What provides evidence of an increase in animal species at the same time that atmospheric oxygen concentrations increased?(1 point)
rust deposits
anaerobic organisms
fossil record
stromatolites
Answers
Answer:
stromatolites
Explanation:
"stromatolites is a calcareous mound built up of layers of lime-secreting cyanobacteria and trapped sediment, found in Precambrian rocks as the earliest known fossils, and still being formed in lagoons in Australasia"
Ancient cyanobacteria present in stromatolites are considered as key factor for the increased amount of oxygen in atmosphere. Furthermore, these were considered as first organisms to trap carbon dioxide and release oxygen by the process of photosynthesis.
Answer:fossil record
Explanation:
Related Questions
Consider a culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus colonies can grow due to an elevated NaCl level. A yellow halo surrounds the growth, indicating the bacterium fermented a sugar in the medium, decreasing the pH as a result and changing the color of a pH indicator chemical. This type of medium would be referred to as a(n):______
a) enrichment culture.
b) differential and enrichment culture.
c) selective and differential medium.
d) selective median.
Answers
Answer:
C) Selective and differential medium.
Explanation:
Selective Medium:
A media contains specific ingredients which are required to promote the growth of microorganism and inhibit the other microorganisms to grow is called selective medium.
Differential Medium:
A media contains specific ingredients which differentiate the same group organisms or closely related organisms is called differential medium.
NaCl is used in media to promote the growth of Staphylococcus aureus and inhibit the growth of other gram positive and negative bacteria.
A yellow halo color shows the bacterial fermentation of sugar which will distinguish Staphylococcus aureus with other strains.
So, it will be selective and differential medium which will allow to grow Staphylococcus aureus and differentiate with other bacteria.
Finding it so directly on the threshold of our narrative, which is now about to issue from that inauspicious portal, we could hardly do otherwise than pluck one of its flowers and present it to the reader. What is the meaning of the word "inauspicious"? A.unremarkable, B. forgettable unintelligent, C.not educated unimpressive, D.poorly built unfavorable, E.boding ill
Answers
Question options:
A. Unremarkable, forgettable
B. Unintelligent, not educated
C. Unimpressive, poorly built
D. Unfavorable, boding ill
Answer:
Unfavorable, boding ill
Explanation:
The Scarlet Letter is a romantic historical fiction story written by an American author Nathaniel Hawthorne that was published in 1850.
While reading this excerpt from chapter 1 of The Scarlet Letter, the meaning of the inauspicious portal is unfavorable or ill bonding.
The meaning of the inauspicious doorway is unfavorable or bonding ill, according to this excerpt from Chapter 1 of The Scarlet Letter."Inauspicious" means "unfavorable" or "foretelling ill," hence option e is correct.
The Scarlet Letter is a romantic historical fiction novel written by Nathaniel Hawthorne and published in 1850.
It is frequently used to describe events or circumstances that appear to portend disaster. The word "inauspicious" is used to define the "portal" from which the story is going to emerge in the line you supplied. This means that the narrative will not be cheerful or successful.
Thus, option e is correct.
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In the first analysis all of the F1 flies from the students crosses have the identical phenotype with respect to body color and wing shape but the F2 flies have four different phenotypes describe how fetilization contributes to this genetic variability?
Answers
Answer:
Through formation of zygote by using gene pool of two gametes
Explanation:
During fertilization, an offspring is produced from the gametes of parents. Due to independent assortment and recombination, each gamete has unique combination of gene because of the meiosis cell division. This leads to reshuffling of genes of the mating parents and thus causes genetic variation in a given population. This is the reason why offspring of the same parents differ from each other phenotypically. A zygote is formed when the gamete of the two mating parents combine.
Fertilization is the process of combining two gametes to form a zygote. The gametes fertilize to produce different phenotypic characters in the offspring.
Recombination:
It is a process of creating a new combination of genes in the gametes. During the miosis (I) the non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes exchange the genetic material. This results in the different genetic combinations in each gamete.
A gamete fertilizes to form a zygote and develop into offspring. The offspring will produce different traits according to the genes they have.
