Answer:
Animal proteins such as egg, red meat, sea foods etc
Explanation:
Foods rich in animal proteins generally boost the level of uric acid in the body and make individuals to be more prone to uric acid kidney stones.
High protein level in the body as a result of high protein diets also increase the chances of uric kidney stones because this reduces the citrate level in the body. Citrate prevents the formation of stone by limiting the amount of uric acid in urine.
Hence, limiting the intake of animal protein-rich foods such as egg, red meat, etc., will prevent the reoccurrence of uric acid kidney stones.
Griffin performed experiments demonstrating that when live, nonpathogentic, S. pneumoniae (which produce rough-surfaced colonies) are mixed with killed smooth-surfaced S. pneumoniae (which are pathogenic when alive) and are then injected into mice, the mice become ill. Bacteria isolated from these sick mice form smooth colonies characteristic of the pathogenic strain. What happened to the bacteria to make them pathogenic to the mice?
Answer:
Transformation
Explanation:
The experiment of Griffith on S. pneumoniae leads to the conclusion that the bacteria can take the DNA from the surrounding environment by the process of "Transformation".
He selected the two strains of bacteria, the smooth pathogenic strains (S strains) and the rough non-pathogenic strain (R strains). When he injected the dead S bacteria and live R bacteria, he obtained the live S bacteria from the mice.
He was amazed at how the dead S strain bacteria became alive and concluded that the dead S strain bacteria were transformed into the live S strain bacteria and named the process transformation. The transformation process refers to the uptake of the DNA material from the surrounding environment.
Thus, transformation is the correct answer.
Final answer:
Frederick Griffith's experiments demonstrated that a heat-killed pathogenic S strain transferred a "transforming principle" to a live nonpathogenic R strain, making it pathogenic. This was a key discovery, leading to the understanding that DNA is the material responsible for inheritance and transformation.
Explanation:
In Frederick Griffith's transformation experiments, something remarkable was observed. When Griffith injected a mouse with both the live nonpathogenic R strain and heat-killed pathogenic S strain of Streptococcus pneumoniae, the mouse died, and only the S strain was recovered.
This outcome was unexpected because separately, the live R strain did not kill the mice, and the heat-killed S strain could not cause illness either. Griffith's findings indicated that the nonpathogenic R strain had acquired the ability to form smooth colonies and become pathogenic from the heat-killed S strain.
Griffith concluded that the R strain must have taken up some transforming principle from the heat-killed S strain, which allowed it to become pathogenic. This transformative agent, initially hypothesized to be external DNA, was responsible for changing the morphology and physiology of the R strain, leading to the production of the protective polysaccharide capsule that is a characteristic of the pathogenic S strain. The capsule makes colonies appear smooth and enables the bacteria to evade the immune system, resulting in virulence.
These pivotal experiments played a crucial role in the discovery of DNA as the material of inheritance, paving the way for modern molecular genetics. The phenomenon observed by Griffith is now known as transformation, where genetic material from one cell can be taken up by another, incorporating new genetic information into its own genetic makeup.
What structural characteristics common to Gram-negative bacteria may trigger the acute inflammatory response?
Answer:
External polysaccharides and Lipid A of Gram-negative bacteria may trigger the acute inflammatory response.
Explanation:
Lipid A is an endotoxin lipid component responsible for the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. Its the last internal region among the three regions of the lipopolysaccharide (LPS) which is also called as endotoxin molecule. Its hydrophobic nature helps it to attach the LPS to the outer membrane. Moreover, lipid A anchor, a polysaccharide core attached with a chains of carbohydrates.
A phylogenetic tree constructed using sequence differences in mitochondrial DNA would be most valid for discerning the evolutionary relatedness of _____
A phylogenetic tree constructed using mitochondrial DNA sequence differences is most valid for discerning the evolutionary relatedness of closely related species or over short evolutionary timescales. This is due to the rapid mutation rate of mtDNA and its unbroken maternal lineage.
Explanation:A phylogenetic tree constructed using sequence differences in mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) would be most valid for discerning the evolutionary relatedness of organisms over relatively short evolutionary timescales or within closely related species. Mitochondrial DNA mutates more rapidly than nuclear DNA, thus accruing detectable changes in relatively short evolutionary timescales.
Molecular phylogeny relies on the principle that the more similar the DNA sequences in two organisms, the more closely related they are. For determining the relationships among closely related species, rapidly evolving sequences such as mtDNA can be useful.
