When arousal occurs, we tend to pay more attention to the message in order to understand the source of the arousal. Group of answer choices True False

When we consider the orientations of the two strands of DNA that make up a double helix, we see that they are:

A. parallel.

B. antiparallel.

C. mirror images.

Answer:

B. antiparallel.

Explanation:

A single DNA strand has two distinct ends. These are the 3' and 5' ends. At the 3' end, the 3' OH of the pentose sugar is present freely and is not involved in phosphodiester bond. The 5' end of DNA has a free phosphate group. A DNA double helix has two DNA strands. These two DNA strands of a double helix are anti-parallel in nature. This means that the 3' end of one DNA strand is present opposite to the 5' end of another DNA strand.

Answer:

AGCAGCAGCAGC

Explanation:

Messenger RNA (mRNA) is the product of transcription, which is made by synthesizing a complementary strand of the DNA template. The mRNA is a template used to synthesis amino acids during the second process of protein synthesis (translation).

mRNA are read in the ribosomes in a group of three nucleotide sequences called CODON. This codon (triplet nucleotide on mRNA) specifies a particular amino acid. There are 64 possible combinations of codons in the genome for the 20 amino acids. Due to this, the genome/genetic code exhibits a phenomenon called DEGENERACY. Degeneracy is a phenomenon whereby more than one codon specifies a particular amino acid.

The possible CODONS that specify the amino acids given in the question are:

Serine: AGC, AGU, UCA, UCC, UCG, UCU

Glutamine: CAA, CAG

Hence, looking at this codons/nucleotide sequences, we would realize that combining the sequence;

AGCAGCAGCAGC; will produce a serine amino acid sequence, while skipping the first two nucleotides (A and G) and starting from nucleotide C, we will have CAG which codes for Glutamine amino acid repeated three times.

Hence, AGCAGCAGCAGC is the possible mRNA nucleotide sequence that can produce both amino acid sequence.

Final answer:

The question asks for mRNA sequences that could code for glutamine and serine. Glutamine is coded by GAA and GAG, while serine is coded by UCA, UCG, UCU, and UCC. The options given do not match these codons, so the correct mRNA sequence would be any combination of codons for glutamine and serine.

Explanation:

The student's question relates to the genetic code and how sequences of nucleotides in messenger RNA (mRNA) correspond to the amino acid sequences that make up proteins. To answer which mRNA sequences could code for the amino acid sequences of glutamine (Gln) and serine (Ser), we need to refer to the codon table that matches mRNA triplets with amino acids. Glutamine is coded by the mRNA codons GAA and GAG, while serine is coded by the mRNA codons UCA, UCG, UCU, and UCC.

None of the options provided (a. valine and isoleucine, b. asparagine and serine, c. glutamic acid and arginine, d. tryptophan and methionine) match the codons for glutamine or serine. Therefore, the correct mRNA sequence could be any combination of the codons for Gln and Ser, such as CAAGAG for a Glutamine-Glutamine-Glutamine sequence and UCUUCU for a Serine-Serine-Serine sequence.

Additionally, understanding how changes in the mRNA sequence affect amino acid sequences is critical. For example, inserting an arginine codon between certain amino acids would alter the resulting protein structure, potentially affecting its function.

Answer:

The sciatic nerve is not an epithelial structure.

Explanation:

The sciatic nerve can be described as the largest nerve of the body. The sciatic nerve is formed when 5 nerves from the lower spine join. Hence, the sciatic nerve is not an epithelial structure. It is such long that it goes all the way from top of the leg till the foot. The sciatic nerve is involved in supplying sensations to the feet and to the skin.

Answer:

1. protein synthesis - (b) rough ER

2. protein modification and sorting - (c) Golgi apparatus

3. macromolecule digestion - (d) lysosomes

4. lipid synthesis - (a) smooth ER

5. autophagy - (d) lysosomes

6. cisternal maturation - (c) Golgi apparatus

7. calcium ion storage - (a) smooth ER

8. poison detoxification - (a) smooth ER

Explanation:

Rough ER or rough endoplasmic reticulum with the help of ribosomes is responsible for protein synthesis and their subsequent transport to various other parts of the cell that is why both these organelles are also known as protein factory.