Therefore, gametes fertilize to produce different phenotypic characters in the offspring.
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Which is true concerning muscle tissue? Select one: a. cuboidal shape enhances function b. highly cellular and well vascularized c. contains contractile units made of collagen d. is a single-celled tissue
Answers
The true statement about muscle tissue is that it is highly cellular and well vascularized. There are three types of muscle tissue: skeletal, cardiac, and smooth, all of which are highly cellular, well vascularized and have excitability, enabling movement and force generation.
Explanation:Concerning muscle tissue, the true statement is: b. highly cellular and well vascularized. This relates to the nature of muscle tissue, which is indeed highly cellular and well vascularized, allowing it to perform its functions of movement and force generation. Muscle cells, or myocytes, are derived from the mesoderm and their numbers remain relatively constant throughout life. These cells are characterised by their excitability; they respond to a stimulus and are contractile, meaning they can shorten and generate a pulling force.
There are three types of muscle tissue in the body - skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle. These all have properties in common, such as the ability to change their electrical states and send an electrical wave (or action potential) along the membrane. This property is known as excitability.
The forms of muscle tissue show different characteristics: skeletal muscle cells appear striated with many nuclei along the membranes; cardiac muscle cells appear striated with a single nucleus; smooth muscle cells have a single nucleus with no visible striations. These differences help them perform their different functions within the body.
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In which stage of development does the child undergo astoundingly rapid change, and increase some 20 times in size, including dramatic changes in proportion and weight?
Answers
Answer:
Fetal.
Explanation:
The fusion of the male and female gamete leads to the formation of zygote. The zygote growth further in the womb of the female. The human being gestation period is nine months.
The fetal development starts after zygote formation and till the birth of a baby. The fetus grows regularly in size and development of the body organs completed in the nine months. The weight and size increase rapidly and baby face well developed at the 14 week of pregnancy. Finger nails are well developed around 40 weeks of pregnancy.
Thus, the correct answer is fetal.
Humans, chimpanzees, gorillas, and orangutans are members of a clade called the great apes, which shared a common ancestor about fifteen million years ago. Gibbons and siamangs comprise a clade called the lesser apes. Tree-branch lengths indicate elapsed time.
Assuming chimps and gorillas are humans' closest relatives, removing humans from the great ape clade and placing them in a different clade has the effect of making the phylogenetic tree of the great apes _____.
A) polyphyletic
B) paraphyletic
C) monophyletic
D) into a new order
Answers
Answer:
The correct option is B) paraphyletic
Explanation:
A clade can be described as a monophyletic group which comprises of different organisms which have an ancestor in common and all its linear descents.
A paraphyletic group can be described as a group of organisms that have descended from the same evolutionary organism or ancestor groups, but it might comprise of one or more of the descendants.
Removing humans from the great ape clade results in a paraphyletic group as this group would then consist of an ancestral species and some, but not all, of its descendants.
Assuming chimps and gorillas are humans' closest relatives, removing humans from the great ape clade would make phylogenetic tree of the great apes paraphyletic. A paraphyletic group consists of an ancestral species and some, but not all, of its descendants. As humans share a common ancestor with chimps, gorillas, and orangutans, removing humans from the group creates a grouping that includes some but not all descendants of that common ancestor. This exclusion breaks the completeness of the monophyletic group (which includes all descendants), therefore, the correct answer to the question is:
B) paraphyletic
Consider the Color locus. At this locus there are two alleles - red and green. The red allele is dominant to the green allele. If the selection coefficient against the green/green homozygote is 0.30, what it the fitness of the green/green homozygote?
Answers
Answer:
0.7
Explanation:
Using Hardy-Weinberg equation of genetic variation being constant when disturbing factors such has mutation and others are removed.
p² + pq + q² = 1 and p + q = 1
where p² is the frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype (RR) and q² is the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype (rr) and 2pq is the frequency of heterozygous genotype (Rr). p represent the frequency of "R" and q represent "g". since the coefficient against the green/green homozygote is 0.30 then
the fitness of the green/green homozygote = 1 - 0.3 = 0.7
A technologist in a tissue bank who performed HLA typing by DNA analysis was asked to bank all DNA extracted from specimens received in the laboratory so as to maintain the highest quality of nucleic acid for the longest period. How should the DNA be stored to satisfy this request?