Mitochondrial DNA is maternally inherited with no recombination, therefore, it offers a clear lineage tracing back to an organism's maternal ancestry. This lineage can give a clear depiction of evolutionary relatedness among species depicted on a phylogenetic tree.
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Final answer:
A phylogenetic tree using mitochondrial DNA differences is most valid for studying the evolutionary relationship between B. chimpanzees and humans, as they are closely related species within the domain Eukarya. This method highlights their recent common ancestry and significant genetic similarity, distinguishing them from the other pairs of organisms listed.
Explanation:
A phylogenetic tree constructed using sequence differences in mitochondrial DNA would be most valid for discerning the evolutionary relatedness of chimpanzees and humans. Mitochondrial DNA is maternally inherited and mutates at a relatively constant rate, making it a useful tool for studying evolutionary relationships among closely related species. In the case of chimpanzees and humans, mitochondrial DNA analysis would provide insights into their recent common ancestry, demonstrating their high genetic similarity and the minor genetic changes that have led to their morphological differences.
Both chimpanzees and humans belong to the domain Eukarya and are closely related within the animal kingdom. A phylogenetic tree based on mitochondrial DNA would clearly illustrate their close evolutionary relationship, as opposed to the relationships between the other options provided, such as archaeans and bacteria, sharks and dolphins, and fungi and animals, which are more distantly related and would not show as clear of a resolution with mitochondrial DNA analysis.
Furthermore, mitochondrial DNA analysis supports the idea that these Eukaryotic organisms share a more recent common ancestor with Archaea than with Bacteria. Such analyses provide a more accurate depiction of evolutionary relationships because they are not confounded by convergent evolution, which can lead to analogous structures in distantly related lineages. Phylogenetic trees based on molecular data, such as mitochondrial DNA, enhance our understanding of the evolutionary history of living organisms.
Why can't we measure genetic variation in a population using observable traits (phenotypes)?
a. All traits are encoded by a single gene.
b. The environment can also affect phenotype.
c. Many traits are encoded by multiple genes.
d. Phenotypes are not determined by genes.
Answer:
b. The environment can also affect phenotype.
c. Many traits are encoded by multiple genes.
Explanation:
The types of alleles of various genes present in the members of a population can not be identified by observing phenotypes. This is because some genetic traits are regulated by more than one gene. Combinations of the dominant alleles of each of these genes regulate the final phenotype of the organisms. Skin color in humans is an example of such a genetic trait.
Likewise, some genetic traits are also affected by their surroundings. The extent of exposure to sun and pollution in the surroundings are two nongenetic factors that regulate the human skin tone in addition to multiple genes.
Final answer:
The reason we cannot measure genetic variation using phenotypes is that b. The environment can also affect phenotype, making them an unreliable indicator of genetic variation due to their resulting from both genotypic factors and environmental influences.
Explanation:
The correct option for why we can't measure genetic variation in a population using observable traits (phenotypes) is b. The environment can also affect phenotype. This is because an organism's phenotype is the result of the interaction between its genotype and the environment. While genetic diversity and variation are critical for the survival of a species, phenotypes may not provide a complete picture of genetic variation as they are the result of both genetic factors and environmental influences.
Most traits are not Mendelian; they are polygenic, meaning several genes contribute to a trait's expression. Furthermore, environmental factors can have a significant impact on the expression of these traits, adding another layer of complexity. Therefore, simply observing traits cannot accurately measure the genetic variation in a population.
Biological control methods for managing insect pests are effective for reasons that include which of the following? They promote genetic resistance in the target species, resulting in a population explosion of the target species. They generally focus on one target insect to ensure that the target insect population remains low. They can lead to a self-perpetuating population of a control species.
Answer:
Option B, They generally focus on one target insect to ensure that the target insect population remains low.
Explanation:
Biological pest control methodologies are focused towards a specific species of pest and do not harm the non-targeted species. These methods are environment friendly and do not produce any harmful residues. Also they do not develop any kind of resistance in species due to which the same bio pesticide can be used again and again. Since these methods have high specificity, they may require usage of two or more bio pesticides all together.
Hence, option B is correct
Biological pests control focuses on one target insect, ensures to reduce their population remain low.
Biological Pest Control:
It is a method of controlling pests such as aphids, mites, and other insects by using other organisms especially predators or parasites of pests.
