when does the paramecium pump out more water, when there is a high salt concentration or when there is a low salt concentration surrounding the paramecium?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The correct answer is- when there is a low salt concentration

Explanation:

Water moves through osmosis which means water moves from an area having low solute concentration to an area having high solute concentration through a semipermeable membrane.  

So in a hypotonic solution, the concentration of solute in the environment surrounding the paramecium will be low than in paramecium which allows water to move inside paramecium.

The more the water moves in the paramecium the more water will be pumped by the contractile vacuole present in the paramecium. Therefore the correct answer is-  when there is a low salt concentration.

Answer 2
Final answer:

The paramecium pumps out more water when there is a low salt concentration surrounding it.

Explanation:

The paramecium pumps out more water when there is a low salt concentration surrounding it. This is because paramecium is a freshwater organism and has a higher concentration of solutes inside its body compared to its external environment. To maintain osmotic balance, paramecium expels water when the external salt concentration is low. In contrast, when the salt concentration is high outside the paramecium, water tends to move out of the organism. As a result, the paramecium does not need to actively pump out water because the external environment already aids in reaching osmotic balance.

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Related Questions

Sickle cell disease involves the red blood cells, or hemoglobin, and their ... or capillaries and stops the movement of healthy, normal oxygen-carrying blood. .

Answers

Answer: The statement is true

Explanation:

The sickle-cell disease is characterized by red blood cells with sickle shape (like a semi-circle). The iron-containing pigment, HEMOGLOBIN in these sickle-shaped red blood cells is

- inefficient in transporting oxygen

- likely to break down in environment with low oxygen concentration.

Such abnormally shaped red blood cells block the cavities of small blood vessels like CAPILLARIES, hindering the free movement of healthy, normal oxgen-carrying blood in them.

Label the genotypes of the parents (P1) and two offspring generations (F1 and F2). Labels can be used once, more than once, or not at all.

Answers

Answer: the question is not detailed enough

Explanation:

For instance if the genotype of the parent is AS and AS there would be a cross breeding of the genotype to give the First filial generation (F1) then any other crossbreeding is known as the F2

Note: the parent genotype is known as P1

in pea plants t is the allele for tall plants while t is the allele for dwarf plants. If you have a tall plant, demonstrate with a testcross how it could be determained if the plant is homozygous tall or heterozygous tall.

Answers

Answer:

The tall plant is homozygous (TT) if all the progeny of the test cross is "tall". Presence of both tall and short progeny makes the "tall" plant heterozygous (Tt).

Explanation:

The "tall" plant with unknown genotype would be crossed with a homozygous short plant (tt) of the same species. This is called the testcross. If the progeny of test cross includes both tall and short plants, the "tall" plant with unknown genotype was heterozygous for the gene. On the other hand, the presence of only tall progeny in the testcross reflects the fact that the "tall" plant with unknown genotype was homozygous for the allele for "tallness".

Final answer:

To determine if a tall pea plant is homozygous tall or heterozygous tall, a testcross can be performed by crossing the tall plant with a dwarf plant.

Explanation:

In pea plants, the allele for tall plants is represented by uppercase letter T, while the allele for dwarf plants is represented by lowercase letter t. To determine if a tall plant is homozygous tall or heterozygous tall, you can perform a testcross by crossing the tall plant with a dwarf plant. If the tall plant is homozygous tall (TT), all the offspring will be tall. If the tall plant is heterozygous tall (Tt), half of the offspring will be tall and half will be dwarf.

In neuronal communication, ________ involves moving a neurotransmitter from the synapse back into the axon terminal from which it was released.

Answers

Answer:

In neuronal communication, _reuptake_ involves moving a neurotransmitter from the synapse back into the axon terminal from which it was released

Reuptake is the reabsorption of a neurotransmitter by a neurotransmitter located along an axon terminal's plasma membrane (i.e., the pre-synaptic neuron at a synapse) or glial cell after performing its role of transmitting a neural impulse.