Answers
Answer:
I believe the options are:
a) DNase-free water at 22°-25°C
b) DNase-free water at -70°C
c) TE buffer at 2°-8°C
d) Freeze-dried at 22°-25°C
The answer is d) freeze dried at 22°C to 25°C.
Explanation:
As compared to RNA, DNA is a relatively stable biomolecule. It is relatively thermostable. However, DNA is highly susceptible to nuclease and chemical degradation.
DNA Storage:
DNA storage methods depend upon the type of sample, the desired quality and for how long the sample needs to be stored.There are four major DNA storage methods:Dried, at room temperature–20°C –80°C –196°C (storage in liquid nitrogen)Freeze drying and storage in liquid nitrogen (-196°C) are the two most effective means to store DNA samples for a long time.For storage at room temperature, DNA samples are dried in a freeze drying machine. Freeze drying removes all the moisture and water from the sample which prevents any hydrolytic reactions.A relationship in which one organism depends on another for nourishment or some other benefit is specifically known as _____.
Answers
Answer: Commensalism
Explanation:
Commensalism is a biological association where two organisms interact and one of the two benefits while the other neither benefits nor get harmed.
A good example is epiphyte growing on Fruit trees. The epiphyte plant benefits by receiving physical support from the tree, while the fruit tree is totally unaffected
Johanna, a 7-year-old girl, is significantly shorter than normal for her age. Her doctor recommends treatment with a hormone before her growth plates ossify in her long bones. Which hormone is recommended? Johanna, a 7-year-old girl, is significantly shorter than normal for her age. Her doctor recommends treatment with a hormone before her growth plates ossify in her long bones. Which hormone is recommended? 1. parathyroid 2. hormone thyroid 3. stimulating hormone 4. cortisol growth hormone
Answers
Answer:
4. cortisol growth hormone
Explanation:
It is possible to supply Johanna with the growth hormone because the deficiency in this hormone has been the cause of her short stature. This hormone is important because it is produced by the pituitary gland that is in the brain and is responsible for increasing height and muscle mass. There are medications that contain this hormone, it is recommended to apply at an early age and that has more risks of success
The fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster has an allele that confers resistance to DDT and similar insecticides. Laboratory strains of D. melanogaster have been established from flies collected in the wild in the 1930s (before the widespread use of insecticides) and the 1960s (after 20 years of DDT use). Lab strains established in the 1930s have no alleles for DDT resistance. In lab strains established in the 1960s, the frequency of the DDT-resistance allele is 37%. Which statement is correct?
A) Alleles for DDT resistance arose by mutation during the period of DDT use because of selection for pesticide resistance.
B) The evolutionary fitness associated with the heritable trait of DDT resistance changed once DDT use became widespread.
C) Resistance to DDT evolved in some fruit flies in order to allow them to survive.
Answers
Answer:
The answer is option "B"
Explanation:
DNA is comprised of a set of genes that dictates a given trait. The genes themselves are comprised of alleles that allow for variations and differences in the trait that the concerned gene is responsible for. In the case of D. Melanogaster, there is an allele that allows for resistance to pesticides such as DDT. The two samples that are referred to in the question are differentiated on the basis of the amount of time that has lapsed since the start of significant DDT usage. So at the time when widespread DDT usage was not in place, the sample showed no DDT resistant alleles. With the passage of time in which DDT usage grew, the resultant effect as evidenced from the later sample indicated a significantly higher percentage of DDT resistant allele. This means that the ability of this species of fruit flies to survive, referred to as their evolutionary fitness, increased only after use of DDT increased. This means that DDT resistance trait changed as a natural response to the introduction of a different climate thereby allowing subsequent offspring of fruit flies to boast of higher numbers of alleles that have DDT resistance capacities thus allowing them to survive.
