What unusual ability do sea cucumbers and polychaete worms have at this depth to help them find food

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Bioluminescence

Explanation:

In the deep oceans, the sea cucumbers and polychaete worms use the bioluminescence for defense against predators and to find or attract prey by glowing so the predator can easily see it's glowing skin.

Answer 2

Final answer:

Sea cucumbers and polychaete worms utilize bioluminescence to navigate, communicate, and find food in the deep-sea's perpetual darkness, using a chemical reaction involving luciferin, luciferase, and ATP.

Explanation:

Sea cucumbers and polychaete worms found in the deep sea have an unusual ability to emit light through a process known as bioluminescence. This remarkable feature is utilized to find food in the perpetual darkness of their environment. For example, the anglerfish, which lives between 1000 and 4000 meters below sea level where no sunlight penetrates, has a rod-like structure with a glow-in-the-dark tip to lure prey. In similar fashion, Deep-sea organisms like sea cucumbers and polychaete worms may use bioluminescence to attract or detect prey, or for other reasons that are still being researched by scientists.

Bioluminescence involves a chemical reaction that includes a light-emitting molecule called luciferin, an enzyme called luciferase, and ATP which provides the energy for the reaction. The ability to create light is especially advantageous in the deep sea, allowing these organisms to navigate, communicate, or deter predators in an environment devoid of natural light sources.


Related Questions

Trisomy 21 or Down syndrome occurs when there is a normal diploid chromosomal complement of 46 chromosomes plus one (extra) chromosome
True/False

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Down syndrome is also called trisomy 21. This means that the affected individual has three copies of chromosome 21. A normal human being carries two copies of chromosome 21. Therefore, a person affected with Down syndrome has a total of 47 chromosomes instead of normal chromosomal number 46.

Down syndrome may be caused when the two copies of homologous chromosomes 21 do not separate from each other during anaphase-I. This would form some of the gametes having two copies of chromosome 21. Fertilization of these gametes with the normal gametes would result in zygotes having trisomy 21.

Imagine that you live in the midlatitudes—say, Virginia—and a cyclone passes by. What is the correct sequence of events?

two successive warm fronts
first a cold front and then a warm front
first a warm front then a cold front
two successive cold fronts
first a warm front, then the eye, then a storm surge

Answers

Answer:

First a warm front then a cold front.

Explanation:

Cyclone may be defined as the amount of the large air and move around the area that has low atmospheric pressure. The cyclone can cause the large disturbances to the living organisms.

The cyclone formation occurs at the low polar vertices. The two main types of front are related to the cyclone. The warm front first form for the air movement. This warm front is later replaced by the formation of the cold front of that cyclone.

Thus, the correct answer is option (3).

Place each of the labels in the box designating which plane or section is being referred to.

Answers

Note: Question is incomplete i have added full question with answers in picture format as attached.

Answer:

Frontal:

1. Which section could not display the sternum and the vertebrae simultaneously

2 . Which section would be necessary to display the length of both femurs simultaneously?

3. Which section would be necessary to see the full length of the roots of the two front teeth simultaneously?

4. Which section divides the body into front and back?

Sagittal:

1. Which section could not produce a view of both kidneys simultaneously?

2. Which section divides the body into right and left?

Transverse:

1. Which section could not display the abdominal and thoracic organs simultaneously?

2. Which section divides the body into top and bottom?

3. Which section allows circumferential comparisons between arms?

Place the labels in the box.

The labels that are provided in the box include the frontal, sagittal, and transverse all relate to the human body parts and have a specific function. These labels are marked as per their according values. They are given in the designated section of the box.

The answer refers to the Frontal (front part of the human brain), Sagittal plan that is dividing the body into vertical and horizontal positions. The transverse is in the longitudinal waveform.

The frontal label includes the section that could not display in the sternum and vertebrae at the same time. The part to display the length of both femurs. The part to  see the full length of the roots of the two front teethSagittal is the section that could not produce a view of both kidneys, divides the body into halves.Transverse is the section that could not display the abdominal, divides the body into top and bottom allows comparisons between the arms.

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how could two plants in different locations have the same dna

Answers

Answer: The two plants must be allopatric species

Explanation:

Allopatric species of plants of the same species would have the same or closely similar DNA. Even if TWO plants of same species are placed in different geographical locations (whether by natural or man-made factors) they would retain the same DNA.

However, after a long period of time of interacting with their respective environment, there would be lack of gene flow between the two plants and they MIGHT become genetically different (with different DNA).