It specifically targets the organism.Do not affect the environment.Example: Release of parasitic wasps to control aphids.
So we can conclude that Biological pests control focuses on one target insect and ensure to reduce their population.
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According to the __________ theoretical perspective on human sexuality, women and men are seen as being influenced by cultural messages about how we are to be sexual.
Answer:
The right answer to this question that fits the blank space is: interactionist
Explanation:
This interactionist theoretical perspective is mainly focused on the association that humans have with society, and how they can change that society, aswell as the society can change them, and when it comes to sexuality, these perspective studies how women and men are seen with their genres by society and how society can shape them.
Spadefoot Toads can develop into 2 different morphs, one is carnivorous, and the other omnivorous. In ordered to develop into the carnivorous morph, the jaw develops at a faster growth rate than the rest of the body; this is an example of:
Answer: Allometry
Explanation:
Allometry explains how the body parts grow at different rates such that the jaw of the spadefoot toads develop it's jaw at a rapid rate than other body parts.
Thus, the differential growth rate shown in the carnivorous morph is to aid feeding and hence survival.
Gluconeogenesis, the formation of glucose from fats and proteins, is due to the action of ________. a. insulin b. cortisol c. aldosterone d. secretin
Cortisol is responsible for gluconeogenesis, the formation of glucose from fats and proteins. Insulin reduces blood glucose levels, while aldosterone and glucagon work to increase blood glucose levels when they are low.
Explanation:Gluconeogenesis, the formation of glucose from fats and proteins, primarily due to the action of the hormone cortisol. This hormone is a glucocorticoid and is secreted in response to ACTH. One of the main roles of cortisol is to stimulate the synthesis of glucose and gluconeogenesis (converting a non-carbohydrate to glucose) by liver cells and promote the release of fatty acids from adipose tissue.
Insulin, on the other hand, is responsible for reducing blood glucose levels by stimulating glycolysis, the metabolism of glucose for ATP generation, and inhibiting enzymes involved in glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis. Thus, insulin helps in decreasing glucose in the blood, not forming it.
It's also worth noting that aldosterone, another hormone, regulates blood glucose levels by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen to glucose when glucose levels decrease in the blood. And glucagon, produced by the alpha cells of the pancreas, increases blood glucose levels by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen into glucose.
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Meredith’s baby is 2 weeks overdue. What is a potential hazard that the baby can experience because it is postmature?
Answer: Brain damage because of the inadequate blood supply from placenta.
Explanation:
The phase of post mature can be dangerous for the child. In this case there are chances that the baby might not get the adequate amount of blood from the placenta to the fetus.
The child might feel hypoxia inside the womb because the main source of oxygen is the placental blood. There can be lack of nutrients as well due to this reason.
True/False: If an action is involuntary, then it can still be irratinoal according to Sutherland's definition of irrational.
Answer:
True, an involuntary action is one which occurs without the conscious choice of an individual or organism.
Explanation:
Irrationality is described as an action or opinion given through inadequate use of reason, or though emotional distress or cognitive deficiency. Sutherland's physiological research on irrationality argued that irrational behavior is far more widespread and normal than is generally supposed. Sutherland explained that people were driven by irrational impulse rather than guided by reason.
In the city of Birthville, an elderly midwife who has been working at the community center for several years noticed that there were no deliveries in the month of May in a particular year. In her discussion with the matron of the clinic, she said, "There were no deliveries in May of that year." In scientific process, her response can be classified as:_________-
Deductive reasoning plays an essential role in attaining a valid conclusion during a scientific process. It is considered a fundamental form of valid reasoning.
The correct answer is deductive reasoning in the given case as the elderly midwife has no deliveries this year.
Deductive reasoning-
Deductive reasoning is the process of reasoning from one or more statements (premises) to succeed in a logical conclusion.
Deductive reasoning goes within the same direction as that of the conditionals and links premises with conclusions. In deductive reasoning, there is no uncertainty.
The Deduction begins with a hypothesis or a usual statement that helps in finding the possible ways to attain a particular and valid conclusion.
Deductive reasoning is used in examining hypotheses and theories in a scientific method. Deductive reasoning generally follows certain steps before reaching an eventual inference.
It plays an essential part in the process of making decisions. In arguments and decision-making, it's used as a base to supply factual proof.
Thus, in the given case, the response of the midwife can be classified as deductive reasoning.
