract in order to increase the size of the chest, which causes the lung to expand and atmospheric air tends to enter to equalize the pressure . During inspiration the vertical diameter of the thorax increases due to the decrease in the diaphragm, but the transverse and anteroposterior diameter also increases due to the action of the remaining muscles that raise the ribs.
Consider the alleles for leaf color first. Drag the white labels to the white targets to identify the genotype of each F2 class. Remember that p (the pale mutant allele) and P (the wild-type allele) are incompletely dominant to each other.
Consider the alleles for leaf shape next. Drag the blue labels to the blue targets to identify the genotype of each F2 class. Remember that F (the forked mutant allele) is dominant to f + (the wild-type allele).
Answer:
a) PP
b) F_
c) Pp
d) F_
e) pp
f) F_
g)PP
h)f+f+
i)Pp
j)f+f+
k)pp
l)f+f+
Explanation:
Put the following events in the correct sequence of activation for the somatic motor neuron pathway: Correct! An action potential is propagated down the lower motor neuron. Correct! Calcium levels increase in the cytoplasm of the muscle cell. Correct! Acetylcholine binds its receptor and causes depolarization. Correct! Vesicles containing glutamate fuse with the nerve terminal. Correct! Contraction.
Answer:
1. An action potential is propagated down the lower motor neuron.
4. Vesicles containing glutamate fuse with the nerve terminal.
3. Acetylcholine binds its receptor and causes depolarization.
2. Calcium levels increase in the cytoplasm of the muscle cell.
5. Contraction
Explanation:
In the activation for the somatic motor neuron pathway;
first, an action potential is propagated down the lower motor neuron; this results to vesicles containing glutamate to fuse with the nerve terminal and then results to opening of the acetylcholine receptor channel. The opening leads to increase in Na+ and K+ ions permeabiity which causes depolarization. This depolarization then results to the generation of an action potential in the muscle membrane. As the membrane depolarization approaches a specialized region, it increase the calcium level in the cytoplasm of the muscle cell, as calcium moves from the intracellular store into the cytoplasm. This rise in cytoplasmic calcium then induces muscle contraction.
The correct sequence of activation for the somatic motor neuron pathway -
An action potential is propagated down the lower motor neuron.Vesicles containing glutamate fuse with the nerve terminal.Acetylcholine binds its receptor and causes depolarization.Calcium levels increase in the cytoplasm of the muscle cell.ContractionSomatic Motor Neuron ActivationWhen an action potential reaches the axon terminal, calcium enters the axon terminal. The synaptic vesicles fuse with the nerve terminal. This causes exocytosis of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft. Acetylcholine binds to its receptors.
The binding of Ach to receptors results in depolarizing muscle cell membrane. The action potential is carried down by T tubules to stimulate the sarcoplasmic reticulum. It releases calcium in the cytoplasm of the muscle cell. This facilitates cross-bridge formation and contraction of skeletal muscle occurs.
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19. Which of the following describes the route of urine out of the body after it leaves the kidney?
A. renal vein, bladder, urethra, ureter
B. ureter, urethra, bladder
C. renal vein, ureter, bladder, urethra
D. ureter, bladder, urethra
E. urethra, bladder, ureter
Answer: Option D.
Ureter, bladder, urethra.
Explanation:
Blood move to the kidneys through the renal arteries. The filtered blood leave the kidney through the renal vein and goes back to the heart. After the filtered blood flow back to the heart, urines leave the kidney and move to the ureter, from the ureter it moves to the bladder, the bladder expands as urine fills it, when it is full, it move to the urethra.
The correct route of urine out of the body after leaving the kidney is through the ureter, into the bladder, and then exiting via the urethra, making the correct answer D. ureter, bladder, urethra.
Explanation:The route of urine out of the body after it leaves the kidney is through the ureters, to the urinary bladder, and finally through the urethra.
Specifically, once urine is formed in the kidneys, it moves down to the ureters, which are muscular tubes that employ peristalsis to transport the urine to the bladder. The bladder acts as a reservoir, storing the urine until you are ready to urinate. When you urinate, the bladder contracts, and urine exits the body through the urethra, which is the final part of the urinary system.
Therefore, the correct answer to the question is: D. ureter, bladder, urethra.
W1 should not have fluoresced. Why? (I know it did not contain rGFP, but why?) W2-W4 should have fluoresced slightly. Give two possible reasons why. (Yes, I know it contained GFP…. but why?)
W1 did not fluoresce because it did not contain the gene for rGFP. W2-W4 fluoresced slightly, possibly due to low expression levels or environmental factors.