The brain structure responsible for regulating behavior related to survival, such as hunger and thirst, is called the _____ and is part of the _____ system.

Answers

Answer:Hypothalamus, Lymbic system

Explanation:

The generation and experience of emotions involve many regions of the brain. The limbic system is one of the region in the brain that controls emotion, memories and arousal. It contains regions that detect fear, reinforcement behavior. The limbic system which includes the amygala, hypothalamus and part of the thalamus is dedicated to different functions.

The Hypothalamus also controls emotions, hunger, thirst, appetite, digestion and sleep.

Final answer:

The brain structure responsible for regulating behavior related to survival is called the hypothalamus and is part of the endocrine system.

Explanation:The brain structure responsible for regulating behavior related to survival, such as hunger and thirst, is called the hypothalamus and is part of the endocrine system. The hypothalamus plays a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis by controlling various physiological processes, including hunger, thirst, body temperature, and sleep.Learn more about the hypothalamus here:

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You analyze a DNA sample and find that its base composition is 30% A, 20% T, 30% G, and 20% C. What can you conclude about the structure of this DNA?
Because A equals G, and T equals C, this must be a double-stranded DNA molecule.
Because A does not equal T, and G does not equal C, this cannot be a double-stranded DNA molecule. It must therefore be a single-stranded DNA.
Because A is half as much again as T, and G is half as much again as C, this must be a mutated double-stranded DNA molecule.
There is not enough information to determine whether it is a single-stranded or a double-stranded DNA molecule.

Answers

Answer:

Because A does not equal T, and G does not equal C, this cannot be a double-stranded DNA molecule. It must therefore be a single-stranded DNA.

Explanation:

The base composition in the observed DNA sample does not follow the Chargaff rule. If it was a double-stranded DNA, the percent proportion of adenine base and thymine base should be equal (either 30% or 20% for both). Similarly, the percent proportion of guanine and cytosine bases must also be equal  (either 30% or 20% for both). Since the given sample does not follow it, it is not a double-stranded DNA molecule but is present as a single strand.

Investigator Barnes has examined the body of a young man who was murdered in his apartment. The body is just beginning to relax from rigor mortis. If the time is now 10:30 am on Friday morning, the condition of the body would indicate what possible time of death?

Between 2 am and 10 am on Monday
Between 10:30 am on Wednesday and 10:30 am on Friday
Between 10:30 pm on Wednesday and 10:30 pm on Thursday
Between 10:30 am on Saturday and 3 pm on Wednesday

Answers

Between 10:30 pm on Wednesday and 10:30 pm on Thursday the death has occurred.

Option C.

Explanation:

Rigor mortis is the phenomenon where the dead body becomes stiff and rigid because of some chemical and enzymatic reactions inside the dead body after a few hours of its death. Rigor mortis occurs as the glycogen reserve of the body has ended and the ATP production mechanism has been finished, resulting in non detachment of actin and myosin filaments from each other, resulting in the muscles being stiff as ropes.

Time of rigor mortis depends on the body glycogen reserve, the ambient temperature, and humidity as well. In warmer regions, the rigor mortis sets in quickly as well as depletes away quickly. The reverse occurs in colder region. In our climate, Rigor mortis sets in from the papillary muscles of eyes after about 12 hours of death, as well as dissappear after 12 hours of set in. So about 12 to 24 hours is spent in appearing and disappearing of the rigor mortis.

Here in the said body, the death has occurred between 10:30 pm on Wednesday and 10:30 pm on Thursday.

If the concentration of salt in the fluid surrounding cells decreases and the concentration of other solutes remains constant?

Answers

Answer:

The cell will swell.

Explanation:

The cells react distinctly when placed in different solutions like hypertonic, isotonic and hypotonic solutions. In the mentioned question, that is, in the fluid surrounding the cells, the concentration of salt reduces, which makes the solution hypotonic. Hypotonic solution exhibit high water potential and low solute concentration.  

This makes the water move from the hypotonic solution to the inside of the cell as the osmotic movement occurs from high solvent concentration to low solvent concentration, thus, swelling of the cell takes place.  

