Answer:
Biodervasity.
Explanation:
The term refers to the variety of life on earth.It demonstrates the extent of variation at different levels of species,genetic and ecosystem in a community of organisms.
It not equal in its distribution on earth;but rather varies with the type of ecosystem available and the distribution of biotic and abiotic factors in the ecosystem. For example;
It is highest in the Tropics,due to the species richness and diversity of the region. However, it varies in other ecosystem based on species diversity peculiar to parts of the region .e.g it is highest in the marine ecosystem along the coast of abundant temperature for primary producers.
How is DNA technology used in science, society, and in medicine? Which of the following would be considered an example of biotechnology?
A. Growing cancer cells in a petri dish
B. Developing a rice plant that produces a precursor to Vitamin A
C. Brewing beer
D. Crossing a wild corn plant with a domesticated corn plant
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The DNA technology can be defined as the process by which a small manipulation in the genetic material can lead to the production of the products that is very important for the welfare of the society, science and medicine.
The golden rice is an example of genetic engineering which produces the precursor for the synthesis of vitamin A in the body.
This crop is produced by genetic engineering and is very high economic and nutritive value.
In hybrid zones where reinforcement is occurring, you should see a decline in ________.
Answer:
gene flow between distinct gene pools
Explanation:
In ecological studies, a hybrid zone can be described as an area in which mating occurs between organisms of two closely related species. As a result, viable offspring are produced. When reinforcement occurs, we will see that a decline in gene flow between organisms of these species will be seen. The organisms which are only closely related will be able to reproduce to produce viable offsprings. In a stable hybrid zone, continued production of hybrids will take place.
Final answer:
Reinforcement in hybrid zones leads to a decline in hybridization due to continued speciation divergence. Less fit hybrids result in a reduced gene flow between species, enhancing reproductive isolation.
Explanation:
In hybrid zones where reinforcement is occurring, you should see a decline in hybridization. Reinforcement is a process in evolutionary biology that leads to the continued speciation divergence between two related species due to the low fitness of hybrids between them. As the two species continue to diverge, hybrids become less common because they are less fit compared to the purebred species, ultimately leading to a reduction in gene flow between the species.
niridia is a type of blindness due to a single dominant gene. Migraine headache is the result of a different dominant gene. A man with aniridia, but normal headaches whose mother was not blind, marries a woman who suffers from migraines and has normal vision but whose father did not have migraine headaches. What is the expected proportion of their children that would have both aniridia and migraines together
Answer: 25% of the children will have both anirida and migraine headache
Explanation: The man has a dominant gene for anirida and normal headache with a mom with no blindness. Therefore, the man gene is (Nn) for heterozygous anirida and (mm) for normal headaches and his wife has heterozygous gene for migraine (Mm) 'cause her dad has normal headache and homozygous gene for normal vision(nn) .
Therefore
Nnmm × Mmnn= NnMm Nnmm Nnmm nnmm.
The crossing would give birth to Offspring with nirida and migraine (NnMm) =1/4 ×100= 25%
An organism is described as 2n = 48.A) How many chromatids per chromosome are in one meiotic cell during prophase 2?B) How many chromosomes are in one mitotic cell during telophase?C) How many chromosomes are in one meiotic cell during telophase 2?D) How many chromatids per chromosome are in one meiotic cell during Anaphase 2?
Answer:
A) 48
B) 96
C) 48
D) 48
Explanation:
Attached is a table summarizing the number of chromosomes and chromatids in the different stages of mitosis and meiosis in humans who are described as 2n = 46.
For the organism which is described as 2n = 48, substitute 46 in the table for 48 to get the appropriate figures.
A) 48
B) 96
C) 48
D) 48
The calculation is as follows:A.
The number of chromatids per chromosome are in one meiotic cell during prophase is 48.
B.
The number of chromosomes are in one mitotic cell during telophase is
N = 2(48)
= 96
C.
The number of chromosomes are in one meiotic cell during telophase 2 is 48.
D.
The number of hromatids per chromosome are in one meiotic cell during Anaphase 2 is 48.
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The branching "tree of life" analogy:
O fails to account for horizontal gene transfer, in which species on different branches exchange genes.
O has been discredited because it does not help us understand evolutionary relationships among organisms.
O accurately reflects evolution because once a split occurs, species on different branches evolve independently.
O does not describe ecological interactions between species, so it should be replaced by the web of life.
O cannot be true because each domain began with an independent origin of life from nonliving matter.
Answer:
Option-(A):
"Fails to account for horizontal gene transfer, in which species on different branches exchange genes."
Explanation:
"Tree of life":The tree of life was presented an explained by the very popular "Charles Darwin" for determining or defining the common ancestry among the different species or organisms. As, the trunk of tree is attributed to the common ancestry or origin and the branches of the tree are supposed the different species or organisms. As these organisms diverged from a single ancestor or origin. Now, the process of horizontal genes transfer between the different organism was not explained properly by the "tree of life" analogy.
The "tree of life" model fails to take into account horizontal gene transfer, leading to alternative models like the "web of life" and the "ring of life." DNA analysis is used to construct phylogenetic trees, but these are hypotheses that may change with the discovery of new data. The search for an accurate phylogenetic model continues to evolve.
Explanation:Understanding Phylogenetic Relationships and Horizontal Gene Transfer:
The analogy of a "tree of life" is a model that has traditionally been used to illustrate evolutionary relationships among organisms, showing how species diverge from common ancestors over time. However, this model has limitations because it fails to account for horizontal gene transfer (HGT), a process where genes are transferred between organisms in different branches, suggesting a more web-like pattern of evolution, particularly in microorganisms. Today, phylogenetic trees are constructed using DNA analysis, RNA, and protein data to establish these relationships, although recognition of HGT has led to alternative models being proposed, such as W. Ford Doolittle's web model and James A. Lake's ring model, both attempting to incorporate the complexity introduced by HGT.
The original "tree of life" suggests that once a split occurs, species on different branches evolve independently. However, with the discovery of HGT, it's clear that this isn't always the case in the microbial world. Instead, the web and network models propose a more interconnected evolutionary process, using systematics to organize and classify organisms based on observed genetic exchanges as well as morphological and fossil records. Although the search for the most accurate phylogenetic model continues, each serves to advance scientific understanding and helps in visualizing and interpreting vast amounts of genetic data.
Ultimately, all life evolved from a common ancestor, and the quest to map phylogenetic relationships is ongoing as new data and theories emerge. The "web of life" and the "ring of life" are examples of how some scientists are attempting to refine the tree model to better represent the complexity of evolutionary history, taking HGT into account.
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What is the reason that diaphragms have a relatively high failure rate?
Answer: Diaphragms have high failure rate due to incorrect insertion.
Explanation:
Diaphragms are types of birth control that is reusable and dome in shape. Diaphragms prevent pregnancy by serving as a barrier that cover the cervix which stop the sperm from meeting the egg in the uterus. It is inserted in the cervix and should be used with spermicide(gel that kill sperm) so that it can work well. Incorrect insertion. Have lead to high failure rate I. Preventing pregnancy.
In Shorthorn cattle, coat color may be red, white, or roan. Roan is an intermediate phenotype expressed as a mixture of red and white hairs. For this problem, use "A" to indicate the allele that produces red hair, and "a" to indicate the allele that produces white hair. The following phenotypic data are obtained from various crosses: Cross 1: red × red → all red Cross 2: white × white → all white Cross 3: red × white → all roan Cross 4: roan × roan → 1/4 red: 1/2 roan: 1/4How is coat color inherited?by incomplete dominanceby recessive epistasisby dominant epistasisby multiple allelesWhat are the genotypes of parents in cross 1?( check all that apply)AAAaaa
The inheritance pattern described for coat color in Shorthorn cattle is incomplete dominance. Therefore, option (a) is correct.
AA is the genotypes of parents in cross 1. Therefore, option (a) is correct.
Coat color inheritance in Shorthorn cattle follows an incomplete dominance pattern. This means that neither allele (A for red hair and a for white hair) is entirely dominant over the other; instead, they interact to produce an intermediate phenotype, roan. In cross 1, where red cattle are mated with red cattle resulting in all red offspring, it indicates that red (A) is dominant over white (a).
Thus, the genotype of the red-coated parents must be homozygous dominant (AA). This dominance results in the expression of the red phenotype in their offspring. The phenomenon of incomplete dominance provides insight into the fascinating world of genetics, showing how the blending of alleles can give rise to unique and intermediate traits that differ from simple dominant-recessive relationships.
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Your question is incomplete but your full question was:
In Shorthorn cattle, coat color may be red, white, or roan. Roan is an intermediate phenotype expressed as a mixture of red and white hairs. For this problem, use "A" to indicate the allele that produces red hair, and "a" to indicate the allele that produces white hair. The following phenotypic data are obtained from various crosses: Cross 1: red × red → all red Cross 2: white × white → all white Cross 3: red × white → all roan Cross 4: roan × roan → 1/4 red: 1/2 roan: 1/4How is coat color inherited?by incomplete dominanceby recessive epistasisby dominant epistasisby multiple allelesWhat are the genotypes of parents in cross 1?( check all that apply)
How is coat color inherited?
by incomplete dominance
by recessive epistasis
by dominant epistasis
by multiple alleles
What are the genotypes of parents in cross 1?
1. AA
2. Aa
3. aa
Coat color in Shorthorn cattle is inherited through incomplete dominance where the heterozygous genotype results in an intermediate phenotype, roan. The genotypes of the parents in Cross 1 are both 'AA'.
Explanation:From the given data, it appears that coat color in Shorthorn cattle is inherited through an instance of incomplete dominance. In incomplete dominance, the heterozygous genotype results in an intermediate phenotype. This is shown in Cross 3, where red (AA) is crossed with white (aa), resulting in all roan offspring (Aa), a mixture of red and white, an intermediate phenotype. We can also infer the genotypes of the parents in Cross 1 should be AA because when they cross, all offspring are red, showing no traits of the white phenotype. Thus, given by the phenotypes of the offspring, we can infer that red is 'A' (dominant) allele and white is 'a' (recessive) allele.
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A tall (dominant trait) pea plant is crossed with a short (recessive trait) pea plant to determine if the tall pea plant carries one or two factors for tallness. This is called ________.
a.a Punnett square test
b.a Punnett cross
c.a test cross
d.a parental cross
Answer:
c. A testcross
Explanation:
A dominant organism can be heterozygous or homozygous for the gene. To determine the genotype of a dominant organism, it is crossed with a homozygous recessive organism for the same gene. In the given cross, a tall pea plant with an unknown genotype is crossed with a pure breeding short pea plant. This is called a testcross.
If the obtained progeny express both tall and short phenotypes, the tall parent plant was heterozygous (Tt) for the trait. If the cross gives only tall progeny, the genotype of the tall plant is homozygous dominant (TT). Here, T represents the allele for tallness while the allele "t" gives short phenotype.
Complete the following vocabulary exercise related to the process of translation of mRNA to protein by the ribosome. Match the words in the left-hand column with the appropriate blank in the sentences in the right-hand column.
Answer:
1. Initiation of translation always happens at the start codon of the mRNA.
The translation of mRNA to protein takes three steps.Initiation, Elongation and Termination. Initiation happens at the start codons(AUG) of the mRNA
2. The RNA that has an amino acid attached to it, and that binds to the codon on the mRNA, is called a tRNA.
tRNA with an anti-codon (UAC) matches with codon (AUG)
3. Amino acids are attached to tRNA by enzymes called aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase.
It is also called tRNA synthase and functions to attach the appropriate amino acid to its tRNA.
4. Termination of translation happens when the ribosome hits a stop codon on the mRNA.
Peptidyl transferase will add a water molecule at the carboxyl end subsequently the new protein will be released.
5. The process, performed by the ribosome, of reading mRNA and synthesizing a protein is called translation.
the main functions of the ribosome in a cell is protein synthesis
After turning the water off at the end of a shower, water still clings to your body because of
A. Water's versatility as a solvent
B. Cohesion
C. Adhesion
D. Evaporative cooling
E. All of the choices are correct
Answer:
Option C, Adhesion
Explanation:
Water molecule have the tendency of sticking to each other which in general is termed as Cohesion. But this interaction allows water molecule to take spherical shape. It plays no role in allowing water to stay at any surface.
The ability of water molecule to stick to different substances is known as adhesion. It is the adhesiveness of water molecule due to which it clings at our body surface. It clings to our eyebrows when we wash face.
Thus, option C is correct
Final answer:
Water clings to your body after a shower due to adhesion, the attraction between water molecules and your skin, whereas cohesion is the water-to-water attraction.
Explanation:
After a shower, water still clings to your body due to the property of adhesion. Adhesion is the attraction between water molecules and other substances, which in this case, are the molecules that make up your skin. In contrast, cohesion refers to the attraction between water molecules themselves, contributing to water's characteristic surface tension. This is the reason some insects can walk on water or why water droplets form. However, it is the adhesive forces that are responsible for water sticking to your skin after a shower. Option C is correct.
The heat of vaporization refers to the energy required to convert liquid water into vapor, which plays a critical role in maintaining homeostasis in the human body through evaporative cooling, but it is not directly related to water clinging to the body after a shower.
Mammals feed their young with insects plants and roots. True or False
Answer: False
Explanation:
One of the striking characteristics of mammals that distinguishes them from other vertebrates is that they feed their young ones with breast milk. Therefore, mammals are animals that feed their young ones with breast milk.
Mammals, like bears, platypuses, and opossums, may supplement their diets with insects, plants, and roots, but they do not feed their young directly with such. Instead, they produce milk, which contains all the necessary nutrients for their young's growth and survival.
Explanation:The statement that mammals feed their young with insects, plants, and roots is false. One distinctive attribute of mammals that separates them from other animals is their method of nourishment for the young. Mammals produce milk from their mammary glands to feed their offspring. Some mammals like bears, platypuses, or opossums may supplement their diet with insects, plants, and roots but they do not feed their young directly with such. Rather, the milk they produce is packed with all the necessary nutrients the young need for their growth and survival.
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Which process is NOT considered a general function of the pentose phosphate pathway? a. the production of erythrose 4-phosphate for synthesis of aromatic amino acids b. the production of pentoses necessary for nucleotide synthesis c. the production of NADPH for reductive biosynthesis in adipose cells d. the production of NADPH to help prevent oxidative stress in erythrocytes e. the transfer of electrons to NADP+ for eventual entry into the electron transport chain
Answer:
e. the transfer of electrons to NADP+ for eventual entry into the electron transport chain
Explanation:
NADH and not NADP+ enters the electron transport chain.
if you observed a higher-than-normal number of plasma cells in a sample of lymph, would you expect antibody levels in the blood to be higher or lower than normal?
Answer:
The answer would be C : Leukocytes. Pretty much another word for white blood cells.
Explanation:
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What multicellular life forms existed on Earth BEFORE dinosaurs existed on Earth (Mark all that apply) corals some land plants early molluscs, like giant cephalopods (distant relatives of squids and octopi) ■ birds mammals fishes early arthropods, like trilobites
Some land plants and arthropods like trilobites existed before the dianosaurs existed on Earth.
Explanation:
The first reptiles are reported to have appeared during the Carboniferous period. The Dinosaurs were large reptiles that became dominant during the triassic and jurassic. By the end of cretaceous the dinosaurs became extinct.
In the given options we find that some land plants and trilobites are suitable choice because, firstly, the fossil plants are recorded during carboniferous period and some of those species became extinct before the appearance of dinosaurs. Secondly, trilobites became extinct by the end of permian period.
Rest of the options like birds, mammals, etc came into existence before dinosaurs but they continued to exist along with dinosaurs.
Lauren is a senior at a nearby high school. She is a good student who does her work on weekdays and likes to party on the weekends with her friends. A few months ago, Lauren developed a persistent cough that has worsened over time. She has also had trouble breathing over the past week or so. Her parents decided it was time she see a doctor and made an appointment with the family physician. Lauren arrived at the doctor's office the following day. The doctor asked her a number of questions about her health history and daily habits, including, whether or not she smoked cigarettes. Lauren responded that she started smoking cigarettes (about 2 per day) her freshman year of high school and does not intend to quit anytime soon. The doctor decided it was necessary to take a biopsy of the cells that line the bronchus (passageway to the lungs). After several days, the biopsy report has come back along with a micrograph of the bronchial cells. Lauren's cigarette smoking has badly damaged these organelles which are responsible for mucous and dirt moving up-and-out of her respiratory system. Analyze the micrograph below and determine what cell organelles have been damaged. Cella OA smooth ER B Peroxisome C Mitochondria D Cilia E Golgi Apparatus F Rough ER
Cilia have been damaged
Explanation:
If the cilia are damaged the mucous and dirt do not come out of the lungs leading to clogging of the bronchia. Lauren smoking habit has damaged her cilia and thus had troubled breathing. The bronchi of the lung are lined with cilia.
Cilia are tiny hair-like projections that keep the airways clean by sweeping away mucus and dust particles and keeping the lungs clear. When cilia do not work the air passage gets clogged with dust and dirt causing trouble breathing.
Lauren's smoking has damaged the cilia in her bronchial cells.
Explanation:The cell organelles that have been damaged in Lauren's bronchial cells are the cilia. Cilia are hair-like structures on the surface of cells that help in moving mucus and dirt out of the respiratory system. Smoking cigarettes has a detrimental effect on cilia, causing them to become damaged and less effective in their function.
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The initial learning stage in classical conditioning, in which the neutral stimulus is repeatedly paired with the unconditioned stimulus, is known as prompting. trial-and-error learning. acquisition. insight learning shaping.
Answer: The initial learning stage in classical conditioning, in which the neutral stimulus is repeatedly paired with the unconditioned stimulus, is known as the
acquisition phase.
Explanation:
classical conditioning: this involves placing a neutral signal before a naturally occurring reflex.The elements that are important in understanding the classical conditioning process includes:
-Acquisition: which is the initial learning stage in classical conditioning, in which the neutral stimulus is repeatedly paired with the unconditioned stimulus.
-Extinction: this is when the occurrences of a conditioned response decreases or disappears.
-Spontaneous Recovery: which is the reappearance of the conditioned response after a rest period.
-Stimulus Generalization and
-Stimulus Discrimination.
The initial stage of learning in classical conditioning where a neutral stimulus is paired with an unconditioned stimulus is called acquisition. This stage is crucial for the neutral stimulus to become a conditioned stimulus that triggers a conditioned response.
Explanation:The initial learning stage in classical conditioning, where a neutral stimulus is repeatedly paired with an unconditioned stimulus, is known as acquisition. During this stage, the neutral stimulus begins to elicit the conditioned response, and over time, this neutral stimulus becomes a conditioned stimulus capable of eliciting the conditioned response on its own.
Importantly, the timing of the pairing between the conditioned stimulus and the unconditioned stimulus is crucial. Typically, the interval between these stimuli is brief, but it can vary based on the specific type of conditioning being established.
Through consistent pairing, the initially neutral stimulus is transformed into a powerful trigger for a conditioned response, which is a fundamental aspect of classical conditioning.
Which of the following principles of life describes a fundamental requirement for the growth of an organism:
a. Life is Responsive.
b. Life is Significant.
c. Life is Information Expressed.
d. Life is Finite.
e. Life can be Understood.
Answer: C - life is information expressed
Explanation:
What was the difference between the estimated versus actual forced vital capacity? When might it be useful to use the estimated numbers instead of measurements?
Answer: Actual forced vital capacity exact measurement derived from Spirometry while estimating forced vital capacity. Estimated forced vital capacity is done to predict the forced vital capacity before the test is done.
Explanation: Estimated numbers are used when a patient has done measurement within a year.
Which are highly specialized membrane proteins that modify the cell's response to its environment?
a. transport proteins
b. enzymes
c. receptors
d. peroxisomes
Answer: Option A and C.
Transport and receptor protein.
Explanation:
Membrane protein are pathway protein that control the flow of materials and information across the cell.
These proteins modify the cell response to the environment. Examples of membrane proteins are receptor and transport protein.
Receptor are protein that receive signal in the cell.
Transport protein are responsible for movement of ions,molecules or materials across the cell and its environment. These two proteins are responsible for modifying cell response to it's environment.
In the mouse, gene B can produce black pigment from a colorless precursor molecule. A mouse having at least one B allele can produce black pigment, whereas the homozygous recessive mouse (bb) cannot and is albino. The agouti locus (A) can convert the black pigment to brown in the presence of at least one dominant A allele, whereas the homozygous recessive (aa) cannot convert the black pigment to brown. What color fur would a mouse have with the genotype aaBB
Answer:Black
Explanation:
Since the genotype is aaBB
aa- is a reccessive Allele that cannot concert black to brown hence not expressed while BB is a dominant Allele for Black fur color. BB that is dominant for black fur will be expressed in the mouse fur and it will have a black fur color
A mouse with the genotype aaBB would display black fur due to the presence of dominant B alleles and absence of dominant A alleles.
Explanation:A mouse with the genotype aaBB would have black fur. The gene B, which is dominant in this mouse's case, allows for the production of black pigment. Even though there are two dominant B alleles, the absence of dominant A alleles (represented by 'aa') means the mouse cannot convert the black pigment to brown. Therefore, the fur color remains black, as the agouti locus (A) is not active to convert the black pigment to brown.
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Which of the following model organisms is a multicellular worm usedto study the process of development? a)Saccharomyces cerevisiaeb) Caenorhabditis
Answer:b) Caenorhabditis
Explanation:
The C.elgans is a species of Caenorhabditis. It is a namatode which can be male or hermaphrodite. It lays 1000 of eggs which can be used for the purpose of research studies. These worms share common genes and molecular pathways like in humans.
Many of the genes present in C. elegans have functional counterparts as that of humans which makes them useful for determining the cause of human diseases. The mutant forms of genes of C.elegans can be used for screening the thousands of drugs. The genes have been used to determine the effects of ageing in humans, cancer, diabetes and other diseases.
Due to above reasons the C.elegans are considered as model organisms.
Even though RSV infection in infants is common, a vaccine does not currently exist. Imagine you are designing a recombinant vaccine for RSV--what viral components would you use in your vaccine? Justify your choice.
Explanation:
RSV is caused by a group of paramyxoviruses and belong to the group of pneumoviruses. It has two prevalent strains RSV-A and RSV-B.
To test RSV antigen in the sample we can use immunofluorescence test (IFT). IFT is a method used to identify pathogen specific antigen or antibody in sample collected from patient using fluorescence. A fluorochrome protein molecule is used to do this. Depending upon the material used and dye fluorochrome releases energy which results in fluorescence.
In this method sample collected from patient is applied on the plate and antibodies specific to the antigen are added into the plates with antigen. The antibodies used are labeled with fluorochrome to give fluorescence.
2. As viruses genetic material is prone to errors it is difficult to create a vaccine against viruses. RSV has RNA as genome and it has highly conserved lipoprotein which functions as antigen. This lipoprotein sequence is highly conserved in all the strains of the viruses. I would prefer to use this lipoprotein present in the membrane of virus for vaccine research
The origin that the vastus medialis muscle shares with the vastus lateralis is the __________.a. patellar tendonb. lesser trochanterc. linea aspera of the femord. greater trochanter
Answer: Option C.
The origin that vastus medialis and vastus lateral is share is LINEA ASPERA OF THE FEMUR.
Explanation:
Vastus medialis and vastus lateralis muscles are part of quardriceps muscle group found on the thigh.
Vastus medialis is the most inner and medial of quadriceps and its extend the the leg at the knee while vastus lateralis muscles is said to be the most powerful quadriceps and extend the knee joint to stabilize the leg.
Vastus medialis and vastus lateral is share the same origin which is lines aspera of the femur.
The vastus medialis and vastus lateralis are quadriceps muscles that originate from the linea aspera of the femur and contribute to knee stabilization and extension.
Explanation:The vastus medialis and vastus lateralis muscles are parts of the quadriceps group, located on the medial and lateral aspects of the thigh respectively. Both of these muscles share a common origin with the linea aspera of the femur. This is a roughened ridge that passes along the posterior side of the mid-femur, and numerous hip and thigh muscles make attachments to the femur along this line.
The vastus lateralis and vastus medialis, along with the two other muscles in the quadriceps group—the rectus femoris and the vastus intermedius—extend and stabilize the knee. The tendon common to all four muscles is the quadriceps tendon (or patellar tendon), which inserts into the patella and continues below it as the patellar ligament.
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Identify the moth variant that was selected for during the Industrial Revolution, when pollution began to kill the lichen that previously covered all of the trees.
Answer:
Black moth
Explanation:
During the time of the industrial revolution, the lichen that covered all the trees previously got killed. Due to the pollution arising from the industries, the colour of the woods of the trees turned into black. As a result, the light- coloured moths were not able to hide from their predators as their colour no longer matched with the colour of the trees. The black coloured moths were more adapted to survive in this environment because their colour matched with those of the woods of the trees. They were better adaptable to live in the Industrial Revolution.
How could you identify whether a particular bacterial sample contained specimens with mycolic acid-rich cell walls?
Answer:
By the application of an acid-fast staining technique.
Explanation:
Mycolic Acid Cell Wall:
Mycolic acid is a long chain fatty acid abundantly found in the cell wall of of bacterium belonging to the genus Mycobacterium e.g. Mycobacterium tuberculosis. Mycolic acids comprise about 40 to 60% of the mycobacterial cell wall. These bacteria are called acid fast bacteria because their cell walls cannot be stained with Gram staining technique.
Mycolic acid makes the mycobacterial cell wall so thick that regular Gram stains cannot penetrate it. Therefore, a more advanced acid fast staining technique is used.
Acid Fast Staining:
Acid fast staining is a differential staining technique comprising of the Ziehl-Neelsen technique and the Kinyoun technique. Both involve the use of carbolfuchsin stain, a lipid soluble, phenolic dye that penetrates through the mycobacterial cell wall. The cell wall retains the dye even after decolorization.
After the application of carbolfuchsin, a counter stain methylene blue is used that stains the non-acid fast bacteria without mycolic acid cell walls.
The presence of mycolic acid-rich cell walls in bacteria can be identified with the Ziehl-Neelsen stain.
Explanation:To identify whether a particular bacterial sample contains specimens with mycolic acid-rich cell walls, you would use a test known as the Ziehl-Neelsen stain, or acid-fast stain. This method uses a high temperature and a high concentration of phenol to stain the cell wall and resistant to decolorization. Bacteria with a high concentration of mycolic acids like Mycobacteria do not lose their stain even in the presence of acid-alcohol and are called 'acid-fast'. Acid-fast bacteria will appear red, while non-acid-fast bacteria will decolorize and take up the counterstain, usually appearing blue or green.
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The wild-type (normal) fruit fly, Drosophila melanogaster, has straight wings and long bristles. Mutant strains have been isolated that have either curled wings or short bristles. The genes representing these two mutant traits are located on separate chromosomes.
This question is incomplete. However, I understand that it is mainly dealing with "Scale of gene alterations in Mutant strains of Fruitfly"
Answer: Mutant strains evolved from large-scale mutation that occured in the chromosomes of Wild-type Fruitfly.
Explanation:
Large scale mutations involves massive chromosomal alterations such as change in base sequence of multiple genes.
Note that the change in the base sequence of genes determining Wing shape and Hair length in Wild-type fruitfly, located on different chromosomes is said to be LARGE SCALE mutation; for genes controlling different characters would occupy different locations on different chromosomes.
Thus, the genes representing the two mutant traits are located on separate chromosomes are said to have undergone LARGE SCALE MUTATIONS
The wild-type Drosophila melanogaster has straight wings and long bristles. Mutant strains show curled wings or short bristles, with genes on separate chromosomes.
Curled Wings:
The mutant strain with curled wings displays a phenotype where the wings of the fruit fly are not straight as in the wild type, but instead, they exhibit a curled or abnormal wing structure.
This trait is a result of a genetic mutation affecting the development of wing morphology.
Short Bristles:
The other mutant strain with short bristles demonstrates a phenotype characterized by a reduction in the length of bristles compared to the long bristles of the wild type.
This mutation affects the growth or development of bristles on the body of the fruit fly.
Interestingly, the genes responsible for these two mutant traits are located on separate chromosomes.
This implies that the genetic mutations leading to curled wings and short bristles are governed by genes residing on different chromosomes.
The fact that these genes are on separate chromosomes can have implications for genetic inheritance patterns and the assortment of traits in the offspring.
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In the field of science, there are still many scientists that question the process of Darwinian evolution
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The one of the main critics of Darwin evolution theory, are Weissman, Jenkins, Adnan Oktar etc.
They rejected the Darwin’s theory of evolution.
Each of the following statements describes a type of column chromatography. Sort the statements to the type of chromatography they describe. If a statement can describe all of the types, place that statement in the "All" category. (Note that size-exclusion chromatography may also be called gel-filtration or molecular exclusion chromatography.)
Categories: Size-exclusion Chromatography, Affinity Chromatography, Ion-exchange Chromatogrpahy, and All
Statements:
Separate molecules by size.
Separate molecules by charge.
The stationary phase has a covalently bound group to which a protein in the mobile phase can bind.
Uses a mobile phase and a stationary phase to separate proteins.
The stationary phase contains cross-linked polymers with different pore sizes.
Can separate molecules based on protein-lignand binding.
The stationary phase may contain negatively or positively charged groups.
Answer:
Explanation:
Separate molecules by size. > AllSeparate molecules by charge. > Ion-exchange Chromatography, Affinity ChromatographyThe stationary phase has a covalently bound group to which a protein in the mobile phase can bind. > AllUses a mobile phase and a stationary phase to separate proteins. > AllThe stationary phase contains cross-linked polymers with different pore sizes. > Size-exclusion Chromatography Can separate molecules based on protein-ligand binding. > Affinity ChromatographyThe stationary phase may contain negatively or positively charged groups. > Ion-exchange Chromatography, Affinity Chromatography
Insulin is taken up, via endocytosis, by the endothelial cells that line blood capillaries. Then, it's transported across the cell to the other side, where it is released. This transport is called __________.
Answer: Insulin is transported in the cell by TRANCYTOSIS transport.
Explanation:
Insulin is a hormone that is secreted by pancreatic islet that allow glucose from the blood to enter cell. It is transported by trancytosis after been taken up by endocytosis.
Trancytosis is a process that transport material from the cells and move it to the other side where it is released. In the case of insulin, after the insulin is taken up through endocytosis at the vascular lumen ,there is traffic of the hormone bearing vessicles and exocytosis of of the insulin vesicles present at the basal membrane which lead to insulin been released in the cell.
The transport of insulin across the endothelial cells lining blood capillaries is called transcytosis. This involves endocytosis, in which insulin is enveloped into the cell, and exocytosis, in which insulin is released to the other side.
Explanation:The transport of insulin across the endothelial cells that line blood capillaries is called transcytosis. This happens through a process of endocytosis, where the insulin molecules are enveloped by the cell membrane and brought into the cell. The insulin-filled vesicle then travels across the cell and merges with the cell membrane on the opposite side, releasing the insulin to the other side. This is the final step in the transport process known as exocytosis.
Learn more about Transcytosis here:https://brainly.com/question/32162185
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What is the wave speed of a wave that has a frequency of 5 hz a wavelength of 10 meters
Answer:
Frequency × wavelength
5 × 10 = 50m/s
Explanation:
Wave speed is the distance a wave travels in a given amount of time. Wave speed is related to wavelength and wave frequency by the equation:
Speed = Wavelength x Frequency.
Speed = 5 × 10
= 50m/s
Answer:
Wave speed= wavelength × frequency . it is measure in meters per seconds.
5 ×10=50 m/s
Explanation:
Wave speed is the distance travel by waves in a given time. It is measured in meter per second.
Wave speed= frequency (Hz) × wavelength.
Wavelength is the distance between two successive crest or trough ,it is measured in meter.
Frequency is the successive occurrence of waves within a fixed place at a fixed time. It is measured in Hertz.