Match the following terms and definitions 1. gene alternate forms for a specific gene 2. allele a genetic characteristic of the individual 3. trait a portion of DNA which codes a specific heredity trait 4. chromosome a thread-like molecule in the nucleus composed of DNA chromosome a genetic characteristic of the individual
Answers
Answer:
1. Allele - alternate forms for a specific gene
2. Trait - a genetic characteristic of the individual
3. Gene - a portion of DNA which codes a specific heredity trait
4. Chromosome - a thread-like molecule in the nucleus composed of DNA
Explanation:
1. An allele is the variant form of a gene. According to Mendel, an organism receives two forms of a gene from each parent. This forms are called ALLELES.
2. A trait is a particular characteristics of an individual determined by its genetic content. In other words, genes determine characteristics or attribute an individual possesses, this attribute is the TRAIT.
3. A gene is a sequence of nucleotides present on the DNA molecule that codes for certain products (proteins) and pass on traits to offsprings. The gene is a segment of the DNA that holds the genetic information.
4. CHROMOSOMES are visible structures in the nucleus (eukaryotes) or cytoplasm (prokaryotes) formed by the wrapping up of histone proteins around DNA molecule. It is the form in which the genetic material is passed on.
The term gene is a portion of DNA that codes a specific heredity trait, Allele refers to alternate forms for a specific gene, Trait means a genetic characteristic of an individual, and Chromosome is a thread-like molecule in the nucleus composed of DNA. Each term has a key role in genetic inheritance.
Explanation:The correct matching for the terms to their definitions are: 1. Gene should be matched with a 'portion of DNA which codes a specific heredity trait', 2. Allele can be defined as 'alternate forms for a specific gene', 3. Trait should be connected with 'a genetic characteristic of an individual', and 4. Chromosome could be best described as 'a thread-like molecule in the nucleus composed of DNA'
Gene is a unit of heredity which is transferred from a parent to offspring. Alleles are different versions of the same gene, each individual organism has two alleles for each gene - one from each parent. A trait is a characteristic that an organism can pass on to its offspring while a chromosome is a long thread-like grouping of genes, where each chromosome consists of DNA coiled and supercoiled around histones.
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If intelligence is determined primarily by heredity, which pair should show the highest correlation between IQ scores?
Answers
Answer:
The options
a) fraternal twins
b) identical twins
c) brothers and sisters
d) parents and children
The CORRECT ANSWER IS b)
b) identical twins
Explanation:
Identical twins both acquire identical genetic material. Therefore, if intelligence is basically controlled by heredity, you would foresee identical twins to possess the biggest correlation between IQ scores since they share 100 percent of the same genes
Answer:
the answer would be B, I got it right on edge :)
Explanation:
Early British anthropological researchers believed they could isolate and scientifically study the structure and specific details of what?
Answers
Early British anthropological researchers believed they could isolate and scientifically study the structure and specific details of Society.
Explanation:
Culture is that whole which incorporates information, conviction, workmanship, ethics, law, custom, and some other capacities and propensities obtained by man as a citizen. An ethnography is a writing about people, at a specific spot and time. Ordinarily, the anthropologist lives among individuals in another general public for a while, all the while taking an interest in and watching the social and social existence of the gathering. Anthropologists then compares the traits of people living in that particular society.
"You begin an experiment with two populations of E. coli that are each composed of 100 cells. The cells are all genetically identical (i.f., they are clones). You grow these populations in flasks on a lab bench under identical conditions with sufficient resources for the survival of all individuals. What process will introduce genetic variation into these populations?"
Answers
Answer:
Horizontal method of gene transfer
Explanation:
Bacteria divide by binary fission which produces the exact copy of the daughter cells with the same genetic material but they do exhibit variation in their genetic material.
The process that is responsible to introduce the genetic variation is the mechanisms of horizontal methods of DNA transfer which involves the transformation, transduction and conjugation.
These methods of gene transfer are considered by the biologist as the primitive methods of sexual reproduction.
Thus, Horizontal method of gene transfer is the correct answer.
true or false? Cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm, whereas mitosis is the division of the nucleus.
Answers
Answer:True
Explanation:
Mitosis is just a part of a cell cycle. Mitotic M phase include both mitosis and cytokinesis.