Explanation:The fluorescence of a substance is dependent on the presence of specific molecules or proteins that can emit light when excited by UV light. In this case, W1 did not fluoresce because it did not contain the gene for rGFP, which is responsible for fluorescence. The presence of GFP in W2-W4 allowed them to fluoresce slightly, potentially due to two reasons:
The GFP in W2-W4 may not have been expressed at high enough levels to produce a strong fluorescence signal.Other factors, such as the environment or interactions with other molecules, may have affected the fluorescence of GFP in W2-W4, resulting in a weaker fluorescence compared to transgenic mice with higher GFP expression levels.Learn more about Fluorescence here:https://brainly.com/question/37247128
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W1 did not fluoresce because it lacked rGFP. W2-W4 contained GFP, but fluorescence may have been faint due to low GFP concentration or suboptimal environmental conditions.
W1 should not have fluoresced because it did not contain rGFP, the protein responsible for fluorescence. Fluorescence occurs when certain molecules absorb light at one wavelength and emit light at a longer wavelength. Without the presence of rGFP, there would be no protein capable of fluorescing in W1.
W2-W4 should have fluoresced slightly because they contained GFP, which is known for its fluorescence properties. However, the fluorescence may have been faint for two possible reasons:
1. Concentration: The concentration of GFP in W2-W4 may have been lower than optimal for strong fluorescence. Higher concentrations of GFP typically result in brighter fluorescence, so if the concentration was too low, the fluorescence may have been less intense.
2. Environmental factors: Environmental conditions such as pH, temperature, and presence of certain ions can affect the fluorescence of GFP. If the environmental conditions in W2-W4 were not optimal for GFP fluorescence, it could have resulted in weaker fluorescence compared to ideal conditions.
As in most areas of biology, the study of mitosis and the cell cycle involves a lot of new terminology. Knowing what the different terms mean is essential to understanding and describing the processes occurring in the cell.
Fill the blanks with terms below to correctly complete the following sentences.
CYTOKINESIS, SISTER CHROMATID(S), CENTROSOME(S), CHROMATIN, CENTROMERE(S), KINETOCHORE(S), INTERPHASE, MITOTIC SPINDLE(S).
1. DNA replication produces two identical DNA molecules, called ______, which separate during mitosis.
2. After chromosomes condense, the _______ is the region where the identical DNA molecules are most tightly attached to each other.
3. During mitosis, microtubules attach to chromosomes at the ______.
4. In dividing cells, most of the cell's growth occurs during _______.
5. The _______ is a cell structure consisting of microtubules, which forms during early mitosis and plays a role in cell division.
6. During interphase, most of the nucleus is filled with a complex of DNA and protein in a dispersed form called ______.
7. In most eukaryotes, division of the nucleus is followed by _______, when the rest of the cell divides.
8. The ________ are the organizing centers for microtubules involved in separating chromosomes during mitosis.
Answer:
1. DNA replication produces two identical DNA molecules, called SISTER CHROMATID(S), which separate during mitosis.
2. After chromosomes condense, the CENTROMERE is the region where the identical DNA molecules are most tightly attached to each other.
3. During mitosis, microtubules attach to chromosomes at the KINETOCHORE(S)
4. In dividing cells, most of the cell's growth occurs during INTERPHASE.
5. The MITOTIC SPINDLE is a cell structure consisting of microtubules, which forms during early mitosis and plays a role in cell division.
6. During interphase, most of the nucleus is filled with a complex of DNA and protein in a dispersed form called CHROMATIN.
7. In most eukaryotes, division of the nucleus is followed by CYTOKINESIS, when the rest of the cell divides.
8. The CENTROSOME(S) are the organizing centers for microtubules involved in separating chromosomes during mitosis.
Explanation:
One chromosome is composed of two chromatids. One chromatid is a chromatin strand that got thick after folding. The chromatin is a dispersed form of the DNI associated with histones. Before cellular division occurs, the chromatin strand condensates and generates a copy or clon so both of the daughter cells can get the same genetic information. These two strands keep joint together by a centromere. So, the chromosome is conformed by the chromatin strand and its copy, known as sister chromatids, and are joint by the centromere. It looks X-shaped. The spindle apparatus -microtubules- is the structure that distributes the chromosomes to each pole. Microtubules attach to the chromosomes by the kinetochores, which are laminar proteinic structures situated next to the centromere. Once in the poles, chromosomes became lax again and it occurs cytokinesis, which is the cytoplasm division. Each cell contains two centrosomes that separate during cell division and migrate to the poles facilitating the action of spindle apparatus.The question involves understanding various biological terminologies related to the cell cycle and mitosis. These terms include sister chromatids, centromere, kinetochore, interphase, mitotic spindle, chromatin, cytokinesis, and centrosomes.
The following is the correct completion of the sentences using the provided terms:
1. DNA replication produces two identical DNA molecules, called sister chromatids, which separate during mitosis.
2. After chromosomes condense, the centromere is the region where the identical DNA molecules are most tightly attached to each other.