But before then, the two plants living in different locations with the same DNA is best described as Allopatric species

Final answer:

Two plants in different locations can have the same DNA if they are of the same species, if genes have been transplanted, or through the movement of seeds or pollen. The similarity in the DNA structure can be identified using computer technologies.

Explanation:

Two plants in different locations could have the same DNA due to a few reasons. Firstly, they could belong to the same species. This could be determined if the genetic codes of the two plants are identical, meaning they have the same DNA. Scientists can use computer technologies to help identify these relationships. Sometimes two segments of DNA code can randomly share a high percentage of bases in the same locations, leading to the manifestation of same DNA in the plants.

Alternatively, the plants could have the same DNA due to transplantation of genes. If genes transplanted from one plant to another function successfully, this shows that they are similar enough to have the same DNA.

Lastly, movement of seeds or pollen could also lead to plants in different locations having the same DNA. Plant breeders could have carried seeds to different areas, or pollen could have travelled far, causing plants in new locations to have the same DNA as those in the original location.

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If a cell has 40 chromosomes, how many centromeres would it have when it is in metaphase? a. 1 b. 2 c. 20 d. 40 e. 80

Answers

Answer:

Basically this depends on the type of cell division the cell undergoes.

if the cell undergoes reduction division of meiosis(n) the  chromosome number will be reduced to 20 so the centromere will be 20, However if the cell undergoes multiplication division of mitosis,(2n) the centromere will be 40, since the chromosomes number will increases and sister chromatids holding the chromosomes are held at centro mere.

Explanation:

If the cell has 40 chromosomes, the number of centromeres will also be 40 the same number as the chromosome.

The correct option is (D) 40.

Centromere

The centromere is present in the center of the chromosomes.

It helps to attach two arms of chromosomes.

It separates the chromosome into two short arms.

Thus, the correct option is (D) 40. Since in metaphase the chromosomes are aligned in a straight line, there is no change to occur in the number of chromosomes.

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The following F2 phenotypic data was obtained from a Drosophila testcross using an F1 offspring. Assume red eye and brown body are dominant wild-type phenotypes, and white eye and yellow body are mutant phenotypes.White-eye, brown body 670Red-eye, yellow body 650White-eye, yellow body 38Red-eye, brown body 561. What is the genotype of the F1? How do you know this?

Answers

Answer:

The genotype of the F1 was wy+/w+y.

Explanation:

One of the given options has a typo: the red eye-brown body offspring count should be 56 instead of 561.

We have two genes with two alleles each:

Red eyes (w+) is dominant over white eyes (w).

Brown body (y+) is dominant over yellow body (y).

The phenotypes of the F2 tesulting from a test cross (F1 x wy/wy) are:

wy+/ey (white-eye, brown body): 670w+y/wy (red-eye, yellow body): 650wy/wy (white-eye, yellow body): 38w+y+/wy (red-eye, brown body 56

If the genes w and y are linked, two phenotypes in the F2 will be much more abundant than the other two. Recombination during meiosis is a rare event, so the most abundant phenotypes are the parentals (the ones present in the F1 parent).

Every individual in the offpsring has a wy chromosome, as this was the gamete inherited from the test cross individual.

In this case, the most abundant gametes are wy+ and w+y, so the genotype of the F1 was wy+/w+y.

Notice how when recombination occurs in the F1 parent, the recombinant gametes appear: wy and w+y+, which are the less abundant in the F2 progeny.

The F1 female fruit fly's genotype is likely XWXwCc, based on the 1:1:1:1 phenotypic ratio observed in the F2 generation from a test cross, indicating heterozygosity for X-linked eye color and autosomal body color traits.

To determine the genotype of the F1 Drosophila in the given question, we need to analyze the F2 phenotypic data from a test cross. The data shows a 1:1:1:1 ratio of phenotypes (white-eye, brown body: red-eye, yellow body: white-eye, yellow body: red-eye, brown body). This suggests that the F1 female was heterozygous for both traits. Considering that eye color is an X-linked trait, and the body color follows autosomal inheritance, the most likely genotype for the F1 female would be XWXwCc, where XW represents the wild-type allele for red eyes, Xw represents the mutant allele for white eyes, and Cc denotes the heterozygous condition for body color, with C being wild-type (brown body) and c being mutant (yellow body). This genotype would produce the observed F2 phenotypes when crossed with a male that is phenotypically mutant for both traits (XwYcc).

Observe: On the SIMULATION pane, observe the directions of the velocity (green) and acceleration (purple) vectors. A.What do you notice? The vectors magnitude is constant.