In the cell cycle Mitotic cell division alternate with Interphase a growth phase. In the mitotic phase, mitosis divides the cell nucleus and distribute it's chromosomes to the daughter nuclei, cytokinesis divides the cytoplasm, producing two daughter cells.
During mitosis in the telophase stage of mitosis the division of one nucleus into two genetically identical nuclei, is completed.
In Cytokinesis, the division of the cytoplasm is usually well under way by the late telophase, so the two daughter cells appear shortly after the end of mitosis
Final answer:
True. The statement is correct; cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm, while mitosis is the division of the nucleus, leading to two identical daughter cells.
Explanation:
The statement is true: cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm, and mitosis is the division of the nucleus. Cell division consists of these two processes. During mitosis, the cell's nucleus divides to form two identical nuclei. Following mitosis is cytokinesis, where the cell's cytoplasm divides, leading to the formation of two daughter cells, each containing a complete set of genetic material. It is important to note that whilst the phases of mitosis are consistent across most eukaryotic cells, the process of cytokinesis can vary, particularly in cells with cell walls, such as plant cells.
Convergent evolution is said to have occurred if the mouse species on two islands with similar habitats are found to have similar characteristics even though they originated from different species that did not have these characteristics.A. TrueB. false
Answers
Answer:
True
Explanation:
When two or more distantly related species develop some structural or functional similarities since they are found in the same environmental conditions, the process is called convergent evolution. Here, the developed similarities may not be present in the ancestors of these species. For example, the presence of wings in birds (Aves) and bats (mammals) represents convergent evolution. Therefore, the presence of similar features in two different species of mouse due to similar habitat conditions represent convergent evolution.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
When two species of an organism habituating in two different locations with similar environmental conditions possess similar characteristics are said to evolve through convergence.
Such species have homologous structures due to which they have similar internal skeletal structure but their function and looks vary.
For example – wings of bat and limbs of human beings are homologous structure but their function and look are different from each other.
Hence, the given statement is true
A group of nursing students are reviewing information about variations in the anatomy of a child's respiratory tract structures in comparison to adults. The students demonstrate an understanding of the information when they describe the shape of the larynx in infants as________________.
Answers
Answer:
The shape of the larynx in infants are cone shaped.
Explanation:
The size of the larynx is small in comparison to the adult one.
The larynx lies on the 4th cervical vertebrae and the axis of the respiratory system is parallel with the axis of digestive system that helps the infants to breathe constantly and swallow liquid foods.
The larynx is covered by soft cartilage and relatively the lumen is narrow.
The vocal cord is small and 7-9 mm wide with sub glottis which is 5.5-6 mm wide.
Soft cartilage favors deformity of the larynx and trachea.
The upper end is cone shaped structure and the cricoid cartilage is backwardly directed. Short vocal cord and the epiglottis is narrow which is hang above the larynx.
The cricoid cartilage is hyaline type in infants that affects the coloring intensity.
The epiglottis is an elastic cartilage which is covered by mucus.
The correct answer is a. funnel. The larynx in infants is funnel-shaped, situated higher in the neck to aid in breathing and prevent choking. This shape gradually changes as the child grows.
The larynx in infants is described as a. funnel-shaped due to the anatomical differences compared to adults.
In infants, the larynx is situated higher in the neck.It is shaped more like a funnel which helps in the breathing process and prevents choking while swallowing because the epiglottis can form a protective barrier over the larynx more easily.This funnel shape gradually changes into a more cylindrical shape as the child grows, resembling the adult larynx.This anatomical variation is significant in the pediatrics field for proper understanding of airway management and respiratory support in infants.Complete question:
A group of nursing students are reviewing information about variations in the anatomy of a child's respiratory tract structures in comparison to adults. The students demonstrate an understanding of the information when they describe the shape of the larynx in infants as?
a. funnel.
b. cylindrical.
c. oval.
d. spherical.
Which directly contribute to sea levels rising?