The process of translation in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes requires tRNAs, amino acids, and ribosomal subunits. Which of the following components must also be present for translation to proceed?

Answers

Final answer:

Translation in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes requires tRNAs, amino acids, ribosomal subunits, mRNA template, ribosomes, and enzymatic factors. These components are necessary for the formation of bonds between amino acids and the synthesis of polypeptides.

Explanation:

In order for translation to proceed, three components must be present: tRNAs, amino acids, and ribosomal subunits. Additionally, several other components are required, including an mRNA template, ribosomes, and various enzymatic factors. These components are necessary for the formation of bonds between sequential amino acids specified by the mRNA template, as well as for the catalysis of the bonding between new amino acids and the growing polypeptide chain. Translation occurs in three-nucleotide steps and is facilitated by the ribosome.

A loss of 90% of the population in the Pingelap atoll from a typhoon in 1775 resulted in a high percentage of the current population being affected by achromatopsia. As a result, all of these affected individuals _____.

a. have normal vision

b. are descendants of one of the 20 original survivors

c. receive genetic testing and genetic counseling

d. have exceptional hearing

e. are descendants of the 20 original survivors

Answers

Answer:

Option-B

Explanation:

Pingelap is an atoll consisting of three islands: Daekae, Sukoru and Pingelap Island.

The present population of the atoll is 250 residents, the proportion of which has the color blindness called achromatopsia caused by the loss of the cone cells which respond to a different wavelength of light.

The achromatopsia on the atoll can be traced back in 1775 when a catastrophic typhoon swept the island and left only 20 individuals. One of these individuals named the Doahkaesa Mwanenihsed was the carrier of the disease and the inbreeding in the descendants of this individual resulted in the increase in the frequency of the recessive allele and is the cause of the affected individuals.

Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.

You are walking after dark. A sudden noise frightens you. Your heart pounds, your pulse races, and your breathing rate increases. These responses are due to your _____

Answers

Answer:

Answer is sympathetic nervous system.

Explanation:

Sympathetic nervous system is considered or known to be part of the autonomic nervous system. The other part is parasympathetic nervous system.

The sympathetic nervous system , which originates from the spinal cord , responds to reflex or unconscious actions by accelerating or increasing heart rate and blood pressure.

The responds of the sympathetic nervous system is termed as fight-flight response. This means that, the nervous system triggers the body to respond to event by fighting or running.

It regulates reflex actions.

The client is an average-sized adult and has abnormal microcytic hypochromic red blood cells due to a long-term, chronic disease. Which complete blood count (CBC) result is characteristic of this type of anemia?

Answers

The TC DC ESR test gives this type of results.

Explanation:

Anemia is defined as the condition of blood where the average sizes of red blood cells are smaller than normal, and the hemoglobin count is also low. The chronic diseases that are the causes are iron deficiency, chronic leukocytic leukemia, chronic myelocytic leukemia, hookworm infections etc.

As suspected, these patients are advised to do total count, differential count of blood corpuscles, erythrocytic sedimentation rate, haemoglobin count, blood ferritin levels etc which gives the corresponding results proving any of the diseases.

Significant damage to which of the following parts of the brain will most likely cause a person to fall into a deep coma from which the person will be unable to awaken?

A. Hypothalamus
B. Frontal lobe
C. Reticular formation
D. Amygdala
E. Thalamus

Answers

Final answer:

Damage to the Reticular Formation, a part of the brain involved in maintaining consciousness, is most likely to cause a person to fall into a deep coma from which they can't awaken.

Explanation:

Significant damage to the Reticular Formation of the brain is most likely to cause a person to fall into a deep coma from which he or she will not be able to awaken. The reticular formation plays a crucial role in maintaining consciousness and damage to this area can lead to a state of comatose. The other parts of the brain listed, such as the Hypothalamus, Frontal lobe, Amygdala, and Thalamus also have significant roles, but their damage doesn't predominantly lead to a coma.