3. During mitosis, microtubules attach to chromosomes at the kinetochore.
4. In dividing cells, most of the cell's growth occurs during interphase.
5. The mitotic spindle is a cell structure consisting of microtubules, which forms during early mitosis and plays a role in cell division.
6. During interphase, most of the nucleus is filled with a complex of DNA and protein in a dispersed form called chromatin.
7. In most eukaryotes, division of the nucleus is followed by cytokinesis, when the rest of the cell divides.
8. The centrosomes are the organizing centers for microtubules involved in separating chromosomes during mitosis.
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Please help !!What role might an antibiotic factor such as temperature play in the evolution of a species ?
Answer:
if we are talkin about temperature then it could change how a species live so if it's hot it could have scales but if it's cooled it could have fur whatever the animal or species is.
Answer:
Long term temperature change can result in selective pressure that are individual specific and which are better adapted to the new temperature, causing populations to evolve.
Temperature changes could also alter the availability of food type and thus create a selective pressure towards individuals that can take advantage of the different food sources.
If thymine makes up 25% of the DNA nucleotides in the genome of a plant species, what are the percentages of the other nucleotides in the genome?
Answer: Adenine, Guanine and Cytosine takes 25% each
Explanation:
Recall that the sum of all nitrogenous bases in the DNA nucleotide is equal to 100%. And specific base pairings of Adenine to Thymine (A=T), and Cytosine to Guanine (C=G) must be equal.
So, the percentage of Adenine equal thymine, and that of cytosine equals guanine.
Now, A + T + C + G = 100%
So, if thymine makes up 25% of the DNA nucleotides, Adenine is also 25%.
Then, 25% + 25% + C + G = 100%
50% + C + G = 100%
C + G = 100% - 50% = 50%
Thus, divide 50% by 2 to obtain the individual percentage of cytosine and guanine. Each will take 25%
Final answer:
Using Chargaff's rules, if thymine makes up 25% of the DNA nucleotides in a plant species' genome, adenine also represents 25%, with guanine and cytosine each constituting 25% as well, ensuring all nucleotide percentages total 100%.
Explanation:
If thymine makes up 25% of the DNA nucleotides in the genome of a plant species, the percentages of the other nucleotides in the genome can be deduced using Chargaff's rules. According to these rules, in a DNA molecule, the amount of adenine (A) equals the amount of thymine (T), and the amount of guanine (G) equals the amount of cytosine (C). This principle of base pairing dictates that if 25% of the nucleotides are thymine, then adenine also makes up 25% of the nucleotides due to the A=T rule.
Since thymine and adenine together account for 50% of the nucleotides, the remaining 50% must be divided equally between guanine and cytosine, following the G=C rule. Thus, both guanine and cytosine make up 25% of the nucleotides each.
In summary, if thymine constitutes 25% of the nucleotides in the DNA of a plant species, then adenine, guanine, and cytosine also represent 25% each respectively, ensuring the total percentages add up to 100%.
Athlete's foot is caused by a type of mold that lives on an organism's skin and nails, damaging those tissues. Which of the following best describes this fungus?
beneficial
parasitic
fatal
nocturnal
Answer: parasitic
Explanation:
Athletic form is a common infections disease.it is a fungus infection that affects the skin. It's affect invariably the toes, nails and even hand. It causes inching sensation, cracking of the feet and even the feet becomes red. It cause by microorganisms and found mostly I warm wet environment.it is contagious as ir can be pass on to another person.
Athlete's foot is caused by a parasitic mold that lives on and damages the skin and nails, causing discomfort and other symptoms. A parasitic organism causes harm to its host, unlike beneficial organisms.
Explanation:The mold causing athlete's foot is best described as parasitic. This term is used to denote organisms that live on or within another organism (the host), causing damage to it. In the case of athlete's foot, the mold lives on the skin or nails, damaging these tissues and causing symptoms such as itching, peeling, and burning. Unlike beneficial organisms, which contribute positively to their host's health or survival, parasitic organisms cause harm. They are not fatal, meaning they do not cause death, nor are they nocturnal, a term that refers to creatures that are primarily active during the night.
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A Neurospora strain that requires glutamic acid (glu) for growth was mated to a strain that requires leucine (leu) for growth. The cross produces the following progeny: How far is glutamic acid from its centromere?
Answer:
15.5
Explanation:
How many rounds of replication does it take for an incorporation error to be established as a base pair change?
Answer:
Just one round without DNA repair
Explanation:
When an error occurs before or during replication, in a normal system, there is always proofreading and correction. If the error is not corrected during replication, it can then be corrected by the DNA damage repair system. But if not also corrected, the error becomes fixed and subsequent replication will produce this error
In reality, the PCR reactions from the crime investigation would be carried out with primers that fluoresce. The products would then be run through an agarose gel, producing peaks like those seen in the paternity test, below.