Answers
Explanation:
he two major causes of global sea level rise are thermal expansion caused by warming of the ocean (since water expands as it warms) and increased melting of land-based ice, such as glaciers and ice sheets. ... In urban settings, rising seas threaten infrastructure necessary for local jobs and regional industries.
What directly contributes to sea levels rising is:
Melting of land iceIncreasing temperature in ocean waters.
Why are sea levels rising?
There are two major causes for sea levels to be rising during the last years. The first one is the melting land ice present in glaciers and lands. As these ices melt, the water goes to the ocean, increasing its levels.
The second direct cause is the increasing temperature of the ocean. In other words, the temperature of the Earth is increasing, so the oceans get warmer, and as a result, the water in them expands.
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Students use a microscope to look for structures present in four different cells. The students placed an X for each structure that was viewed for each cell on the table shown.
Which cell that was viewed is most likely a prokaryote?
A. Cell W
B. Cell X
C. Cell Y
D. Cell Z
Answers
Cell X is likely a prokaryotic cell. Option B) is the correct answer.
Explanation:
The prokaryotic cells are present in unicellular organisms such as bacteria and lack Nucleus in it. The cell X is not filled with x-mark in the nucleus.The prokaryotic cells consist of the cell membrane, cell wall and a genetic material composed of DNA. All these are marked with x-mark for cell X.Chloroplasts are not present in prokaryotic cells and the space for it is left blank in cell X without the x-mark.This information clearly shows that prokaryotic cell structure is viewed likely in cell X.The cell that is most likely a prokaryote is Cell X.
Hence, the correct option is B.
Prokaryotic cells are characterized by the following features:
They do not have a nucleus.
They have a cell wall.
They may have chloroplasts.
They have DNA that is not enclosed in a nucleus.
Cell X has a cell wall, chloroplasts, and DNA. However, it does not have a nucleus. This means that Cell X is most likely a prokaryotic cell.
Cell W has a nucleus, so it is not a prokaryote.
Cell Y has a nucleus and chloroplasts, so it is also not a prokaryote.
Cell Z has a nucleus, but it does not have chloroplasts. This means that Cell Z could be either a prokaryote or a eukaryote.
However, since Cell X is more likely to be a prokaryote based on the information given, Cell Z is less likely to be a prokaryote.
Therefore, The cell that is most likely a prokaryote is Cell X.
Hence, the correct option is B.
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What are the "rules" for how muscles produce movements depending on which side (anterior, lateral, etc) of a joint they cross?
Answers
Answer:
1.muscles have two attachment and must cross one point
2.muscles only pulls and don't push
3.insertion is the attachment that moves while that which is stationary is origin
4.muscles work in opposing pairs
5.muscle striation shows the pull direction
Explanation:
Heartbeat, digestion, respiration, and elimination of wastes are carried out by organ systems close to the central axis. These functions, close to the center of the body, operate or are ready to operate when the child is born. What principle of development does this represent?
Answers
Explanation:
This is the principle of proximodistal development that additionally depicts the bearing of advancement. This implies that the spinal string creates before external parts of the body. The child arms create before the hands also, the hands and feet create before the fingers and toes. Finger and toe muscles (utilized in fine engine ability) are the last to create in physical development.Proximodistal development is the changes of growth in child to operate the body when the child ready to operate after birth.Hence, the proximodistal development represent the changes in these functions.
From the following choices, identify those that are the inputs and outputs of the light reactions. (Recall that inputs to chemical reactions are modified over the course of the reaction as they are converted into products. In other words, if something is required for a reaction to occur, and it does not remain in its original form when the reaction is complete, it is an input.)
Answers
Answer:
Let's complete The question
Drag each item to the appropriate bin. If the item is not an input to or an output from the light reactions, drag it to the "not input or output" bin. (light, water, NADP+, ADP, O2, ATP, NADPH, glucose, CO2,G3P
Input:
light, water, NADP+, ADP
Output:
O2, ATP, NADPH
not input or output:
glucose, CO2,G3P
Explanation:
At the light reactions phrase, the energy of sunlight is employed in the oxidation of water (the electron donor) to O2 and transfer these electrons to NADP+, so as to give NADPH.