Soon after proteins are synthesized with the help of rough ER, they are transported to another network of organelle known as golgi apparatus. In golgi apparatus, the nascent protein is further modified and sorted. Modification and sorting of proteins help in identifying their final destination i.e. whether the protein is meant for mitochondria or plasma membrane or some other organelle. Maturation of cisternae also takes place in golgi apparatus.

Smooth ER or smooth endoplasmic reticulum is responsible for lipid synthesis, storage of calcium ions and poison detoxification. Most of the steroid hormones, triglycerols etc. are synthesized in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Smooth ER also stores calcium ions so that whenever they are required they can be sequestered back into the cytosol. Poison detoxification occurs in the smooth ER of liver because the enzymes present in the liver are capable of converting such hydrophobic substances into hydrophilic substances so that they could be easily secreted out of the body.

Lysosome is the organelle which is responsible for macromolecule digestion and autophagy. Lysosomes have very low pH and a lot of hydrolyzing enzymes which can easily digest macromolecules. Autophagy is a self degradable process in which damaged cells are eaten or destroyed by lysosomes so that their macromolecules could be broken down into their monomers so that they can be reused by our body.

The endomembrane system includes the rough and smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER), Golgi apparatus, and lysosomes each with specific functions such as protein and lipid synthesis, protein modification and sorting, autophagy, and poison detoxification.

The endomembrane system of a cell consists of different parts that perform specific functions. Here is the correct match between each function and its corresponding part:

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Answer:

(B) None of the answers are true...

Explanation:

(A) is wrong because the high levels of epinephrine promote activation of sympathetic nervous system that'll ultimately increase oxygen consumption.

(C) Elevated temperatures of body require immediate cooling that's why breathing rate gets high and ultimately the oxygen consumption.

(D) We all know that a vigorous dose of exercise always increases your bodies oxygen consumption.

The answer to the question is B) None of these answers is true. All listed factors such as high blood levels of hormones, elevated body temperature, and high-intensity exercise contribute to increased excess post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC).

The question asks which factor would NOT increase oxygen consumption during recovery from exercise, otherwise known as excess post-exercise oxygen consumption (EPOC). While high blood levels of hormones like epinephrine, elevated body temperature, and high-intensity exercise all contribute to increased EPOC, none of the factors listed in the options would decrease EPOC. Hormones such as epinephrine and increased body temperature can shift the oxygen-hemoglobin saturation/disassociation curve, facilitating greater oxygen delivery and utilization. Higher intensity exercise also results in increased EPOC due to the higher demands placed on the body for energy production and recovery. Therefore, the answer is B) None of these answers is true, as all other options would increase EPOC.

The adaptation of the sled dog best describes adaptation at the Population level while the dog exposed to seasonal colder temperatures has physiological modifications at the individual level.

Explanation:

Adaptations are the special characteristic of animals and plants necessary for their survival in a particular climate. Sledge dogs are not pet and also does not come under wild animals category. These animals change their characteristics physically to survive in a particular weather.

Sledge dogs changes their fur, blood circulation, tongue, feet  and tail to survive in winter.

The fur in the sledge dog has two coats. This helps them to adapt to extreme cold conditions. The fur in the outermost layer helps in expelling water. This will provide dryness to the dog. The fur that is the the next layer acts as an insulator and prevents the dog skin to lose heat. Thus, this adaptation describes the adaptation at population level and physical changes that its makes in its individual body to survive in cold temperatures.

Answer:

B) the bloodstream

Explanation:

In multicellular organisms, the cells of the organisms are interconnected and communicate with each other through the secreted chemicals. When the communication takes place between distant cells then the body releases the chemicals called hormones.

The hormones reach distant sites through the bloodstream and act on the target site. This signaling communication is known as the endocrine signaling in which the endocrine glands secrete the chemicals into the bloodstream.

Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.

Endocrine messages are slower than nervous system messages as hormones travel through the bloodstream, whereas neural messages use rapid electrical and chemical signals.

The nervous system transmits messages rapidly through electrical signals and chemical neurotransmitters, with the fastest nerve impulses reaching speeds over 100 meters per second. In contrast, endocrine messages are delivered more slowly because hormones travel through the bloodstream. Unlike the immediate action of neurotransmitters which act locally and quickly, hormones are secreted into the blood by endocrine glands and are broadcast to all cells in the body, acting over a longer distance and time frame to induce cellular response.