1. What is the meaning of one peak instead of two at a given locus?
2. Referring to the paternity test below, what determines the position along the horizontal line of the various peaks?
3. What does the difference between two separate peaks of the same color signify?
4. In order to determine whether two people are siblings, their STRs have to be compared to the alleged parents. Why doesn't direct comparison of the siblings' STRs work for this purpose?
Answer:
Short Tandem Repeats (STR) intensification is utilized for the discovery of wrongdoing, Paternity testing or if there should arise an occurrence of chimer-ism and other. The pair rehashes change from individual to person. STR design in a youngster is the blend of their folks STR.
1: Homozygous allele for that specific quality: Peak on the gel is speaking to the kind of allele of a particular STR. Each quality comprises of two alleles, if the arrangements of both the alleles are a similar they are known as the homozygous allele for that quality and their demeanor on gel goes ahead a similar spot. On the off chance that there is yielding in STR of the alleles, at that point two separate groups for that qualities accompany some distinction in position.
2. The flat hub of gel speak to the DNA section size: With the expansion of STR piece size, the groups move towards the privilege of the gel in any case, with decline towards left.
3. Heterozygous alleles with two distinctive STR part size
4. Since youngster STR is the allelic blend STR example of their folks: that is STR of one allele originate from mother anyway second originates from mother for a similar quality. The STR example of kin be the equivalent (all the kin are a blend of their folks)
Dinosaur fossils are too old to be reliably dated using carbon-14, which has a half-life of about 5730 years. Suppose we had a 69 million year old dinosaur fossil. How much of the living dinosaur's 14C would be remaining today? (Round your answer to five decimal places.)
For a 69 million year old dinosaur fossil, essentially no measurable amount of the living dinosaur's 14C would be remaining today.
Explanation:The half-life of carbon-14 (14C) is 5730 years, which means that after this time, only half of the original 14C concentration will remain. For a 69 million year old dinosaur fossil, we can calculate how much 14C would be remaining today using the half-life. Since the half-life is much shorter than the age of the fossil, the amount of 14C remaining would be extremely small, approaching zero. Therefore, we can estimate that essentially no measurable amount of the living dinosaur's 14C would be remaining today.
g You prepare a cell line that overexpresses a mutant form of epidermal growth factor receptor, or EGFR, in which the entire intracellular region of the receptor has been deleted. Predict the effect of overexpression of this construct on epidermal growth factor (EGF) signaling in this cell line. What will be the effect of the overexpression of this truncated receptor? EGFR will be unable to bind its ligand, blocking the signal and stopping cell growth. EGFR will not form a dimer in the presence of EGF, stopping normal cell growth. EGFR will form a dimer, but the kinases will not be activated and the signal will stop. EGFR will activate other proteins without dimerization, causing uncontrolled cell growth.
Answer:
The correct answer is the third statement.
Explanation:
The epidermal growth factor refers to a ligand that stimulates the epidermal growth factor receptor or EGFR. The EGFR refers to a receptor tyrosine kinase. With the binding of a ligand to a receptor, the phenomenon of dimerization takes place, which makes the receptor to cross-phosphorylate each other within the intracellular domain, this eventually results in the phosphorylation of the downstream signaling molecules.
This transduction of signals eventually results in cell differentiation. However, when the intracellular domain is not present, the signal transduction cannot occur within the cell. Thus, if the mutated EGFR, that is, without intracellular domain gets overexpressed, the ligand combines with the mutated receptor, its dimerization takes place with the help of the extracellular domain, but it will not be able to perform signal transduction, due to the absence of intracellular domain. Therefore, dimerization of EGFR will take place, without performing cross phosphorylation, which will eventually prevent cell growth.
The following statements describe different types of lipids. Fill in the blanks with the following wordsa.triacylglycerolsb. glycerolc. glycerophospholipidd. sphingolipidse. glycolipidsf. fatty acidsg. steroids1.) compounds that contain a fused ring systerm are called __. These have three 6-membered rings and one 5-membered ring. some of these compounds are found in biological membranes.2.) ___ are the building blocks for many lipids, and they generally contain an even number of carbon atoms and an unbranched hydrocarbon chain3.) ___ are formed when a carbohydrate is glycosidically linked to a hydroxyl group of a lipid. examples include gangliosides and cerebrosides. these are also found in biological membranes.4.) ___are the storage form of lipids, accumulating in adipose tissue, and they can be used as metabloic fuel. these compounds have a polar part, made of three ester groups, and a nonpolar fatty acid tail.5.) ___ are made up of a long-chain amino alcoho joined, either by a glycosidic linkage or a phosphodiester linkage, to a fatty acid. these do not contain ___. they are abundant in the nervous system.6.) When glycerol esterified to two fatty acids and a phophoric acid molecule a ___ is formed. these are found in biological membranes.
Answer:
1.) Compounds that contain a fused ring systerm are called _steroids_. These have three 6-membered rings and one 5-membered ring. some of these compounds are found in biological membranes.