Some light energy is also employed to transform ADP to ATP.
The NADPH and ATP yielded are consequently used to run the sugar-producing Calvin cycle.
________ is fat soluble, produced in the skin on exposure to UV radiation, and necessary for normal bone growth and function.
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is- vitamin D
Explanation:
Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin that is produced in the skin due to the exposure of UV radiation on the skin. When the UV radiation penetrates the skin the provitamin D3 is converted into previtamin D3. Then this previtamin D3 gets isomerize to vitamin D3 which is natural form of the vitamin D.
This vitamin D is important for normal bone growth and its function. Vitamin D helps our bone to become strong by helping bone to absorb calcium from the food. It protects osteoporosis in older adults. Therefore the correct answer is vitamin D.
Vitamin D is a fat soluble substance, created in the skin when exposed to UV radiation. This vitamin is essential for absorption of calcium and phosphate, contributing to normal bone growth and function.
Explanation:The substance that is fat soluble, produced in the skin on exposure to UV radiation, and necessary for normal bone growth and function is Vitamin D. When UV radiation from the sun comes into contact with our skin, it triggers the synthesis of Vitamin D. It is essential in ensuring our bodies can absorb calcium and phosphate, crucial elements needed for bone health. Insufficient levels of Vitamin D can lead to skeletal disorders such as rickets in children and osteomalacia in adults.
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What are the key components of the CRISPR-Cas9 system that are activated (set into motion) when a virus invades a bacterium?
Answers
Some bacteria? have a similar, built-in, gene editing system to the CRISPR-Cas9 system that they use to respond to invading pathogens like viruses, much like an immune system.
The CRISPR-Cas9 system, an adaptive immune system in prokaryotes, activates CRISPR arrays and Cas proteins to defend against viral invasion. CRISPR arrays store viral DNA segments that guide Cas proteins to target and cleave the viral genome, providing acquired immunity.
The CRISPR-Cas9 system is an adaptive immune mechanism found in prokaryotes like bacteria and archaea, which activates upon viral invasion. When a virus invades a bacterium, two main components are mobilized for the bacterium's defense: the CRISPR array and the Cas proteins. The CRISPR array serves as a genetic memory of past infections by incorporating segments of viral DNA into its sequence. These segments, known as spacer DNA, are transcribed into RNA molecules that guide the Cas proteins. The Cas proteins, especially Cas9 in the CRISPR-Cas9 variant, are enzymes that use the RNA guide to identify and cleave complementary sequences in the invading viral DNA, thereby neutralizing the threat.
This system provides bacteria with a form of acquired immunity by allowing them to "remember" past infections and respond more effectively to repeated attacks by the same virus. The RNA molecules, transcribed from the CRISPR array, target the Cas proteins to the precise location in the viral genome that matches their sequence, resulting in the destruction of the viral DNA. This process exemplifies nature's own method of genetic editing, which has been harnessed by scientists for various applications in gene editing and biotechnology.
Flower color in a particular plant species is determined by one gene. The alleles of that gene can code for either red flowers or blue flowers. When a red plant and a blue plant are crossed, some of the offspring produce purple flowers. What is the genotype of the plants with purple flowers? options: The genotype is BB because of incomplete dominance. The genotype is Bb because of incomplete dominance. The genotype is bb because of incomplete dominance. The genotype has nothing to do with the color of the flower.
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is: The genotype is Bb because of incomplete dominance.
Explanation:
Incomplete dominance is a type of Non-Mendelian inheritance in which neither of the two alleles is dominant over each other. Both the alleles get expressed in a heterozygous individual harbouring both the alleles. Hence this heterozygous individual shows a phenotype that is in between the two homozygous phenotypes.In the given question, let us represent the red phenotype with b allele and the blue phenotype with B allele.The red (bb) and the blue (BB) parents are both homozygous.Gametes produced by each are b and B respectively.Crossing them,B
b Bb
After crossing, their offspring will have the Bb genotype, with a purple coloured phenotype, where the purple colour is between red and blue.Why is having an extra chromosome 21 tolerable to the point that someone with this condition can survive to maturity? (as compared to having an extra chromosome 2 , for example)
Answers
Answer:
This is due to the fact that chromosome 21 is not fundamental to sustain and keep life going.