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Populations that exhibit logistic growth still exhibit exponential growth. This statement is:

Select one:

a. true; logistic growth is another term for exponential growth.
b. true; however, this can only occur in different populations of the same organism because one population cannot exhibit both types of growth.
c. false; exponential growth and logistic growth are characteristics of different species.
d. true; populations exhibiting logistic growth go through a period of exponential growth before growth rates level off around zero.
e. false; populations exhibiting logistic growth show exponential growth when the population size is greater than the environment's carrying capacity.

Answers

Answer: Option B (True)

Explanation: The statement can only occur in different populations of the same organism. The two growth strategies happens in different modes.

Firstly, logistic growth occurs when the resources available in the habitat (i.e organism’s niche) are limited to satisfy the whole population and this allows the organisms of the same species to grow rapidly until it reaches the point the resources can circulate, the carrying capacity.

While exponential growth occurs when there's abundance of resources for the population and allows growth of population beyond the carrying capacity, which results to overshoot of population in later stage of growth.

Secondly, in logistic growth population rarely crash but in exponential growth, population crashes due to mortality (often by predation, disease outbreak and etc) when there's overshoot of population beyond the carrying capacity.

Note: Population refers to the total number of organisms of the same species inhabiting a geographical area at a particular time.

Final answer:

Logistic growth starts off as exponential in its early stages, when resources are plentiful, but slows and levels off as resources become scarce. This is typical of many populations across various species and environments, and it does not differentiate one species from another.

Explanation:

The statement 'Populations that exhibit logistic growth still exhibit exponential growth' is true, but it needs clarification. The correct answer is 'true; populations exhibiting logistic growth go through a period of exponential growth before growth rates level off around zero.' This reflects the nature of logistic growth, which starts off as exponential during the early stages when resources are plentiful but slows down and levels off over time as resources become scarce.

During the initial stage, species multiply rapidly, and the population size increases exponentially. However, eventually, the population size begins to approach the carrying capacity of the environment, at which point population growth rates decline and level off.

This behavior can be observed in a variety of species and in different types of environments, but it is not a characteristic that differentiates between species. It is a universal natural population behavior when the growth is limited by an environment's resources.

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DNA sequences can act as "tape measures of evolution". Some highly conserved regions of the human genome (similar to comparable regions in other species) don’t code for proteins. Why? Propose a possible explanation for this observation.

Answers

Explanation:

The DNA contains many regulatory sequences that are very important, even though they do not code for proteins.

For example, the expression of every gene is regulated by a region called the Promoter. The promoter sequence, located close by the coding region of the gene, usually binds the RNA polymerase (the enzyme that transcribes genes into mRNA) as well as other proteins necessary for transcription,

The promoter sequence, thus, does not itself code for proteins, but is essential for transcription and must be highly conserved so that the RNA polymerase can find it.

Answer: Those sequences do not code for proteins because the genes may be important and maybe should not be mutated. A mutation there could have a negative impact on an organism's ability to function effectively.

Explanation:

DNA transcription is the first process of gene expression, by which the information contained in the DNA sequence is transferred to the protein sequence using various RNAs as intermediaries. During gene transcription, the DNA sequences are copied into RNA by an enzyme called RNA polymerase (pRNA) which synthesizes a messenger RNA (mRNA) that maintains the DNA sequence information. In this way, DNA transcription could also be called messenger RNA synthesis. At last, that mRNA is used to make proteins in a process called translation.

Those DNA sequences are transcribed, but not translated because they are able to regulate certain mRNA strands by destroying them or blocking translation of them. So those DNA sequences are not used to make proteins, because a mutation there could have a negative impact on the organisms. Instead, those sequences may be used for other functions such as regulating gene expression by acting over other mRNA strands.

What strategies should the radiologic technologist adopt to maintain good communication while approaching a child for radiographic examination? Select all that apply. 1 Greet the child and parent with a smile. 2 Use trivial praise to motivate the child. 3 Ensure that the correct child is identified. 4 Bend down to the child’s eye level and talk. 5 Answer questions that are helpful for the child.