2.) _Fatty acids__ are the building blocks for many lipids, and they generally contain an even number of carbon atoms and an unbranched hydrocarbon chain
3.) _Glycolipid__ are formed when a carbohydrate is glycosidically linked to a hydroxyl group of a lipid. examples include gangliosides and cerebrosides. these are also found in biological membranes.
4.) _Triacylglycerols_are the storage form of lipids, accumulating in adipose tissue, and they can be used as metabloic fuel. these compounds have a polar part, made of three ester groups, and a nonpolar fatty acid tail.
5.) _Sphingolipids__ are made up of a long-chain amino alcohol joined, either by a glycosidic linkage or a phosphodiester linkage, to a fatty acid. these do not contain _glycerol__. they are abundant in the nervous system.
6.) When glycerol esterified to two fatty acids and a phophoric acid molecule a _glycerophospholipid_ is formed. These are found in biological membranes.
Final answer:
The types of lipids are identified and placed correctly in the blanks: steroids, fatty acids, glycolipids, triacylglycerols, sphingolipids, and glycerophospholipids, each with their respective characteristics and functions in biological systems.
Explanation:
The statements describe different types of lipids and require the correct lipid types or components to be placed in the blanks:
Compounds that contain a fused ring system are called steroids. These have three 6-membered rings and one 5-membered ring. Some of these compounds are found in biological membranes.
Fatty acids are the building blocks for many lipids, and they generally contain an even number of carbon atoms and an unbranched hydrocarbon chain.
Glycolipids are formed when a carbohydrate is glycosidically linked to a hydroxyl group of a lipid. Examples include gangliosides and cerebrosides. These are also found in biological membranes.
Triacylglycerolsare the storage form of lipids, accumulating in adipose tissue, and they can be used as metabolic fuel. These compounds have a polar part, made of three ester groups, and a nonpolar fatty acid tail.
Sphingolipids are made up of a long-chain amino alcohol joined, either by a glycosidic linkage or a phosphodiester linkage, to a fatty acid. These do not contain glycerol. They are abundant in the nervous system.
When glycerol is esterified to two fatty acids and a phosphoric acid molecule, a glycerophospholipid is formed. These are found in biological membranes.
The supercharged teen brain has a hard time
recalling childhood memories
seeing the consequences of a risky decision
creating new memories in long-term memory
taking risks due to fear of being injured
Answer:
It's difficult to see the effects of a risky decision in the stressed teen mind.
Explanation:
The teen brain is physiologically different from the brain of a child or an adult. The teen brain is interested to take risks and trying new things. Moreover, adolescent cerebellum is also easily manipulated by social pressure and can convert a poor decision into a bad habit.
Whereas the brain is in the same vulnerable state, it is crucial for teenagers not to make dangerous decisions to get around with the constructive stress from peers and manage stress. Teenagers could benefit from tools such as a coping skills method and a Never Do list.
Piebald spotting is a condition found in humans in which there are patches of skin that lack pigmentation. The condition results from the inability of pigment-producing cells to migrate properly during development. Two adults with piebald spotting have one child who has this trait and a second child with normal skin pigmentation. Is piebald spotting dominant or recessive
Answer:
The correct answer is dominant.
Explanation:
On the basis of the given question, both the parents are suffering from piebald spotting, that is, a condition in which patches of the skin is devoid of pigmentation. It is given that one of the progenies of the parents is exhibiting normal skin, while other is exhibiting piebald spotting.
The condition results due to the non-tendency of the cells that generate pigment to migrate appropriately at the time of development indicate that if the trait would have been recessive, then both the child should have been suffering from the condition. As this is not the case, it shows that the trait is dominant, and it also shows that the two parents are heterozygous for the trait not homozygous.
Explain how the potential for specialization varies with cell type and how it varies over the life span of an organism.
Answer:
Explanation:
Cell specialization is the process of cell differentiation. In this process the generic or normal cells in the body change their specific forms and functions to perform certain specific tasks in the body. This varies with the cell type for example, in young development embryos the stem cells proliferate and differentiate to support the development of body parts and organs in the body whereas in the case of stem cells in adults are specialized to replace the worn out cells of the brain, bones, blood and heart. Thus the specificity of the stem cells varies during various stages of life span of an organism that is from birth till the death.
Cell specialization varies according to the type of cell and over the life span of the organism. This variation allows for increased efficiency of the cells to perform their respective roles in the organism. The process, known as cellular differentiation, involves varying gene expressions, with stem cells representing the unspecialized stage.
Explanation:The potential for specialization varies with cell type and over the life span of an organism based on the function they are required to perform. Organisms start their life from a single fertilized egg cell, which then divides to give rise to trillions of cells. Through a process known as cellular differentiation, these initially similar cells become specialized in both structure and function.