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Final answer:
The midwife's comment on the absence of deliveries in May can be seen as anecdotal evidence, hinting at possible cultural, social, or environmental influences on birthing practices in Birthville. It reflects the diverse nature of childbirth methods globally and the role of midwives in different societies.
Explanation:
The elderly midwife's observation that there were no deliveries in May of that year can be classified as an anecdotal evidence in the scientific process. Such an observation is the beginning point for identifying trends and potential patterns within the community's birthing practices. Given the variety of childbirth methods around the world, this absence of births could be influenced by cultural, social, or even environmental factors at play in Birthville.
Different societies handle childbirth in diverse ways. For instance, in the United States, childbirth is typically a medicalized process, with expectant mothers giving birth in hospitals under the care of medical professionals. However, in other cultures, such as agricultural societies or foraging communities, childbirth may take place at home or in a more natural setting with the assistance of midwives.
The midwife in this scenario may be noting a trend that could be worth investigating further, reflecting the impact of cultural beliefs, economic conditions, or public health policies on the patterns of childbirth within the community.
In angiosperms, the _______________ are the specialized reproductive organs whose main function is to bring together the sperm and egg.
Answer:
Flowers
Explanation:
Angiosperms are plants that have flowers as their specialized reproductive organs. The flowers will give rise to seeds enclosed within an ovary.
The main reproductive parts are the stamen and pistil.
The stamen is the male part and it is made up of the anthers which produces pollen and the filament that holds the anthers in position.
The pistil on the other hand is the female reproductive part composed of ovary stigma and style.
The in the ovary is where the ovules are produced.
Answer:
Flowers
Explanation:
The flowers functions to ensure pollination by bringing together the sperm and egg. They also confer protection to the ovule and developing embryo inside a receptacle and protect the developing seedling.
Which of the following describes why highland regions are colder than the surrounding regions? A.Highland areas are far from large bodies of water. B.Temperature decreases with altitude. C.Highland regions are found in higher latitudes. D. Ocean currents stabilize the climate in highland regions.
Answer:
Which of the following describes why highland regions are colder than the surrounding regions?
Temperature decreases with altitude
Explanation:
It is a known fact that has been proven by scientist over time that the higher the altitude the lesser the temperature. This best explains why mountains record lower temperature than lowland
Answer:
B. Temperature decreases with altitude.
Explanation:
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Cystic fibrosis is often considered an autosomal recessive disorder, however, on a molecular level, it is actually codominant. Carriers of cystic fibrosis who are heterozygous for the disease produce both normal and defective CFTR proteins. Carriers do not exhibit symptoms of the disease because enough normal protein is created to prevent a build-up of mucus. Which combinations of parents below have a possibility of having a child who is homozygous for cystic fibrosis? Select all that apply. A mother is CC and father is CC' B mother is CC' and father is CC' C mother is C'C' and father is CC D mother is CC and father is CC E mother is CC' and father is C'C' F mother is C'C' and father is C'C'
The statement B, E and F is correct in case of cystic fibrosis.
What is cystic fibrosis?
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition. It's caused by a faulty gene that affects the movement of salt and water in and out of cells. This, along with recurrent infections, can result in a build-up of thick, sticky mucus in the body's tubes and passageways – particularly the lungs and digestive system.
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a disease that is passed down through families. It is caused by a defective gene that makes the body produce abnormally thick and sticky fluid, called mucus. This mucus builds up in the breathing passages of the lungs and in the pancreas.
There's currently no cure for cystic fibrosis, but a number of treatments are available to help control the symptoms, prevent complications, and make the condition easier to live with. Possible treatments include: antibiotics to prevent and treat chest infections.
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Beetle pollinators of a particular plant are attracted to its flowers' bright orange color. The beetles not only pollinate the flowers but mate while inside of the flowers. A mutant version of the plant with red flowers becomes more common with the passage of time. A particular variant of the beetle prefers the red flowers to the orange flowers. Over time, these two beetle variants diverge from each other to such an extent that interbreeding is no longer possible. What kind of speciation has occurred in this example, and what has driven it?
A. Allopatric speciation, ecological isolation.
B. Sympatric speciation, habitat differentiation.
C. Allopatric speciation, behavioral isolation.
D. Sympatric speciation, sexual selection.
E. Sympatric speciation, allopolyploidy.
Answer:
B. Sympatric speciation, habitat differentiation.
Explanation:
The right answer to our question is B, Sympatric speciation, habitat differentiation.