Answers

Answer: 1, 4, 5

Explanation:

To maintain good communication while approaching a child for radiographic examination,

1)When addressing the child, sit or kneel so as to be at the child's eye level.

2)Establish rapport with the child by talking to the child from a comfortable distance before approaching him or her;

3)Considerations when communicating with a child include: age- appropriate methods of communication to include sensitivity for the child and the parent;

4) Acquaint the child with the new environment; explain the procedure to the child and the parent as effectively as possible;

Answer:

The radiologist must follow options 1,2,4, and 5.

Option 3 is not necessary.

Explanation:

The radiologist needs to show genuine consideration to the child. There should be sensitivity in the communication with the child.

The radiologist needs to greet the child and parent with a smile. This is the first antidote to their anxiety. It will simply calm both the child and parent and make them feel relaxed. The radiologist needs to establish a close bond with the the child by talking to the child from a comfortable distance before approaching the child. He can do this by praising the child for something. This might make the child smile or laugh, thereby motivating the child.

The radiologist should effectively explain why the child is in the new environment and also explain its procedure to the child and parent, answering their questions in a simple way so that the child can understand.  

Lastly, while speaking to the child, the radiologist must bend down, sit or kneel so as to be at the child's eye level. This will help the child look into his eyes and feel assured.

Which of the following statements about biomolecules is true?

a. Nucleic acids (DNA/RNA) are responsible for information storage, transmission, and expression.

b. Proteins are broken down as a primary fuel source.

c. Lipids are responsible for the transport of substances into the cell.

d. Carbohydrates are responsible for the catalysis of chemical reactions.
a. Nucleic acids (DNA/RNA) are responsible for information storage, transmission, and expression.

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

Nucleic acids are one of the four biomolecules. They are polymers made up of monomer building blocks called nucleotides, hence, they are also called polynucleotides. Deoxyribosenucleic acid (DNA) and Ribosenucleic acid (RNA) are the two nucleic acids. They are composed of nucleotide subunits, in which each nucleotide has a structure made up of pentose sugar (Deoxyribose in DNA, and ribose in RNA), phosphate group and nitrogenous bases (Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine and Thymine (DNA /Uracil (RNA).

DNA is the storage molecule of the genetic material in living cells. They contain sections called GENES, that holds the information needed for the optimal functioning of every organism and pass genetic traits to offsprings. These information has to be expressed to produce functional products (proteins). This expression is done by transcribing the DNA into RNA, which is subsequently translated into proteins.

Hence, option A is the true option

Option B belongs to carbohydrates while Option D is for proteins.

A type of neuron that stimulates action by conveying signalsto muscles or glands and initiating a body's response tostimuli is a(n):

a. afferent
b. efferent
c. sensory neuron.
d. interneuron

Answers

   Answer:    C sensory neuron

Explanation: It helps scene many thing i your body, and stimulates action by conveying signalso

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discuss what
you know about Earth's seasons.​

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

The Earth's seasons are not caused by the differences in the distance from the Sun throughout the year (these differences are extremely small). The seasons are the result of the tilt of the Earth's axis.

The Earth's axis is tilted from perpendicular to the plane of the ecliptic by 23.45°. This tilting is what gives us the four seasons of the year - spring, summer, autumn (fall) and winter. Since the axis is tilted, different parts of the globe are oriented towards the Sun at different times of the year.

Summer is warmer than winter (in each hemisphere) because the Sun's rays hit the Earth at a more direct angle during summer than during winter and also because the days are much longer than the nights during the summer. During the winter, the Sun's rays hit the Earth at an extreme angle, and the days are very short. These effects are due to the tilt of the Earth's axis.

Solstices

The solstices are days when the Sun reaches its farthest northern and southern declinations. The winter solstice occurs on December 21 or 22 and marks the beginning of winter (this is the shortest day of the year). The summer solstice occurs on June 21 and marks the beginning of summer (this is the longest day of the year).