Cells in multicellular organisms like humans become specialized to allow for increased efficiency. Different sets of genes are expressed in different cells leading to their unique functions. For instance, a muscle cell is different from a liver cell, meeting their respective functional requirements for the organism. This variation in specialization continues over the lifespan of the organism, including the changes in gene expression to adapt to environmental changes.
Before a cell becomes specialized, it is known as a stem cell. These cells can divide into more stem cells or differentiate into various specialized cell types. While an already specialized cell generally remains as such, research is ongoing to coax these cells in the lab to become a different specialization.
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Natural Selection is any natural process that changes the genetic composition of a population by ensuring that some individuals leave __________ offspring than others.
Answer: better
Natural Selection is any natural process that changes the genetic composition of a population by ensuring that some individuals leave better offspring than others.
Explanation:
Natural selection simply involves the elimination of less favourable traits such as slender body parts, lower resistance to diseases etc while highly favorable traits such as plump body parts, higher resistance to diseases that makes organisms better suited to the environment are retained, and then passed from parents to offsprings.
Thus, natural selection brings about the emergence of better offspring than others.
The following descriptions apply to either mitochondrial import or nuclear import. Choose all the statements that apply to mitochondrial import. a. The signal sequence is recognized and bound by a receptor protein in the organelle's outer membrane. b. ATP hydrolysis is required c. GTP hydrolysis is required d. Chaperone proteins are involved e. The imported protein enters through a pore that is large enough to allow ions and water molecules to traverse freely.
Answer:
Option-(A):The signal sequence is recognized and bound by a receptor protein in the organelle's outer membrane.
Explanation:
The mitochondria are also termed as the "power house's" of the cell structures, as there is more to create energy for the body inside the cell organelle. However, there are certain amino acid chains or simply the proteins which are required for sustaining the over all structure of the cell's organelle. As, there are some protein on the outside of the organelle known as porin. While, the organelle itself is involved in the electron transport chain that occurs inside the cell body for generation of the optimum level of energy for the organism to carry out various functions for its survival.In C4 plants to avoid photorespiration, they have evolved CO2 concentrating mechanisms. These plants tend to be found in drier environments with high sunlight levels.
Will increasing CO2 levels in the atmosphere reduce the advantage of C4 versus C3 plants in these environments? Justify.
Answer: Yes
Explanation:
In hot regions, with intense sunlight where stomata closes during the day, C3 plants photorespiration drains away as much as the 50% of the carbon fixed by the Calvin cycle for photosynthesis. C4 plants have evlove to minimize photorespiration and increase photosynthesis.
As CO2 levels are increased C3 photo-respiration decreases. More CO2 increases the photosynthetic rate of C3 plants. The increasing photosynthetic yield of C3 plants at higher levels of atmospheric CO2 makes C3 plants as better as C4 plants. In addition less ATP is used in C3 plants when compared to the energy cost of C4 photosynthesis
Final answer:
Increasing atmospheric CO2 levels could potentially reduce the competitive advantage of C4 plants over C3 plants in hot, dry environments due to diminished necessity for C4 CO2 concentrating mechanisms.
Explanation:
Increasing CO2 levels in the atmosphere could potentially reduce the competitive advantage of C4 plants over C3 plants in hot, dry environments with high sunlight levels. The unique adaptations of C4 plants, including their CO2 concentrating mechanisms, allow them to efficiently perform photosynthesis in these conditions by reducing water loss and avoiding photorespiration.
However, as atmospheric CO2 levels rise, the air becomes richer in CO2, potentially diminishing the need for C4 plants to utilize their specialized CO2 concentrating mechanisms. This could lead to C3 plants, which thrive better in environments with higher CO2 levels due to their direct use of RuBisCO for carbon fixation in the Calvin cycle, becoming more competitive in environments that were previously dominated by C4 plants.
Nonetheless, it is important to consider that C4 plants have other advantages such as higher water use efficiency and tolerance to high temperatures and light intensities, which may still confer them some advantage in these environments, despite increased CO2 levels.
A case-control study was conducted to evaluate the relationship between aspirin use and the risk of colon cancer. 2,000 cases and 2,000 controls were enrolled in the study. 1,800 of the cases reported using aspirin in the past while 1,200 of the controls reported using aspirin in the past. Using the data given above, calculate the numeric value of this measure of association. The numeric value is ___.
Answer:
6.0.
Explanation:
This is an incomplete question.
5. Tay-Sachs disease is caused by a recessive allele. The frequency of this allele is 0.1 in a population of 3600 people. What is the frequency of the dominant allele, and how many of the 3600 people will be heterozygous for the condition
Answer: Frequency of dominant allele is 0.9 and people who are heterozygous for the condition are 648.
Explanation:
According to Hardy-Weinberg equation, p represents frequency of dominant allele, q represent frequency of recessive allele.
And also p + q = 1.
Given frequency of recessive allele, q as 0.1.
p, frequency of dominant allele is
1 - 0.1 = 0.9
Therefore, frequency of dominant allele= 0.9.
Number of people that will be heterozygous will gotten from the percentage of heterozygous of the total population.
Heterozygous is represented as 2pq, that is the product of 2,p and q.
Therefore we have 2 multiply by p by q.
2 x 0.9 x 0.1= 0.18 or 18%.
Since we are to find the number and not only percentage:
So from the population given as 3600, number of heterozygous is 18% of 3600.
18% of 3600 = 648.
Answer:
The frequency of the dominant allele is 0.9 and there will be 648 heterozygous people for the condition.
Explanation:
According to Hardy Weinberg`s equilibrium p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1
p = frequency of the dominant allele in the population
q = frequency of the recessive allele in the population
p2 = percentage of homozygous dominant individuals
q2 = percentage of homozygous recessive individuals
2pq = percentage of heterozygous individuals = frequency of the dominant allele
Therefore (1 - 0.1) = 0.9. (frequency of dominant allele)
(0.18x3600) = 648 (number of peopleheterozygous for Tay Sachs, 18% of the population).
8. Outline the major connections between the eye and brain, indicating the interaction of neural tracts at the optic chiasm, relay stages at the LGN, and optical projections to the occipital lobe of the brain.
Answer:
Eye is one of the most important organ of the body that enable the individual to see the different things. The sensory neuron receives the stimuli and interpret the information to the brain.
The optic nerve detects the signal that has been refracted by the retina. The signal is then transferred to the optic chiasm. The signal is received by the thalamus specifically at the Lateral Geniculate Nucleus. This results in the creation of retinotopic map. The signal is then received by the occipital lobe at the visual cortex. This is determined as optical projections. The signal was then detected by the temporal lobe and by the parietal lobe. This helps in the identification of the object.
The eye and the brain connect through complex neural pathways. Visual information travels via the optic nerve to the optic chiasm, where nerve fibers cross. The signals are then processed in the LGN and sent to the occipital lobe, where the final image is perceived.
Explanation:The eye and the brain are interconnected through complex neural pathways. Initially, light enters the eye, and the retina's photoreceptor cells convert this light into electrical signals. These signals are then passed onto the bipolar cells and ganglion cells in the retina. The axons of the ganglion cells make up the optic nerve, which carries the visual information to the brain.
At the optic chiasm, the optic nerves from both eyes cross, resulting in visual information from the left half of both retinas (which corresponds to the right visual field) being sent to the right side of the brain, and vice versa. This is called decussation.
The signals then pass through the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN), a relay center in the thalamus for the visual pathway. The LGN processes the visual signals and sends them to the primary visual cortex in the occipital lobe of the brain.
In the occipital lobe, the signals are detailed, and we perceive the final image. This entire neural pathway ensures the accurate perception and interpretation of visual information.
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What role might an abiotic factor such as temperature play in the evolution of a species?
Final answer:
Temperature significantly influences the evolution and distribution of species by necessitating adaptations such as migration, hibernation, and estivation to cope with fluctuations. It affects metabolic rates and speciation, with extreme temperatures shaping the adaptation and survival strategies of organisms. This fundamental abiotic factor plays a crucial role in the evolution and ecological placement of species.
Explanation:
Role of Temperature in the Evolution of a Species
Temperature plays a significant role in the evolution and distribution of species. Organisms must either maintain a specific internal temperature or inhabit environments that keep their body within a range supporting their metabolism. Major evolutionary adaptations, such as migration, hibernation, and estivation, have developed to cope with temperature fluctuations. Abiotic factors like temperature influence other abiotic factors, including soil quality, which affects plant migration and the subsequent attraction of certain animal types. This interplay between abiotic and biotic factors shapes ecosystems and the species that thrive within them.
Adaptations to temperature are crucial for survival and reproduction, affecting metabolic rates and, consequently, generation time and speciation rates. These adaptations are a response to extreme temperatures that most organisms cannot survive due to enzymatic constraints. For instance, Archaea bacteria have evolved to thrive in extremely hot environments, exemplifying organisms’ incredible capacity to adapt to their surroundings.
Therefore, temperature is a fundamental abiotic factor that drives the evolution of species by necessitating and fostering the development of adaptations that allow organisms to survive, reproduce, and thrive under specific environmental conditions.
Recognizes and attaches to host cellsRecognizes and attaches to host cells Protects the viral nucleic acidProtects the viral nucleic acid Assists the virus in exiting the cell after reproductionAssists the virus in exiting the cell after reproduction Contains antigenic determinantsContains antigenic determinants Contains the viral genetic information
Drag each one of the labels onto the figure to identify function of each structure(structure image attached)
Answer:
Left side(top to bottom)
assist the virus in exiting the cell after reproductionprotects the viral nuclei acidrecognizes and attaches to host cellcontains antigenic determinantsRight side
contains the viral genetic informationExplanation:
Virus is an infectious agent that has the ability to reproduce inside its host cell.Once inside a host cell,it has the ability to replicate itself. It is composed of a core of genetic material, either DNA or RNA. It is surrounded by a protein coat or protein envelope(that covers genome), which is a protective layer that enables the virus to survive between hosts. Virus is the smallest of all microbes. A typical virus may vary in size. The smallest being only 17nm and the largest is 1500nm in size.
Select the correct definition of a glycolipid.
A glycolipid is:
A. a lipid molecule that contains a phosphate group a lipid molecule produced during glycolysis.
B. a lipid molecule that contains at least one carbohydrate unit.
C. a molecule produced in the reaction between a glycerol molecule and a lipid molecule.
Answer: Option B.
Explanation:
A glycolipid is a lipid molecule that contain carbohydrate unit and it is bonded together by glycosidic bond. Glycolipid is a component of cell membrane and it consist of a hydrophobic tail and one or more hydrophilic sugar group. They help to maintain cell membrane stability.
A glycolipid is a lipid molecule that contains at least one carbohydrate unit and is a fundamental component of cell membranes. It plays significant roles in providing energy, enabling cellular recognition, and participating in cell communication.
Explanation:The correct definition of a glycolipid is: a lipid molecule that contains at least one carbohydrate unit. Glycolipids are molecules within cell membranes that consist of a lipid and a carbohydrate. They play several important roles in the cell, which include providing energy, serving as markers for cellular recognition, and participating in cell-cell communication. Essentially, glycolipids are crucial for maintaining the structure and function of living cells.
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Which molecules within the cell are responsible for carrying genetic information carbohydrates proteins lipids nucleic acids?
Answer: Nucleic acids
Explanation:
Nucleic acids are biologically occuring polynucleotides in which the nuclotides residues are linked in a specific sequence by phosphodiester bonds.
The two types of nucleic acids are DNA which is double stranded and serves as the usual carrier of genetic information while RNA which is single stranded serves a carriers of genetic information in some viruses only.
Nucleic acids, specifically DNA and RNA, are the key molecules within a cell responsible for carrying genetic information. They are formed of nucleotides and play a vital role in cell functioning, heredity, and protein synthesis.
Explanation:Within the cell, the molecules responsible for carrying genetic information are nucleic acids. These macromolecules, important for the continuity of life, carry the genetic blueprint of a cell and provide instructions for the cell's functioning. Macromolecules within the cell include proteins, lipids, carbohydrates, and nucleic acids, but nucleic acids i.e., DNA and RNA are unique in carrying genetic information.
Nucleic acids are made up of nucleotides, each composed of a pentose sugar, a nitrogenous base, and a phosphate group. DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid, carries the genome and is passed down from parents to offspring. It has a double-helical structure, with the two strands running in opposite directions and connected by hydrogen bonds. RNA, or ribonucleic acid, is involved in protein synthesis and its regulation.
The base sequence of DNA is responsible for carrying and retaining the hereditary information in a cell. It directs its own synthesis, as well as the synthesis of RNA and proteins, giving rise to diverse structures and functions.
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Fill in the blanks using the option below:
The lipid bilayer consists of ______ rows of ______, with the ______ hydrophobic ______ forming the center of the bilayer. The ______ hydrophilic ______ are situated along the outside of the bilayer. This bilayer creates a separation between the contents of a cell and its surroundings.
Options:
tails, heads, non-polar, two polar, phospholipids, three fatty acids, steroids
Answer:
two, phospholipids, non polar, tails, polar, heads.
Explanation:
This is just basically illustrating one of the components of the lipid bilayer memebrane. The membrane is made up of two lipid layers with the polar head groups facing either the cytosol or the outer surroundings while the non polar tails facing each other. Such that this bilayer act as a barrier between the cytosol of the cell/organelle eg endoplasmic reticulum and the outer surroundings.
The lipid bilayer consists of two rows of phospholipids, with the non-polar hydrophobic tails forming the center of the bilayer. The polar hydrophilic heads are situated along the outside of the bilayer. This bilayer creates a separation between the contents of a cell and its surroundings.
The lipid bilayer consists of two rows of phospholipids, with the non-polar hydrophobic tails forming the center of the bilayer. The polar hydrophilic heads are situated along the outside of the bilayer. This arrangement creates a barrier between the cell's interior and the external environment. The hydrophobic tails shield the inner part of the bilayer from the surrounding aqueous environment, while the hydrophilic heads interact with water molecules on both sides of the membrane. This selective permeability allows the cell to control the movement of molecules in and out of the cell, maintaining homeostasis and enabling essential cellular processes to occur. The lipid bilayer also plays a crucial role in cell signaling, adhesion, and recognition, contributing to the overall function and integrity of the cell.