Edward Bagnall Poulton derived the term sympatric speciation in 1904. It is a mode of speciation, which entails new species emerging from an ancestral species that is still alive and extant. Both the emerging and ancestral species will exist in the same zone.
This speciation is found more in plants. There are different types of these speciations. Habitat differentiation is seen within sympatric speciation. It is found when mutations that exist in the same zone can make use of varying conditions. Allopatric speciation and parapatric speciation are the other types of speciation.
In the given scenario, Sympatric speciation driven by habitat differentiation has occurred. The different 'habitats' are represented by the flower color preferences of the beetle variants, leading them to diverge to the point of becoming distinct species.
Explanation:The type of speciation that has occurred in the provided scenario is Sympatric speciation, driven by habitat differentiation. In this context, sympatric speciation refers to the process where new species evolve from a single ancestral species while inhabiting the same geographic region. In this case, the 'geographic region' is the color of the flowers. The red and orange flowers represent different 'habitats' for the beetles.
In terms of what has driven this speciation, it is habitat differentiation. This is because even though the beetles are occupying the same general physical area, their 'habitat' in terms of the color of the flowers they prefer has caused a divergence in their mating and, hence, their gene pools. Over time, this leads to the two beetle variants becoming so different that interbreeding is no longer possible, effectively rendering them distinct species.
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How would you explain the development of motor skills as well as sensory and perceptual development?
Answer:
Motor skill develop through the interaction of body system specifically sensory, perception and biochemical systems
Dreams occurring during REM sleep are ________; dreams occurring during non-REM sleep are ________.\
Answer:
Dreams occurring during REM sleep are _intense_; dreams occurring during non-REM sleep are _less vivid, disconnected, and less memorable_.
Explanation:
REM (rapid eye movement) sleep is
"a kind of sleep that occurs at intervals during the night and is characterized by rapid eye movements, more dreaming and bodily movement, and faster pulse and breathing."
Non-REM sleep (non-rapid eye movement) sleep is dreamless sleep.
Answer:
Dreams occurring during REM sleep are intense;
dreams occurring during non-REM sleep less vivid, and less memorable.
REM –Rapid Eye Movement sleep is one of the stages of sleep the brain goes through during sleeping. It begins about an hour to one hour thirty minutes when an individual goes to sleep, The brain is active at this period as if the subject fully awake. This explains why the dreams memories is retained when fully awake and the dream is vivid and could be recollected.
Other physiological features associated with this stage are increase in blood pressure, variation in body temperature, and rise in brain oxygen consumption among others.
The full active brain also stimulates the spinal cord for the seizure of motor control to the limbs, These immobilized these body parts with the subject in tentative state of paralysis, hence the REM is is sometimes refers to as paradoxical sleep.
The Non Rapid Eye Movement (NREM) is made up of 3 stages. This sleep stage mark the transition from being awake to deep sleep. It is marked with reduction in brain waves , body temperature,no paralysis of the limbs.
Dreams are rear during NREM stage, and if they occur it is usually early in the morning. This dream is due to activation of the subcortical area of the brain at this period of the day; this includes the olfactory bulb, the hypothalus.amygdala .
Explanation:
When selecting among multiple possible phylogenetic trees that fit our data, we commonly use the principle of _____, which means we choose the _____ possible hypothesis. In phylogenetic analysis, that means selecting the tree that represents the _____ evolutionary changes or mutations.
a. parsimony; simplest; fewest
b. parsimony; simplest; most
c. parsimony; most; likely
d. phylogenetics; simplest; fewest
e. phylogenetics; simplest; most
a. parsimony; simplest; fewest
When selecting among multiple possible phylogenetic trees that fit our data, we commonly use the principle of parsimony, which means we choose the simplest possible hypothesis. In phylogenetic analysis, that means selecting the tree that represents the fewest evolutionary changes or mutations.
Explanation:
Phylogeny describes the evolutionary history of on organism or group of organisms.
A phylogenetic tree structure is used to describe the relationship between various organisms which have originated from common ancestors.
The Principle of Parsimony is best applied while constructing phylogenetic tree.
This principle emphasizes on simple observations on a phylogeny which requires only few changes or variations which explain for the difference between the phylogenic sequences.
This tree structure will only have few specific genetic variations or mutations or evolutionary changes which took place through new appearance of a trait or disappearance of an existing trait.