Equinoxes

Equinoxes are days in which day and night are of equal duration. The two yearly equinoxes occur when the Sun crosses the celestial equator.

The vernal equinox occurs in late March (this is the beginning of spring in the Northern Hemisphere and the beginning of fall in the Southern Hemisphere); the autumnal equinox occurs in late September (this is the beginning of fall in the Northern Hemisphere and the beginning of spring in the Southern Hemisphere).

Answer:

Nearly everyone enjoys the change of seasons on Earth – from winter to spring, from summer to fall. ... Instead, Earth has seasons because our planet's axis of rotation is tilted at an angle of 23.5 degrees relative to our orbital plane – the plane of Earth's orbit around the sun

A mutant bacterial cell has a defective aminoacyl synthetase that attaches a lysine to tRNAs with the anticodon AAA instead of the normal phenylalanine. The consequence of this for the cell will be that:_____________a) none of the proteins in the cell will contain phenylalanine.b) proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of phenylalanine at amino acid positions specified by the codon UUU.c) the cell will compensate for the defect by attaching phenylalanine to tRNAs with lysine-specifying anticodons.d) the ribosome will skip a codon every time a UUU is encountered.e) none of the options will occur; the cell will recognize the error and destroy the tRNA.

Answers

Answer:

Proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of phenylalanine at amino acid positions specified by the codon UUU.

Explanation:

Mutation may be defined as the sudden or heritable change in the genetic sequence of the organisms. The mutation can change the phenotype and genotype of the organisms.

The AAA codes for the lysine. The mutation attaches the anticodon AAA instead of normal phenylalanine. The aminonacids AAA will code for the lysine and no phenylalanine is observed in the cell as phenylalanine is coded by UUU and not by AAA.

Thus, the correct answer is option (b).

Suppose a cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, and mitocondria. It could be a cell from:_______.a) bacterium. b) animal cell. c) plant cell. d) virus.

Answers

Answer:

A plant cell and an animal cell

Explanation:

Nearly all eukaryotic cells contain or possess enzymes, DNA, plasma membrane and mitochondria.

Enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membranes, and mitochondria are all components of eukaryotic cells that are necessary for cellular function. Thus option B and C is correct.

What is the eukaryotic cells?

Organisms called eukaryotes have nuclei and membrane-bound organelles in their cells.

The majority of algae, all animals, plants, fungi, and protists are eukaryotic organisms. Eukaryotes are multicellular or unicellular organisms.

Organelles that are bound to membranes are present in eukaryotic cells, including the nucleus, but not in prokaryotic cells.

The presence of mitochondria and chloroplasts, the cell wall, and the makeup of chromosomal DNA are all examples of differences between the cellular structures of prokaryotes and eukaryotes.

Therefore, all given the component of cells is present in Eukaryotic cells.

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Order the steps from arrival of transcription-promoting factors at the eukaryotic DNA gene promoter to synthesis of an mRNA copy of the gene. Include the terms RNA polymerase II, elongation, promoter, TATA box, nucleotides, and transcription factor.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

There are 3 different types of DNA dependent RNA polymerase. RNAP II is the main enzyme synthesizing mRNAs.

1. Signals for initiation of transcription

Promoters: there are certain specific areas on the DNA that act as starting signals for initiation process.

The DNA polymerase attaches to the promoter site on the template DNA strand.

TATA Box: upstream of the transcription start site is 5'-TATAAA-3' it is referred to as the TATA Box. It acts as a signal for the start region.

2. Initiation of Transcription. The DNA helix unwind, and the RNAP binds to the promoter site on the 5' end DNA with the help of sigma factor. RNAP reaches the appropriate site of the gene and add the first nucleotide of the mRNA.

3. Elongation of Transcription: the RNAP moves along the DNA template, new nucleotides are incorporated in the nascent mRNA, one by one, according to the base pairing rule.

4. Termination of transcription: specific signals are recognized by the termination protein (Rho factor). When it attaches to the DNA, rnap can't move further. So the enzyme dissociate from DNA and consequently newly formed RNA is released.

Final answer:

The eukaryotic transcription process begins with the assembly of transcription factors at the gene promoter, including the TATA box, forming a transcription initiation complex, followed by RNA polymerase II binding, initiation, elongation, and termination to create an mRNA copy of the gene.

Explanation:

Steps of Eukaryotic Transcription:

Transcription factors arrive at the eukaryotic DNA gene promoter, which includes the TATA box, and help in the initial binding of the transcription machinery.The transcription initiation complex is formed when the TATA-binding protein (TBP) and other components of TFIID bind to the TATA box.RNA polymerase II binds to the promoter with the help of transcription factors, signaling the start of transcription.Initiation of transcription occurs as RNA polymerase II unwinds the DNA and begins reading the template strand.Elongation occurs as RNA polymerase II adds complementary nucleotides to the growing mRNA strand.The process continues until RNA polymerase II reaches a termination signal, at which point the completed mRNA strand is released.

This sequence ensures that a precise mRNA copy of the gene is synthesized, which can then be processed and translated into a protein.

What are donut-shaped structures in the limbic system that jointly control a variety of functions relating to emotions and self- preservation?

Answers

Answer:

Hippocampus and amygdala.

Explanation:

The hippocampus and the amygdala are part of the limbic system. This is responsible through these structures of emotions, memory and is decisive for the survival (self- preservation) of the human being. The hippocampus participates in the process of consolidation of some types of memory, it receives multiple afferents, through the neurons responsible for receiving sensations to transmit them to the brain, especially of the amygdala, which is considered as the main element or nucleus central involved in the management and control of emotions and feelings. It receives cortical afferences, is located in the depth of the temporal lobe and is connected to the entire brain, which denotes its integrative role in emotional processing.

At what age are infants capable of demonstrating empathy for others, such as comforting and showing concern for others?

Answers

Answer:

At "24 months or 2 years" infants capable of demonstrating empathy for others, such as comforting and showing concern for others

Explanation:

When the baby becomes 2 year old they develop a genuine empathy, and have the ability to understand that what other people feel may be they are not feeling the same. We can also conclude that, the babies not only can understand the pain of the people but also try to pacify in their own way. The trait of the empathy develop in the baby through early development. When they gets their limbs combinedly, hence babies will try to reach them and try to soothe others in distress.

Can you identify the class of organic molecule to which these molecular structures and examples belong? Part A Sort these items into the appropriate bins.

Answers

There are four classes of organic molecules that are essential to all living organisms.

1. Carbohydrates:

Components: monosaccharides. Functions: energy for cell, raw material, energy storage, and plant cell support Ex: glucose, starch, glycogen, cellulose

2. Lipids (dont form polymers): Components: glycerol, fatty acid, components of a fat molecule Functions: energy storage, cell membrane components, and hormones Ex: fats, phospholipids, and steroids

3. Proteins:

Components: amino group, carboxil group, R group, and amino acid Function: enzyme, structural protein, movement, transport, communication, defense, storage, receive signals Ex: lactose, hair, tendons, muscles, hemoglobin, signal proteins, antibodies, egg albumin, receptor protein

4. Nucleic acids:

Components: phosphate group, nitrogeneous base, ribose or deoxyribose, nucleotide Functions: heredity, DNA

Ex: code for proteins, DNA and RNA

Final answer:

The different classes of organic molecules include carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, macromolecules, and nucleotides. They are characterized by their structures, carbon skeletons, and functional groups.

Explanation:

The class of organic molecules depends on their structure and composition. Some examples include carbohydrates, which can be simple sugars (monosaccharides) or complex carbohydrates (polysaccharides). Another important class is lipids, which include fats, oils, and sterols. Proteins are another class, and they are made up of amino acids.

Macromolecules form another class, typically composed of smaller units (monomers) bonded together. Carbon is a crucial element in these organic molecules, forming covalent bonds with other atoms. Lastly, nucleotides form a class, which are components of nucleic acids like DNA and RNA, also vital for life.


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Describe the phenotypes and genotypes of the rabbits.

Answers

Answer:

1. BB x bb

2. 100% black

Explanation:

Heterozygous offspring would have the genotype Bb. In order to produce offpsring that are 100% heterozygous, that means each parent must be homozygous. Therefore, the genotypes of the parents are BB (black rabbit) and bb (white rabbit). See punnet square attached.

The phenotype refers to the expression and display of the genotype. We will assume that because black is denoted by a capital B, and white by a small b, that black is the dominant allele. Therefore, if 100% of the offspring have the genotype Bb, then 100% of the offspring have the phenotype of black fur.

A sample of radioactive material has a half life of 20 years and an activity level of 4 curies. After how many years will the activity level of the sample be at 0.25 curie?

Answers

The answer is 80 years.
After 20 years, it will have an activity level of 2.
After 40 years, it will have an activity level of 1.
After 60 years, it will have an activity level of 0.5.
Then, finally, after 80 years the activity level will be 0.25 curie.
Final answer:

The activity level of a radioactive material decreases by half with each half-life. In this case, with the half-life being 20 years, the activity level would reach 0.25 curies after 80 years, equivalent to four half-lives.

Explanation:

The subject in question involves the concept of half-life, a term commonly used in nuclear physics to denote the time it takes for half of a certain radioactive substance to decay. It's given that the sample has an activity level of 4 curies and a half-life of 20 years. The activity level after some years is to be 0.25 curie.

As a rule, each time a sample goes through one half-life, its activity level gets halved. So, from 4 curies to 2 curies would be one half-life (20 years), from 2 curies to 1 curie would be another half-life (another 20 years), from 1 curie to 0.5 curie would be yet another half-life (another 20 years), and finally from 0.5 curie to 0.25 curie would be a fourth half-life (another 20 years).

Therefore, it would take 4 half-lives—totaling 80 years—for the activity level of the sample to drop from 4 curies to 0.25 curie.

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The nurse is working with a client from the Middle East. The nurse maintains a distance of approximately 13 feet from the client while talking. The client says that the client is uncomfortable when the nurse talks to the client from such a long distance. How should the nurse interpret this statement?1. The client feels that the nurse is not doing the job properly.2. The client feels that the nurse is invading the client's personal zone.3. The client feels that the nurse is indifferent toward the client.4. The client is not maintaining boundaries.

Answers

Answer:

3. The client feels that the nurse is indifferent toward the client

Explanation:

Nurse would interpret as the the client feels that the nurse is indifferent toward the client

Describe the genetic mutations that you think occurred in the cancer cells that were responsible for the phenotypic differences between the normal and cancercells you observed. The normal cells were organized, normal shape, and the cancerous cells were all over the place stacked together, multiple nuclei in one cell for some and a lot of them in on area. I think the genetic mutation that occurred would be with the gene that affects cell division and the tumor suppressor gene.

Answers

ANSWER:

Most types of cancer are believed to begin with a random genetic mutation. This is followed by mutations, which endow the cancer cells with properties allowing them to grow without normal controls to become a tumor.

Mutation is any change in the DNA sequence of a cell. Mutations may be caused by mistakes during cell division, or they may be caused by exposure to DNA-damaging agents in the environment.

Genetic Mutations that lead to cancer cell formation can occur in two forms:

1. GROWTH-PROMOTING GENES are commonly mutated in cancer cells, becoming SUPER-ACTIVE and producing cells that are too strongly stimulated by growth receptors.

2. Mutations can INACTIVATE the genes that suppress cell proliferation or those that signal the need for apoptosis. These genes are known as TUMOR SUPPRESSOR GENES.

Which kind of media contains a dye or other indicator that responds to metabolic reactions during growth to identify a specific organism?

Answers

Answer:

Eosin methylene blue agar (EMB) is a selective and differential medium used to isolate fecal coliforms. Eosin Y and methylene blue are pH indicator dyes which combine to form a dark purple precipitate at low pH; they also serve to inhibit the growth of most Gram positive organisms.

Explanation:

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