Chromosome 21 is the second human chromosome to be entirely sequenced. Chromosome 21 seems to consists of 200 to 300 genes that supply instructions for developing and forming proteins. These proteins undergo a variety of unique roles in the body.
Chromosome 21 is majorly involved in brain development at the frontal lobe and the medulla oblingata.
Final answer:
Chromosome 21 is one of the smallest chromosomes with fewer genes, which results in a less severe impact of an extra copy compared to larger chromosomes. This allows individuals with an extra chromosome 21, or Down syndrome, to survive to maturity and lead fulfilling lives with proper assistance despite some intellectual and physical disabilities.
Explanation:
For several reasons, having an extra chromosome 21, known as trisomy 21 or Down syndrome, is more tolerable. Chromosome 21 is one of the smallest chromosomes with fewer genes compared to other chromosomes such as chromosome 2. This reduces the impact of having an extra copy because the gene dosage effect is not as severe as it would be with larger chromosomes that carry more essential genes. The body can somehow manage the extra dose of the genes on chromosome 21, allowing individuals with Down syndrome to survive to maturity and lead fulfilling lives with assistance.
Embryos with extra copies of other chromosomes, or lacking a chromosome (monosomy), usually do not survive because essential genes are either missing or expressed too much, disrupting vital developmental processes. With chromosome 21 being one of the smallest, the impact of the extra genetic material is less damaging, although it still causes various degrees of physical and intellectual disabilities.
Furthermore, individuals with Down syndrome, with proper assistance, can become contributing members of society despite potential mental and physical impairments. The survivability and capabilities of individuals with Down syndrome illustrate that the extra chromosome 21 while presenting challenges, does not preclude a viable and active life.
Does homeostasis occur in viruses?
Answers
Answer: living things maintain homeostasis, meaning keeping conditions inside the body stable. ... Viruses have no way to control their internal environment and they do not maintain their own homeostasis.
Explanation:
living things maintain homeostasis, meaning keeping conditions inside the body stable. ... Viruses have no way to control their internal environment and they do not maintain their own homeostasis.
What is the diploid chromosome number for your karyotype
Answers
Answer:
For example, a haploid human nucleus (i.e. sperm or egg) normally has 23 chromosomes (n=23), and a diploid human nucleus has 23 pairs of chromosomes (2n=46). A karyotype is the complete set of chromosomes of an individual.
Explanation:
In humans, the diploid chromosome number for a karyotype is 46, consisting of 23 pairs of chromosomes, including 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes.
Explanation:In humans, the diploid chromosome number for a karyotype is 46. This means that each somatic cell in the human body has 46 chromosomes, arranged in 23 pairs. These pairs include 22 pairs of autosomes (non-sex chromosomes) and 1 pair of sex chromosomes.
In females, both sex chromosomes are X chromosomes, so their karyotype is written as 46,XX. In males, the sex chromosomes are one X chromosome and one Y chromosome, so their karyotype is written as 46,XY.
A karyotype is a picture of an individual's chromosomes, organized in homologous pairs. It can be used to study chromosomal aberrations, cellular function, taxonomic relationships, and medicine.
Phosphoinositides mark different cellular membranes and play key roles in protein trafficking inside the cell. Among them, PI(4,5)P2 is involved in receptor-mediated endocytosis as well as phagocytosis at the plasma membrane. This phosphoinositide ...
A. is bound by the adaptor protein AP2.
B. is bound by the GTPase dynamin.
C. is depleted from clathrin-coated vesicles to promote their uncoating.
D. All of the above.
Answers
Answer:
All of the above.
Explanation:
PI(4,5)P2 (Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate) is the phospholipid present in the minor amount in the plasma membrane. This molecule plays an important role in the cell signaling.
The PI(4,5)P2 is involved in the clathrin coated vesicles and its depletion leads to the uncoating and continues the cell signaling process. The dynamin protein is important for the clathrin coating and and they require the adaptor protein AP2 for the clathrin association.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).