Final answer:
In phylogenetic analysis, the principle of maximum parsimony is used to choose the simplest hypothesis, which is the tree with the fewest evolutionary changes. parsimony; simplest; fewest is correct. This approach assumes evolutionary events occurred most straightforwardly. So the correct option is a.
Explanation:
When selecting from multiple possible phylogenetic trees that fit our data, the principle commonly used is maximum parsimony. This means we choose the simplest possible hypothesis. In phylogenetic analysis, this translates to selecting the tree that represents the fewest evolutionary changes or mutations. Therefore, the correct answer is a. parsimony; simplest; fewest.
Maximum parsimony is a concept used by scientists to construct phylogenetic trees in a way that the evolutionary events are assumed to have occurred in the most straightforward manner possible. This often results in a phylogenetic tree that exhibits the fewest number of character reversals, independent character changes, and overall character changes.
Consider the Keeling curve, which shows a steady increase in CO₂ levels over the past 50+ years. This steady rise has been attributed to both natural and human activity. Imagine if everyone in the world planted a fast-growing vine that was an annual (i.e., it grows large and fast, but dies after one year). Predict the effect this would hypothetically have on the level of CO₂ in the atmosphere over the next 20 years.
a. The level of CO₂ in the atmosphere will stay the same because the growing annuals will remove the extra CO₂ from human activity.
b. The level of CO₂ in the atmosphere will steadily decrease because of increased rates of photosynthesis.
c. The level of CO₂ in the atmosphere will steadily increase because decomposition of the annuals simply returns the CO₂ back into the atmosphere.
Answer:
b. The level of CO₂ in the atmosphere will steadily decrease because of increased rates of photosynthesis.
Explanation:
Because each person would plant a considerable amount of plant material atmospheric carbon dioxide would decrease because through the process of photosynthesis of these plants Co2 is consumed and transformed into glucose and oxygen.
The level of CO2 in the atmosphere will steadily increase due to decomposition of the fast-growing annual plants, releasing CO2 back into the atmosphere. Hence the correct option is C.
The level of CO2 in the atmosphere will steadily increase because decomposition of the annuals simply returns the CO2 back into the atmosphere.The increased growth of fast-growing vines, being annual plants, will lead to their death after one year. Upon decomposition, the CO2 stored in the plants will be released back into the atmosphere, contributing to an overall rise in CO2 levels. This scenario aligns with the natural carbon cycle where plant decomposition leads to the release of carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere, contributing to the greenhouse effect and climate change.
While conducting research with a small population in South America you note that an overwhelming majority of individuals exhibit signs of a specific genetic abnormality. This is most likely the result of:__________.
Answer:
Founder effect
Explanation:
Foundation effect occurs when a small group of people from large population establishes a new colony causing the reduction of genetic variation. In the consquences, they may emphasize certain genes and phenotype or deemphasized them.
Example; There are higher cases of fumarase defeciency in population of member of fundamentalist church because of the practice of marying within the relegion.
The widespread genetic abnormality in a small population could be attributed to genetic drift or the founder effect. Both cause changes in allele frequency, but the founder effect specifically involves isolation and differing gene frequencies.
Explanation:The presence of a specific genetic abnormality in a high proportion of a small population could most likely be the result of genetic drift or the founder effect. Genetic drift is a mechanism of evolution that can cause random changes in the frequency of alleles in a population. On the other hand, the founder effect occurs when a small number of individuals become geographically isolated from the main population and they possess different gene frequencies than the main population. If one of these individuals carry a specific genetic abnormality, it may become prevalent in this sub-population.
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Stressed the development of physical fitness and sport skills as the primary objectives of physical education A. Jay Nash B. Charles McCloy
Answer:
Option C , Charles McCloy
Explanation:
Complete question is as follows -
Stressed the development of physical fitness and sport skills as the primary objectives of physical education A Luther Gulick B Jay Nash C Charles McCloy D Jesse Williams
Solution
McCloy was a prominent professor of physical education. Throughout his career, he emphasized the importance of resistance training. He believed that the main objective of physical education is to not to build body but to learn the skills of any sport and to maintain personal health &fitness.
He himself was very peculiar about purposive exercise rather than focusing on competitive sports or exercises like all other physical educators. He analyzed all sports scientifically by conducting tests and measurements. Due to this, he once criticized the weight lifting sports saying that it will make a sportsmen slow and inflexible.
Hence, option C is correct
What are the most likely percentages for offspring of two red/white-feathers parents?