Answers

Final answer:

The SIMULATION pane shows the velocity (green) and acceleration (purple) vectors with constant magnitude. This indicates a scenario where the object's speed or direction isn't changing, and thus, its acceleration is zero. Also, the object's acceleration vector would be perpendicular to its path when it's moving in a circular pattern at a uniform speed.

Explanation:

From the SIMULATION pane, observations are made regarding the directions of the velocity (green) and acceleration (purple) vectors. The vectors' magnitude appears to be constant in this simulation. This suggests that there isn't a change in speed or direction of the object being studied; hence, its acceleration is zero.

Looking at the graph, it's evident that the ball moved with a constant velocity, as indicated by the horizontal line. This further confirms the notion that the object is not accelerating since acceleration refers to change in velocity.

Momentum vectors and velocity vectors have constant magnitude and point in the same direction when the object moves at a constant speed. Hence, according to the characteristics of vectors, the direction of acceleration is perpendicular to the object's track when motion occurs in a circular pattern at a constant speed. This uniform circular motion is widely observable in physics.

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Describe the regioselectivity and stereospecificity in the hydrohalogenation of an alkene. Entry field with incorrect answer

a. Markovnikov orientation with both syn- and anti-addition
b. Markovnikov orientation with syn-addition
c. anti-Markovnikov orientation with syn-addition
d. anti-Markovnikov orientation with anti-addition
e. Markovnikov orientation with anti-addition

Answers

Answer:

Markovnikov orientation with both syn- and anti-addition

Explanation:

Addition of hydrogen halides to alkenes (hydrohalogenation) show regioselectivity, they obey Markovnikov rule. This is always obeyed in all alkene reactions with hydrogen halides. The major product is always one in which the halide is attached to the carbon with the least number of hydrogen atoms and the hydrogen attached to the carbon with the greatest number of hydrogen atoms across the double bond. However, the reaction is not steroselective. It does not yield a greater percentage of a particular stereo isomer. The reaction yields a 50-50 mixture of both syn- and anti- addition products.

Answer:

Markovnikov orientation with both syn- and anti-addition

Explanation:

Addition of hydrogen halides to alkenes (hydrohalogenation) show regioselectivity, they obey Markovnikov rulproducts.

Explanation:

When a protein enters the low-pH environment of the stomach, charges on amino acid side chains are changed. These changes break ionic bonds, which changes the structure of the protein. This will change the:

a) Secondary structure of the protein.

b) Amount of buffer in the stomach.

c) Function of the protein.

d) Primary structure of the protein.

Answers

Explanation:

c) Function of the protein.

Large monomer chains form biological macromolecules that perform many essential body functions, including nucleic acids, carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids. These are organic molecules, meaning Carbons bonded to the elements oxygen (O), hydrogen (H), nitrogen (N), and phosphorus (P) are ringed or long-chain.

Proteins are structural support molecules consisting of long amino acid chains joined by peptide (CONH) bonds; these are 20 different units organized into several macromolecules. Amino acids are absorbed through digestion and incorporated into the cells of the body to form muscle organs that signal molecules and provide an alternative source of energy.

Higher order protein structure, or how a protein folds,  is influenced by hydrogen bonding and side chain interactions. pH changes can directly affect and hinder folding, how proteins are shaped and by extension, their function.  

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The Aye-Aye exhibits incomplete dominance for eye color. In a population of Aye-Ayes there are red-eyed individuals exhibiting the dominant phenotype and yellow-eyed individuals exhibiting the recessive phenotype. If there are 66 yellow-eyed individuals in the current population of 459, how many would be expected to exhibit the heterozygous phenotype in the next generation which will consist of 410 total individuals?

Answers

Answer:

196.8

Explanation:

In a population of Aye-Ayes there are red-eyed individuals exhibiting the dominant phenotype  -----i.e RR

yellow-eyed individuals exhibiting the recessive phenotype ----- i.e rr

in the next generation, we will have the following offspring

          R                    R

r          Rr                   Rr

r          Rr                    Rr

All the offspring are heterozygous in nature.

Now, the question goes further by saying, if there are 66 yellow-eyed individuals in the current population of 459, i.e (q² =66)

How many would be expected to exhibit the heterozygous phenotype in the next generation which will consist of 410 total individuals.

In solving Hardy-Weinberg question, we use the following equation below.

p + q = 1

p² + 2pq + q²  = 1

where;

p = the frequency of the dominant allele

q =  the frequency of the recessive allele

p² = the frequency of individuals with homozygous dominant phenotype

2pq  = the frequency of individuals with heterozygous phenotype

q² = frequency of individuals with the homozygous recessive phenotype

Now, If In the next generation, the total population = 410

and q² (yellow-eyed individuals that are recessive in nature) = 66

then; q²= [tex]\frac{individuals with recessive phenotype}{total population}[/tex]

q² =  [tex]\frac{66}{410}[/tex]

q² = 0.16

q = [tex]\sqrt{0.16}[/tex]

q = 0.4

Since q = 0.4, we can easily get p by using the formula above:

p + q = 1

p = 1 - q

p = 1 - 0.4

p = 0.6

∴ Since we've known our p and q , we can easily determine how many would be expected to exhibit the heterozygous phenotype in the next generation.

2pq = 2 ( 0.6 × 0.4)

= 2 ( 0.24)

= 0.48

2pq = [tex]\frac{individuals with heterozygous phenotype}{total population}[/tex]

0.48 = [tex]\frac{x}{410}[/tex]

x = 0.48 × 410

x = 196.8 individuals

Compare the rate of human contributions to nitrogen fixation with the natural rate.

Answers

Answer:

Nitrogen fixation is the modification of nitrogen present in the atmosphere into a combined form (e.g ammonia) via chemical and some biological action (microbes like soil rhizobia).

Human processes, e.g fertilizers production and fossil fuels consumption, have majorly affected to a high amount the level of fixed nitrogen in the Earth's ecosystems. It is believed that the level of nitrogen fixed by human process will be much more than that fixed via microbial processes involving diazotrophs such bacteria as Azotobacter and archaea as effected by enzyme nitrogenases.

The rate amounting from nitrogen fixation is believed to be 140 teragrams (Tg) of nitrogen per year (1 teragram is equivalent to 1 million metric tons). This amount is very small when viewed to the level at which human factors or means of contribution increases nitrogen amount to the environment.

The ability to taste the chemical phenylthiocarbamide is an autosomal dominant phenotype, and the inability to taste it is recessive. If a taster woman with a nontaster father marries a taster man who in a previous marriage had a nontaster daughter, what is the probability that their first child will be:
a. a nontaster girl?
b. a taster girl?
c. a taster boy

Answers

Answer:

a. a nontaster girl= 1/8

b. a taster girl= 3/8

c. a taster boy= 3/8

Explanation:

Let's assume that the allele "T" is responsible for the taster phenotype while the recessive allele "t" gives the nontaster phenotype. The taster woman had a nontaster father (tt). Therefore, she is heterozygous dominant (Tt). The taster man had a nontaster daughter (tt) which means that he also has one "t" allele and his genotype is "Tt".

A cross between Tt and Tt would produce progeny in following ratio=

Tt x Tt= 3/4 taster: 1/4 nontaster

The probability of sons and daughters during each reproduction is=

XX x XY= 1/2 XX and 1/2 XY

Therefore,  

a. probability of having a nontaster girl= 1/4 x 1/2  = 1/8

b. a taster girl= 3/4 x 1/2 = 3/8

c. a taster boy= 3/4 x 1/2 = 3/8  

Final answer:

Using a Punnett square, the probability is estimated at 12.5% for a non-taster girl, 37.5% for a taster girl, and 37.5% for a taster boy from parents both heterozygous for the PTC tasting allele.

Explanation:

The scenario involves a taster woman with a nontaster father, which means she must be heterozygous (Tt) for the tasting allele because she inherited a non-tasting (t) allele from her nontaster father. The taster man must also be heterozygous (Tt), as he has a nontaster daughter, implying that he was able to pass on a recessive non-tasting allele (t).

To find the probability of their children having certain traits, we need to set up a Punnett square:

Parental genotypes: Woman (Tt) x Man (Tt) Offspring genotypes possible: TT, Tt, tT, tt

Since gender is determined independently of the PTC tasting allele, and each child has an equal chance of being a boy or a girl, we will first calculate the probabilities for tasting/non-tasting and then halve them for the probability of each gender.

a. Probability of a nontaster girl: 25% for nontaster (tt) x 50% for being a girl = 12.5%

b. Probability of a taster girl: 75% taster (TT or Tt) x 50% for being a girl = 37.5%

c. Probability of a taster boy: 75% taster (TT or Tt) x 50% for being a boy = 37.5%

Describe the actual and relative sizes of a virus, a bacterium, and a plant or animal cell.

Answers

Final answer:

In general, viruses are the smallest, ranging from 20 to 250 nanometers. Bacteria are larger than viruses, typically measuring up to a couple of micrometers. Eukaryotic cells, such as plant and animal cells, are the largest, ranging from 10 to 100 micrometers.

Explanation:

The sizes of a virus, a bacterium, and a plant or animal cell differ greatly. Viruses are typically the smallest of the three, ranging from approximately 20 to 250 nanometers in diameter, although some can be as large as 900 nanometers. However, these measurements can indeed vary, as some viruses discovered recently have sizes approaching that of a bacterium.

Bacteria, generally larger than viruses, can extend up to a couple of micrometers in size. Like viruses, bacterial sizes can also vary, but they are typically larger than most viruses.

Plant or animal cells, or eukaryotic cells, are generally much larger than both viruses and bacteria. These eukaryotic cells can range from 10 to 100 micrometers in size, which is substantially larger compared to both viruses and bacteria.

These measurements are generally unseen to the eye and therefore, require tools like an electron microscope for precise observations and comparisons.

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The failure of which organelle during development can result in a child being born with webbed toes?a. lysosomes b. peroxisomes c. vacuoles d. rough ER e. Golgi apparati

Answers

Answer:

A lysosomes

Explanation:

Who though that aging was attributable to a loss of irritability in nervous and muscular tissue?

Answers

Answer:

The answer is Erasmus Darwin

Explanation:

In the 19th century, Erasmus Darwin, Charles Darwin's grandfather proposed the theory that loss of irritability in the nervous system and a decreased response to sensation or stimuli was associated with ageing.

This is one of the first theories of biological ageing; the others being Hippocrates' and Eli Metchnikoff's.

Hippocrates attributed ageing to the loss of body heat whereas, Eli Metchnikoff associated it with autointoxication. A state caused by the poisoning or intoxication of the body by toxins produced by the body itself.

Explain why NADH synthesized in the cytosol of liver cells and used for mitochondrial energy conversion generates 2.5 ATP per NADH, whereas NADH synthesize in muscle cell cytosol only generates 1.5 ATP per NADH

Answers

Answer: FAD is being reduced rather than NAD+

Explanation: This occurs in the G-3-P shuttle system wherein oxidation of transported NADH by respiration generates 1 ATP lesser in myocytes (1.5) than the 2.5 ATP generated as is the case with hepatocytes. This reduction in ATP is as a result of FAD (which enables electrons from cytosolic NADH to be moved against an NADH concentration gradient) rather than NAD+ being the electron acceptor G-3-P dehydrogenase of the mitochondria. The resultant effect of this transport is one molecule of ATP generated for every two electrons reduced.

Processes such as changes in orbital geometry or volcanic eruptions have clearly affected climate in the past, and these explain the dramatic warming of the last 200 years.

True or false

Answers

Answer:

TRUE

Explanation:

There has been a constant increase in the earth's global surface temperature. This global rise in temperature is due to the increasing number of volcanic eruptions on earth's surface, changes in the orbital geometry as well as due to the introduction of the industrial revolution, that has been taking place on earth for the last 200 years.

The eruption of volcanoes leads to the release of a large number of pyroclastic materials and greenhouse gases and volcanic gases such as CO₂, SO₂, H₂O, H₂S and many other gases, which is harmful to the atmosphere. This leads to an increasing amount of temperature, resulting in the melting of the glaciers in the polar region.

Over this long time, plate motions have rapidly taken place, due to which the volcanoes were formed and erupted near the convergent and the divergent plate boundaries.

Thus, the above-given statement is true.

Yes, orbital geometry or volcanic eruptions have greatly affected climate in the past which leads to dramatic warming of the last 200 years.

The more eruptions from volcanos and industrial revolution increases the concentration of carbondioxide gas in the atmosphere which is a greenhouse gas responsible for blocking the reflected radiations of the sun leads to warming of the surrounding.

This phenomenon is known as global warming. This global warming greatly change the atmosphere of the earth so we can conclude that volcanic eruptions and industrial revolution greatly affected the climate of the earth.

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In the presence of cocaine, the maximal rate of transport (Vmax) is unaffected, but the apparent affinity of the transporter for dopamine is reduced
True/False

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Neurotransmission is modulated by the dopamine transporter. Dopamine transporter leads to activation of protein kinase which in turn reduces the uptake of dopamine. Due to this, the Vmax reduces and the affinity of transporter remains unchanged.  

However, in the presence of cocaine activity of dopamine transporter is inhibited as cocaine and dopamine-binding sites are more or less similar to each other. Dopamine stops blocks the dopamine transporter and reduces the uptake of dopamine. This leads to constant Vmax but reduced affinity of transporter

Hence, the given statement is true

Organic amendments will improve soil aeration and drainage and promote robust populations of root damaging soil bacteria and fungi.
O True O False

Answers

Answer16: False

Comments: The organic amendments (manure, bio-solid, wood ash, compost grass clipping etc.) improve the physical, chemical and biological properties of the soil. It also supplies the essential nutrients needed for plant growth. It can also support the beneficial bacterial growth in the soil but not enhance the growth of harmful microorganisms (bacteria and fungi) in the soil.

Organic amendments will improve soil aeration and drainage and promote robust populations of root damaging soil bacteria and fungi - False

Organic amendments

The organic amendments manure, bio-solid, wood ash, compost grass clipping improve the physical, chemical, and biological properties of the soil.

It also supplies the essential nutrients needed for plant growth. It can also support beneficial bacterial growth in the soil but not enhance the growth of harmful microorganisms (bacteria and fungi) in the soil.

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Kanisha and Jamal receive their grades on thier physics midterms. Kanisha got an A, but Jamal got a D. "You must have the physics gene," Jamal said. "I don't. I might as well not bother studying." Jamal's attitude illustrates the idea of

A. Genetic discrimination
B. Genetic determinism
C. Genetic handicap
D. Genetic engineering

Answers

Answer: Jamal's attitude illustrates the idea of Genetic determinism.

Explanation:

Genetic determinism which is also called Biological determinism is the belief that human behaviour is controlled by an individual's genes or some component of their physiology, generally at the expense of the role of the environment, whether in embryonic development or in learning. It refers to the idea all human behaviour is innate, determined by genes, brain size, or other biological attributes.

Thus, Jamal saying, "I don't. I might as well not bother studying" illustrates the idea of Genetic determinism.

Write a one sentence explanation for the following statement:

The presence in liver of glucose-6-phosphatase is essential to the function of the liver in synthesizing glucose for use by other tissues.
a. Glucose-6-phosphate must be hydrolyzed in order for glucose to exit the liver cell and be exported to other tissues.
b. Glucose-6-phosphate must be fully ucleaved in order for glucose to exit the liver cell and be exported to other tissues.
c. Glucose-6-phosphate must lower the energy barier of desorption in order for glucose to exit the liver cell and be exported to other tissues.
d. Glucose-6-phosphate must be activated in order for glucose to exit the liver cell and be exported to other tissues.

Answers

Answer:

a. Glucose-6-phosphate must be hydrolyzed in order for glucose to exit the liver cell and be exported to other tissues

Explanation:

Liver cells contain a membrane bound enzyme called glucose-6-phosphatase for glycogenolysis by glucagon especially during starvation when free glucose is required. As glucagon enters the liver cells it activates the enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase which then acts on glucose-6-phosphate and hydrolyzes it. As glucose-6-phosphate is hydrolyzed, it results in the formation of a phosphate group and a free glucose. The free glucose thus formed is transported from the liver cell to other tissues by specific glucose transport membrane protiens.

At the organismic level, which of the following would be at the top of the hierarchy? (5 POINTS)

Organelle

Cell

Organ

Tissue

Answers

Answer:

Cell

Explanation:

The level of an organism organisation is from: cells, which come together to form a tissue. Many tissues make up an organs. Various organs functioning makes up an organ system and the system all work hand in hand to make up the organism.

The cell is the smallest and basic unit of life and it is the start of all life forms.

B. Cell

What is Cell?In biology, the smallest unit that can live on its own and that makes up all living organisms and the tissues of the body.A cell has three main parts: the cell membrane, the nucleus, and the cytoplasm.A cell is surrounded by a membrane, which has receptors on the surface.

Biological hierarchy refers to the systemic organization of organisms into levels, such as the Linnaean taxonomy.

Levels of Hierarchy:

Atom, molecule, macromolecule, cell, organelle,  tissue, organ, organ system, organisms, population, community, ecosystem, biome and finally biosphere.

Thus, the correct option is B.

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What is the smallest unit of matter

Answers

Answer: Atom

Explanation: The atom is the smallest unit and most basic unit of matter. The atom is made up three subatomic particles and they are called the protons, neutrons, and electrons. The protons and neutrons are stored in the core of the atom and the electrons are located in the energy levels.

Final answer:

The smallest unit of matter is an atom. Atoms are the smallest quantity of an element that retains the unique properties of that element. They are made up of subatomic particles such as protons, electrons, and neutrons.

Explanation:

The smallest unit of matter is an atom. Atoms are the smallest quantity of an element that retains the unique properties of that element. They are made up of subatomic particles such as protons, electrons, and neutrons. For example, a molecule of water consists of two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom bonded together.

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An experiment was performed to study the progress of cells through the mitotic cell cycle. The compounds listed were used one at a time to study their effects on the cell cycle: cytochalasin: an inhibitor of actin microfilament assembly colchicine: an inhibitor of microtubule formation aphidicolin: an inhibitor of DNA polymerase activity emetine: an inhibitor of ribosome activity (blocks protein synthesis) Which of these compounds would be most likely to arrest cells in S Phase?
a. emetine: an inhibitor of ribosome activity (and therefore protein synthesis)
b. cytochalasin: an inhibitor of actin microfilament assembly
c. aphidicolin: an inhibitor of DNA polymerase activity
d. colchicine: an inhibitor of microtubule formation

Answers

D is the right answer!!!

The colchicine: an inhibitor of microtubule formation, will be most likely to arrest cells in S Phase. The correct option is D.

What is inhibitor?

A substance that slows or stops a chemical process is known as a reaction inhibitor. In contrast, a catalyst is something that quickens a chemical reaction.

Enzyme inhibitors are substances that alter the enzyme's catalytic capabilities.

As a result, they reduce the enzyme's ability to catalyse reactions or, in extreme cases, completely stop them. These inhibitors function by obstructing or changing the active site.

As part of an investigation to look at how cells go through the mitotic cell cycle.

Colchicine, a drug that prevents the synthesis of microtubules, is most likely to cause cell arrest in the S Phase.

Thus, the correct option is D.

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discuss the biological underpinnings of motivation including needs drives and homeostasis.

Answers

Answer:

The process by which activities are initiated, coordinated and progress  to meet the physical or psychological needs of an individual  is known as  Motivation

Needs  the request for essential materials or resources which are  paramount for organisms survival and existence. examples of theses Materials are -water, air.

Drives:The possession of  basic needs by an organism, causes physiological and physical arousal that prompts the organism to behave in a such a way  to achieved these  basic needs thus  defusing  the tension.

The maintenance of relatively  constant internal environments of an organism is called Homeostasis. It is a natural compensatory mechanisms of  multi-cellular organisms which maintains fluctuations in  physiological mechanisms of the body.  

Explanation:

Final answer:

The biological aspects of motivation deal with how internal processes such as needs and drives, based on the body's quest for homeostasis, can steer behavior. Drive theory explains that physiological imbalances create needs that become psychological drives, prompting actions aimed at restoring balance.

Explanation:

Biological Underpinnings of Motivation

The discussion of the biological underpinnings of motivation includes needs, drives, and homeostasis. The drive theory suggests that when an imbalance such as a drop in blood sugar occurs, it leads to a physiological need which in turn creates a psychological drive, like hunger, that motivates behavior aimed at reducing the need and restoring balance. Additionally, the concept of homeostasis plays a central role in motivation, as it refers to the body's automatic process to maintain a stable internal environment. Once a physiological need is satisfied, habits formed during this process can influence future behavior when faced with similar physiological needs.

Examples of Drive Theory

For instance, the need for food results from a drop in blood sugar levels, creating a hunger drive that motivates individuals to seek out and eat food. Similarly, the need for water arises from dehydration, prompting the drive to drink. After the consumption of food or water, homeostasis is achieved as blood sugar levels and hydration return to their optimal states.

How many carbon and hydrogen atoms would be contained within this molecule?​

Answers

Answer:

The answer to your question is This structure has 11 carbons and 24 hydrogens.

Explanation:

Each edge of this skeletal figure means one carbon.

See the picture below, there we notice that there are 11 carbons.

Number of hydrogens

Carbon 1  = 3                     Carbon 7 = 2

Carbon 2 = 2                     Carbon 8 = 3

Carbon 3 = 1                      Carbon 9 = 2

Carbon 4 = 3                     Carbon 10 = 2

Carbon 5 = 2                     Carbon 11 = 3

Carbon 6 = 1

Total number of hydrogens = 24

Answer:

The above molecule contains eleven (11) carbon atoms and twenty-four (24) hydrogen atoms.

Explanation:

It can be called an undecane.

Some archaea are polyploid. Which of the following statements are TRUE regarding archaeal polyploidy? Check All That Apply

a. Archaea must undergo meiosis prior to cell division.

b. Each chromosome in a polyploid organism has an identical copy of the organism's genetic information

c. Each chromosome in a polyploid organism has distinct genetic information.

d. A mutation that occurs in one chromosome may be phenotypically "rescued by wild type alleles on other chromosomes.

Answers

Answer:

Option-(C,A):Archaea must undergo meiosis prior to cell division, and Each chromosome in a polyploid organism has distinct genetic information.

Explanation:

Archaea are polyploid:

Archea are prehistoric organisms who can be also termed as the prokaryotic living cells, as they developed from a less developed form to a more complex shape or system. As the feature of being a polyploid makes it easy for any archea to survive in the most severe conditions. As the polyploids contain a number of genetic materials in pair, as each pair is very distinctive in features or more independent in regulating a function then the other. Giving it a more diversity of genetic sequence its genome.

Along, with that the process of meiosis occurs prior to the process or event of cell division. Which is for production of the copies of the parent cell, which posses the same genetic material as that of the parent cells.

Valerie Homework. Unanswered Valerie is a studious 15 year old who is also a valuable member of her school's field hockey team. They are 15-1 this year and have a chance at winning the state championship. However, Valerie recently began feeling ill with noticeable signs of a high fever. After several days, her parents decided to take her to the ER and the attending physician admitted her to the hospital with an ongoing bacterial infection. After several more days, doctors are perplexed that her body is unable to fight off the infection. They decide to take a blood sample and have it sent to the lab for analysis. Lab results indicate that the vacuoles in her white blood cells are successfully trapping the bacteria. However, the bacteria are not being digested by the cell. Which organelle is likely disrupted?

А. Peroxisome
B. Mitochondria
C. Lysosome.
D. Smooth ER
E. Rough ER
F. Golgi Apparatus

Answers

Answer:

C) Lysosome.

Explanation:

Lysosomes are the membrane-enclosed small vesicles formed from the Golgi apparatus. The lysosomes contain enzymes like RNAase, DNAase, protease and other enzymes which can digest the biomolecules and maintains the pH at 5.0.

The acidic environment and the digestive enzymes help lysosomes digest the foreign material and the cellular debris.

In the given question, since the cell is not able to digest the bacteria and its components therefore the affected organ is the lysosomes.

Thus, Option-C is the correct answer.

"The presence of hallucinations, auditory or visual, or delusions, irrational belief, persecutions, flat affect, no motivation, no speech or minimal, or speaks as word salad."

Answers

Answer:Paranoid Schizophrenia

Explanation:

Paranoid Schizophrenia "Absence of alcohol consumption produces physical symptoms ranging from hallucinations, delusions, irrational belief, persecutions, flat affect, no motivation, minimal or no speech.

Lysosomes are membranous organelles that contain digestive enzymes. Lysosomes can function inside the cell, where their enzymes digest particles taken in by endocytosis or worn‑out cell components. Lysosomes can also release their enzymes outside the cell, where the enzymes break down extracellular material. I‑cell disease is a lysosomal storage disease that results in the buildup of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins as inclusion bodies within the cell. Which is the probable cause?

Answers

Answer:

I cell disease is caused by a mutation in GNPTA gene that leads to deficiency in the enzyme UDP-N-acetylglucoseamine-1-phosphotransferase.

Explanation:

I cell disease (mucolipidosis) is a rare inherited lysosomal storage disease that results in the buildup of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins as inclusion bodies within the cell GlcNAc-1-phosphotransferase catalyzes the N-linked glycosylation of asparagine residues with a molecule called mannose-6-phosphate (M6P). M6P acts as an indicator of whether a hydrolase should be transported to the lysosome or not. Once a hydrolase indicates an M6P, it can be transported to a lysosome. Mutation in this gene causes this disease.

Final answer:

I-cell disease is caused by a defect in lysosomal enzyme transport that prevents these enzymes from reaching lysosomes. As a result, undesirable substances build up within the cells instead of being broken down and disposed of, leading to the manifestation of I-cell disease symptoms.

Explanation:

I-cell disease is caused by a defect in the process of lysosomal enzyme production or transport, preventing these enzymes from reaching the lysosome. These enzymes are key in breaking down carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. If they cannot reach the intended location within the lysosome, these substances build up as inclusion bodies within the cell.

Normally, lysosomes function much like a 'garbage disposal' within the cell. They take in damaged and unneeded cellular components, and with the help of their enzymes, break down these materials. This cleanup process is crucial for removing foreign invaders such as bacteria as well. This is achieved by endocytosis and autophagy processes.

In the case of I-cell disease, the failure of digestive enzymes to reach lysosomes results in the ineffective breakdown of foreign and unwanted intracellular materials, causing a buildup of these substances within the lysosome organelle. This 'traffic jam’ of materials within cells eventually leads to the symptoms observed in I-cell disease.

Learn more about Lysosomal Dysfunction here:

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