Answer:

I will call the doctor if my stools turn black

Explanation

Iron supplements are given to patients who have iron deficiency related diseases such as anemia. There are a number of iron preparations that can be given to patients to manage these conditions. These supplements causes the stool to turn black or even green

For example the said client was given oral iron preparations for moderate iron deficiency anemia. When he says he will call a doctor if his stool turns black indicates he will need additional instructions.  

Answer:

Whatever the cellular process may be, it is almost sure to involve proteins. Just as the cell’s genome describes its full complement of DNA, a cell’s proteome is its full complement of proteins.

Explanation:

Answer: deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)

Explanation:

DNA is the main hereditary material that distinguishes living from non-living things.

It is so because its replication i.e DNA replication can ONLY occur in the cell of a living organism. That is why even virus replicate it's DNA only in a living host not else where.

So, DNA is the answer

Answer: Gram staining is arranged in the following order;

1) Crystal violet

2) iodine

3) Alcohol-acetone

4) safranin

Explanation:

Applying primary stain to a heat fixed smear of a bacterial culture

Then you add iodine which binds the crystal violet and traps it in the cell. After you decolourise with ethanol finally counter shade with safranin

The correct order for the Gram stain process is: crystal violet, iodine, alcohol-acetone, and safranin. This method is crucial for classifying bacteria into Gram-positive and Gram-negative groups.

The Gram Stain is a differential staining technique used to classify bacteria into two major groups: Gram-positive and Gram-negative. The correct order of the steps in this process is:

This sequence is vital. First, the bacterial smear is stained with crystal violet, then it's treated with iodine, a mordant that forms an insoluble complex with crystal violet, which can subsequently be removed with alcohol or acetone. Finally, safranin, a counterstain, is applied that stains Gram-negative bacteria.

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Answer:

Option C, Psychosexual Development

Explanation:

Freud has proposed five stages in his theory and each stage is associated with a satisfaction drive or instinct i.e associated with different parts of body. In his theory, a child between the ages of 0 to 1 year, sense everything by putting it in his/her mouth. This gives satisfaction to the child. When he/she grows and his/her age lies within the age bracket of 1 to 3 years, a child develops an ego against things opposing his/her instinct which is in general resolved through potty training. Between the age of 3 to 6 years, child develops feelings of jealousy, attraction, rivalry and fear. In the latency stage i.e from 6 years to up till puberty, a child focuses on developing new skill sets; play with children of same gender etc.  

And in the last stage i.e from puberty to adult hood, a child experience adolescent attractions such as attraction towards opposite sex, love, relationship etc.

Hence, option C is correct

Answer:

Psychosexual development.

Explanation:

Freud was the famous psychologists and proposed different theories to explain the psychology of the humans. Freud also gave the psychoanalytic and psychosexual theory in psychology.

The psychosexual development includes the different stages of the sexual development that promotes libido in humans. The individual can show differences in the feeling, behavior, attitude and the psychical changes are also observed during the psychosexual development.  

Thus, the answer is option (c).

Answer:

Alternative splicing.

Explanation:

The eukaryotes translation process requires two more step known as polyadenylation and capping. The transcription and translation occurs in the separate compartment.

The eukaryotes genome consists of both the exons as well as introns. The introns need to be excise out and exons join together in the process known as alternative splicing. This alternative splicing is responsible for the formation of the different protein.

Thus, the answer is alternative splicing.

Answer:

Normally He would be asymptomatic but in cases of stressful conditions such as infection or heavy exercise it may causes symptoms as hemoglobin capacity of Red Blood cells is less compare to normal person.

Explanation:

Answer:

 C) 128

Explanation:

In binary fission each bacterial cell will divide into two parts.

1. Since the bacteria divides divides after every 20 min , We have to find the number of division in two hours two hour(2x60=120 min) which will be;

120÷20=6

It will undergo 6 divisions.

2. To calculate the number of bacteria at the end of 2 hours

Bacteria in the beginning x 2∧ Number of division

1× 2∧6= 128 Bacteria  

The size of a population of bacteria that reproduce by binary fission every 20 minutes starting from a single individual and lasting for 2 hours would be 64.

There are 120 minutes in a 2 hour period.

Starting at 0 minutes with 1 individual

After 20 minutes, there will be 2 individuals

After 40 minutes, there will be 4 individuals

after 60 minutes, 8 individuals

After 80 minutes, 16 individuals

After 100 minutes, 32 individuals

After 120 minutes. 64 individuals

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Answer:

Answer is Cabbage.

Explanation:

It should be noted that the turning on and off of the genes is known as the gene regulation. And this process is considered to be very important because it helps the cell to react quickly or promptly to the changes in the environment.

Oxidative stress usually occurs when there is imbalance the free radicals production  and the ability of the body to fight against their damaging effects or possibly repair their damaging effects. While inflammation is considered to be the reddening or swollen occurring in some parts of the body.

In this aspect, cabbage , as an example of vegetable help to turn-off the genes, i.e prevent the genes that can cause the oxidative stress or inflammation from performing their damaging activities.

Answer: Option E

Explanation:

The bodies of water on earth is responsible controlling the climate.This is because water has different qualities.

The water has hydrogen bonding in it which provides high specific heat which  retains heat in the water which is useful for the aquatic animals.

The water has high rate of vaporization due to which different components can be easily separated from the water.

It is cohesive in nature which allows the water to remain in such state for a longer period of time. The water is always cooler than the surrounding environment so as to maintain the temperature around water.

Answer:

The correct answer is option d) "conditioned".

Explanation:

A conditioned reinforcer is an external stimulus that helps an animal to perform certain activity or develop certain behavior. Conditioned reinforcement requires a learning process, which most likely was necessary in order to make the rat to turn on the light looking for food. Therefore, in this case the light is a conditioned reinforcer.

Final answer:

The light in a Skinner box experiment that reliably signals the onset of food becomes a conditioned reinforcer. This is because it gains the power to reinforce behavior through its association with a primary reinforcer, like food, established through the process of classical conditioning.

Explanation:

If the onset of a light reliably signals the onset of food, a rat in a Skinner box will work to turn on the light. In this case, the light is a conditioned reinforcer.

A conditioned reinforcer, also known as a secondary reinforcer, is a previously neutral event that has become associated with a primary reinforcer through classical conditioning. Primary reinforcers are stimuli that are naturally preferred or enjoyed by the organism, like food, water, and relief from pain. Through the conditioning process, the formerly neutral stimulus (in this case, the light) becomes a signal for the primary reinforcer (food) and gains the ability to reinforce behavior because of its association with the primary reinforcer.

In operant conditioning experiments, like those with a rat in a Skinner box, a light might be turned on every time food is delivered as a consequence of the rat pressing a lever. Eventually, the rat learns to associate the light with the delivery of food. Even without the immediate presence of food, the light being turned on becomes enough to increase the likelihood of the lever-press behavior, making it a conditioned reinforcer.

Answer:

Answer is A. True.

Explanation:

Compartment syndrome is the condition which develop or occur through the increased pressure in the compartments or body space , most especially the legs and arms. This occur through some certain injuries like fracture, which causes bleeding in the muscle.

The only and best treatment for compartment syndrome is surgery.

In the case of Ms Hughes, she is believed to have developed a condition known as compartment syndrome,  because patient with compartment syndrome,  seem to continue to have increased pain despite the administration of morphine.And they keep complaining of unrelenting pain.

Answer:

Hydrophobic interaction.

Explanation:

On the basis of the polarity and the dissolution of water, the molecules can be classified into the hydrophilic and hydrophobic molecules. The hydrophobic molecules can easily dissolve in the non polar solvents.

The hydrophobic interaction is important that exist between the non polar molecules. The hydrophobic interaction plays an important role in the biological system as the lipids of the cell membrane are assisted together with the hydrophobic interaction. The hydrocarbon tail is non polar molecules that contains hydrophobic interaction within it.

Thus, the correct answer is hydrophobic interaction.

Answer: The testing effect  

Explanation:

The testing effect can be generally used to find out that long-term memory is generally increased when a bit of the (adapting)learning period is spend towards retrieving what is to be retained in the brain.

This effect is often referred as practice testing or retrieval practice. This is required to test what is retained in the brain which was studied over a long time back.

This effect is known as the testing effect.

Final answer:

The concept that describes the improvement in long-term retention due to actively recalling studied information is known as C) the testing effect, which is part of effective learning strategies and metacognition.

Explanation:

The phenomenon where testing your ability to recall information you have just studied improves your long-term retention of that information is referred to as the testing effect. This concept is grounded in the idea that retrieval is one of the most powerful enhancements to learning, as highlighted in the work of Roediger and Butler (2013). It is more beneficial than simply reviewing the material because it involves the active act of getting information out of long-term memory storage and back into conscious awareness. This self-testing not only helps you to understand if you truly know the material but also makes learning more durable over time. In contrast to becoming overconfident from merely reviewing notes, the testing effect provides a more accurate assessment of one's knowledge, tapping into metacognition.

Answer:

The arrangement of those molecules would be contrary of the living earth cells membranes, heads on the inside and tails on the outside.

Explanation:

The alien version of phospholipid molecules would favor the membranes to be arranged in a way that the head of the molecules would be faced each other, and the tail of the molecules would be faced to the aqueous surroundings. This is explained by the fact that phospholid molecules have a hydrophilic content that present  charged groups or uncharged polar groups that can form either favorable electrostatic interactions or hydrogen bonds with water molecules. And in the case of the alien phospholipid is the tail that will be the hydrophilic content, instead of the ''earth phospholid''.

Answer:

Pruned

Explanation:

Answer:

Option D, tightly linked

Explanation:

The population of both rabbit and Lynx is tightly linked which means that if the population of rabbit is affected negatively, the population of Lynx will also get affected negatively.  

In general, Lynx gets its nutrition from rabbit by feeding on them when they are in sufficient number. When the rabbits become scarce, Lynx starts feeding on alternative food sources such as mice, carrion etc. but these food type cannot  provide sufficient nourishment to the  Lynx and hence the population of Lynx also reduces as some of them die because of starvation while the remaining move to different areas in search of food.  

Hence, option D  is correct

The growth curves for lynx and rabbits that fluctuate together represent predator-prey dynamics, with lynx being the predator and rabbits the prey. This tightly linked cycle of population growth and decline represents a classic example of predator-prey interaction, best exemplified by the historical cycling patterns of lynx and snowshoe hares in Northern Ontario.

The relationship wherein lynx feed on rabbits, and their growth curves fluctuate together, exemplifies predator-prey dynamics. These fluctuations are tightly linked cycles where the prey population (rabbits) increases leading to a subsequent increase in the predator population (lynx). This is followed by a decline in the prey population due to increased predation, which in turn causes a decline in the predator population due to food scarcity. Hence, the correct answer is not the S-shaped or J-shaped growth curve, nor irregular fluctuations, but rather a tightly linked cycle of respective population sizes of prey and predators.

These cycles are typically observed in wildlife population studies, such as the historical pattern of cycling between lynx and snowshoe hares in Northern Ontario, which has been documented through nearly 200 years of trapping data. The approximately 10-year cycle, with the lynx population lagging 1-2 years behind the hare population, demonstrates how interconnected and dependent these populations are on each other's numbers for their survival and growth rates.

Answer: An archaeon

Explanation: Archaeon is a member of the prokaryotes (organisms with false nucleus). They have unusual shape. They share close resemblance in cell structure with bacteria. Their cytoplasm are spaced with organelles in spatial arrangements.

Answer:

A)True

Explanation:

Nutrient Agar is a nutrient medium used for the growth of microbes supporting growth of a vast number of organisms. Nutrient agar is popular because it can grow a variety of types of bacteria and fungi, and contains many nutrients needed for the bacterial growth.Nutrient agar provides these resources for many types of microbes, from fungi like yeast and mold to common bacteria such as Streptococcus and Staphylococcus. The microbes that can be grown on complex media such as nutrient agar can be described as nonfastidious organisms.

Agar is falsely believed to be a nutrient for bacteria; it's actually a solidification agent used in growth media to provide a physical matrix for bacterial cultures, not a nutritional one.

The statement that agar is an excellent nutrient for bacteria is false. Agar is a polysaccharide derived from red algae, used commonly in microbiology laboratories for culturing bacteria and other microorganisms; however, it is not a nutrient source for them. Instead, agar serves as a solidification agent in growth media, providing a stable matrix to embed the nutrients that bacteria require for growth but itself does not contribute nutritionally. The primary role of agar in these media is to form a gelatinous solid matrix upon cooling, which bacteria cannot digest, making it ideal for observing the growth and behavior of microorganisms on a solid surface. Agar is mixed with various nutrients and then poured into petri dishes, test tubes, or other containers to solidify into agar plates, agar slants, and agar deeps, serving different purposes in microbial cultivation.

The woman's symptoms and blood test indicating hypoglycemia suggest she may have a tumour like insulinoma, which leads to over-secretion of insulin and reduced levels of blood glucose.

Based on the presented symptoms and the result of the rapid blood test, which showed hypoglycemia (low blood sugar), the patient might be suffering from a condition like an insulinoma. Insulinoma is a type of tumor that causes over-secretion of insulin, as suggested by C. This condition can cause an excessive amount of insulin to be released, causing diminished glucose in the blood. The initial symptoms of hypoglycemia may often include feeling unwell, tiredness, and confusion. The later stages may include tachycardia (increased heart rate), sweating (diaphoresis), and being warm to the touch. A sudden loss of consciousness can also occur. If the patient began to feel better after some time, it might have been because her blood glucose levels started to recover naturally, but vomiting can be another symptom of severe hypoglycemia.

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Answer: egocentric thought

Explanation:

he is only thinking of his self

Final answer:

(Option B) Egocentric thought is demonstrated when a child cannot consider another person's perspective, common in the preoperational stage of development.

Explanation:

The concept demonstrated by Billy is egocentric thought, which is defined as the inability to take the perspective of another person, common in young children during the preoperational stage of cognitive development.

Children displaying egocentric thought tend to think that everyone sees, thinks, and feels just as they do, without considering others' perspectives. An example of egocentric thought can be seen when a child gives a gift that they like assuming the recipient will also like it, without considering the recipient's preferences.

Answer:

plasma membrane receptors

Explanation:

Water-soluble hormones such as amine and peptide hormones cannot cross the hydrophobic core of the plasma membranes of their target cells. Therefore, these hormones have cell surface receptors present on the surface of their target cells. Binding of water-soluble hormones to their respective plasma membrane receptors on the target cells stimulates the generation of a second messenger which in turn brings about the desired changes in the cells.

For example, binding of some water-soluble hormones to their plasma membrane receptors stimulates the formation of cAMP inside the target cells. The cAMP serves as the second messenger and activates the protein kinases which in turn activate cellular proteins involved in the generation of the desired response.

Water-soluble hormones bind to plasma membrane receptors, which sets off a cascade involving the activation of adenylate cyclase and the production of cAMP, leading to cellular responses through protein kinases.

Water-soluble hormones affect target cells by binding to plasma membrane receptors. When a water-soluble hormone binds to its receptor, it activates a G-protein that is associated with the receptor on the cell membrane. This then activates an enzyme called adenylate cyclase, which converts ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP), the second messenger. cAMP activates enzymes called protein kinases, which in turn phosphorylate various cellular proteins, leading to the desired cellular response.

Answer:

The options are missing, they are:

a.The daughter cells of meiosis I would be diploid, but the daughter cells of meiosis II would be haploid.

b.The two sister chromatids of each replicated chromosome would no longer be identical.

c.The four daughter cells produced in meiosis II would all be different.

d.The two daughter cells produced in meiosis I would be identical.

e.There would be less genetic variation among gametes.

f.Independent assortment of chromosomes would not occur.

The correct answer is E, there would be less genetic variation among gametes.

Explanation:

Crossing-over or also called recombination is a phenomenon peculiar to meiosis alone. Meiosis is that kind of division that is employed by sexual-reproducing organisms to produce gamete/sex cells. Crossing-over is a process that may or may not occur, if it does, it occurs in prophase of meiosis I, and it involves exchanging equal chromosomal segments between two non-sister chromatids or homologous chromosomes. Crossing-over is the means by which sexually reproducing organisms use to bring about genetic variation among their species.

It is worthy to note that the non-occurrence of crossing-over does not affect the number of chromosomes as a normal meiotic division will always yield haploid gametes right from meiosis I.

Since crossing-over did not occur, the homologous chromosomes (similar but non-identical chromosomes) will separate into each cell during meiosis I, meaning that each cell will have chromosomes that are either maternal or paternal. This will reduce the chance of genetic variation occuring among species.