Answer:
The question lacks options, the options are:
parents?
A.100% red/white-feather chickens.
B.50% white-feather chickens and 50% red/white-feather chickens.
C.33% white-feather chickens, 33% red-feather chickens, and 33% red/white-feather chickens.
D.25% white-feather chickens, 25% red-feather chickens, and 50% red/white-feather chickens
The Correct answer is D
Explanation:
According to the question, the hybrid chicken has a mixture of red and white feather phenotypes expressed at the same time. This tells us that the red and white alleles are CODOMINANT in the chicken i.e. none is dominant or recessive over the other.
Let's assume that (R) allele is the red feather colour while (r) allele is for white feather colour. Therefore, the red/white feathered chicken will have a Rr genotype. In a cross between two red/white feathered chicken (Rr), the following offsprings will be produced RR, Rr, Rr and rr
RR- Homozygous red feather d chicken (1/4 × 100=25%)
Rr- Hybrid Red/White feathered chicken (2/4 × 100=50%)
rr- Homozygous white feathered chicken (1/4 × 100=25%)
At the molecular level, gene duplication often produces novelty in a lineage. This process provides another evolutionary pathway by which a protein can switch functions, without loss of the original function. What analytical approach helped the most to answer the question of evolution in the aldosterone–M receptor pair in the study of Jamie Bridgham and her colleagues?
1. analysis of fossil records
2. analysis of receptors in human
3. phylogenetic study
4. forward mutation
Answer:
3- phylogenetic study
Explanation:
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The dosage of a certain drug is reduced when administered to a pregnant woman with liver impairment. What is the other clinical situation that requires reduction in the dose of the drug during pregnancy?
Answer:
renal impairment
Explanation:
It is the imability of the kidneys to excrete waste and balance fluids.
Defective renal function could result in a high amount of drug levels. It might also increase the drug disclosure to the tissues and lead to a high level of drug distribution to the fetus. Epilepsy, diabetes, and hypertension do not have a straight effect on drug metabolism and excretion. However, they have ancillary impact in later phases when liver and kidneys are affected secondarily.
Answer: RENAL IMPAIRMENTS
Explanation: RENAL IMPAIRMENTS is a term used to describe the inability of the Renal System (Kidneys) to effectively carry out it's activities. When a pregnant woman has Renal impairments,it is Generally expected that the level or amount of drugs dose issues to her be reduced to a manageable quantity.
The kidneys are directly responsible for the FILTRATION of the urines and Blood,so if high quantity of drugs are present it might not be able to effectively perform it tasks. Epilepsy, Hypertension and diabetes have late stage renal impairments.
Several experiments were required to demonstrate how traits are inherited. Which scientist or team of scientists first demonstrated that cells contain some components that can be transferred to a new population of cells and permanently cause changes in the new cells?
a. Griffith
b. Watson and Crick
c. Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty
d.Hershey and Chase
Answer:
a. Griffith
Explanation:
Frederick Griffith used two strains of the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae. The S strains were pathogenic while the R strains were nonpathogenic. He added the heat-killed virulent bacteria to the live nonvirulent strain and infected mice with it. He showed that the mice developed the disease and were killed. He concluded that a substance from the heat-killed S strains transformed the live R strains into the virulent form that killed mice. However, he could not identify the substance responsible for the process of transformation.
A student has placed rabbit cells in a solution containing dissolved oxygen, glucose, calcium ions, water, and sodium ions. Which of these molecules do you expect will easily enter into the student's rabbit cells (via simple diffusion)?
A. calcium ions
B. glucose
C. sodium ions
D. oxygen
E. water
Answer:
The correct answer is D. oxygen
Explanation:
The plasma membrane is selectively permeable which means it allows the selective molecule to pass through it. The charged molecule is passed mainly through active transport.
Water molecules pass through a type of passive diffusion called osmosis. Gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide move through simple diffusion. When oxygen moves in the cell carbon dioxide moves out of the cell. In diffusion, the molecule moves down their concentration gradient so no energy is needed in it. So the correct answer is D.
A population of Drosophila mauritiana reproduces in synchrony at discrete time periods every generation, and generations occur at two-week intervals. The current population size is 1,000, and its geometric population growth rate is 3.0 per generation. What will the expected size of the population be after six weeks?
Answer:
3000
Explanation:
1000 in every two weeks for 6 weeks is 3000
A population of Drosophila mauritiana reproduces in synchrony at discrete time periods every generation. The expected size of the population after six weeks is 27,000.
What is the population?The term “population” refers to all citizens who are either permanently residing in a country or who are just passing through. This indicator reveals how many people typically reside in a certain area.
Growth rates are the population changes that occur each year as a result of births, deaths, and net migration. Any whole group that shares at least one trait is referred to be a population.
People do not make up all populations. Populations can include but are not limited to, individuals, animals, organizations, structures, buildings, cars, farms, objects, or occasions.
No = 1000 Growth rate r = 3.0 per generation
1000 every two weeks for 6 weeks is 27,000
Therefore, the expected size of the population after six weeks is 27,000.
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A gene is composed of two alleles. An allele can be either dominant or recessive. Suppose that a husband and wife, who are both carriers of the sickle-cell anemia allele but do not have the disease, decide to have a child. Because both parents are carriers of the dise ase, each has one dominant normal-cell allele (S) and one recessive sickle-cell allele (s). Therefore, the genotype of each es one allele to his or her offspring with each allele being equally likely Complete parts a) through c) below a) Genes are always written with the dominant gene first. Therefore, there are two instances the offspring could have genotype (one if the mother contributes the dominant allele and the father contributes the non-dominant allele, and one if the father contributes the dominant allele and the mother contributes the non-dominant allele) List the other two possible genotypes of the offspring b) What is the probability that the offspring will have sickle-cell anemia? In other words, what is the probability that the offspring will have genotype ss? Interpret this probability The probability is 1/4. This means that there is a 25% chance that a randomly selected offspring will have sickle-cell anemia c) What is the probability that the offspring will not have sickle-cell anemia but will be a carrier (one normal-cell allele and one sickle-cell allele)? Interpret this probability The probability is _____. This means there is a _____ % chance that a randomly selected offspring will be a carrier, but will not have sickle-cell anemia.
Answer: If a husband and wife who are both carriers of the sickle-cell anemia allele (Ss) but do not have the disease decide to have a child, the offspring can be Normal (SS), carrier (Ss) or sick (ss) with the probability ¼, 2/4 (½) and ¼ respectively.
Explanation: If the mother contributes the dominant allele and the father also contributes the dominant allele, the genotype of the child will be SS. The probability is ¼. This means there is a 25% chance that a randomly selected offspring will be a normal child and will not have sickle-cell anemia.
If the mother contributes the dominant allele and the father contributes the recessive allele, the genotype of the child will be Ss. The probability is 2/4 or ½. This means there is a 50% chance that a randomly selected offspring will be a carrier of sickle cell anemia, but will not have sickle-cell anemia.
If the mother contributes the recessive allele and the father also contributes the recessive allele, the genotype of the child will be ss. The probability is ¼. This means there is a 25% chance that a randomly selected offspring will have sickle cell anemia.
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Mendel wanted to find out if the pattern of inheritance for one trait affected
the pattern of inheritance for another. What experiment did he perform to test
this idea?
O
A. He tested non-dominant traits.
O
B. He performed dihybrid crosses.
O
C. He made an F3 generation.
O
D. He tested one trait at a time.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Mendel performed dihybrid crosses to investigate whether the pattern of inheritance for one trait influenced another. Therefore option B is correct.
In a dihybrid cross, he simultaneously studied the inheritance of two different traits by crossing individuals that were heterozygous for both traits.
This allowed him to observe the inheritance patterns of multiple traits in a single experiment, enabling him to analyze whether these patterns were linked or independent.
By studying the inheritance of traits that were located on separate chromosomes, Mendel provided crucial insights into the principles of independent assortment, demonstrating that the inheritance of one trait does not significantly affect the inheritance of another.
Thereby contributing to the foundation of modern genetics.
Therefore option B is correct.
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how can a calendar year help us to understand the magnitude of geologic time
Answer:
The civil year allows us to have an idea of how long our planet has existed.
Explanation:
Calendar year is the 12-month period that corresponds to 365 days of the year, counting from 1 January to 31 December. Geological time, in turn, refers to the didactic organization of the evolution of planet Earth and the forms of life that inhabit or inhabited it. It is an instrument used by Earth's geologists and scientists to analyze and chronologically categorize (through the concept of a civil year) the natural evolution of the world in which we live, in order to better understand its past.
The civil year allows geological time to expose the number of years and days that planet Earth (and its forms of life) are in existence.
Answer:
All above
Explanation: