What is the difference between center of gravity and center of mass?

a. 600 N/m

Hooke's law states that:

F = kx

where

F is the force applied

k is the spring constant

x is the stretching/compression of the spring relative to the equilibrium position

In this problem we have

F = 60 N

x = 0.1 m

So the spring constant is

[tex]x=\frac{F}{x}=\frac{60 N}{0.1 m}=600 N/m[/tex]

b. 75 J

The work required to stretch a spring is equal to the elastic potential energy stored in the spring:

[tex]W=\frac{1}{2}kx^2[/tex]

where

k is the spring constant

x is the stretching/compression of the spring

Here we have

k = 600 N/m

x = 0.5 m

So the work done is

[tex]W=\frac{1}{2}(600 N/m)(0.5 m)^2=75 J[/tex]

c. 108 J

We can use the same formula used in the previous part:

[tex]W=\frac{1}{2}kx^2[/tex]

where here we have

k = 600 N/m

x = 0.6 m

So the work done is

[tex]W=\frac{1}{2}(600 N/m)(0.6 m)^2=108 J[/tex]

d. 9 J

In this case, the additional work required is the difference between the elastic potential energy in the two situations

[tex]W=\frac{1}{2}kx_f^2 - \frac{1}{2}kx_i^2[/tex]

where

k = 600 N/m

[tex]x_i = 0.1 m[/tex] is the initial stretching

[tex]x_f = 0.1 m + 0.1 m = 0.2 m[/tex] is the final stretching

Solving the equation,

[tex]W=\frac{1}{2}(600 N/m)(0.2 m)^2 - \frac{1}{2}(600 N/m)(0.1 m)^2=9 J[/tex]

Answer:

Part a)

Weight on surface of other planet = 213.4 N

Part b)

Mass of the Astronaut = 66.0 kg

Part c)

Weight of the Astronaut on Earth = 646.8 N

Explanation:

Part A)

Weight of the Astronaut on the surface of the planet is given as

[tex]F_g = mg[/tex]

here we will have

[tex]m = 66.0 kg[/tex]

also we have

[tex]g = 0.33(9.8) m/s^2[/tex]

[tex]g = 3.23 m/s^2[/tex]

now we have

[tex]F = 66 \times 3.23 = 213.4 N[/tex]

Part B)

Mass of the Astronaut will always remains the same

So it will be same at all positions and all planets

So its mass will be

m = 66.0 kg

Part C)

Weight of the Astronaut on Earth is given as

[tex]F_g = mg[/tex]

[tex]F_g = (66.0 kg)(9.8 m/s^2)[/tex]

[tex]F_g = 646.8 N[/tex]

Answer:

Part a)

[tex]R_1 = 0.072 m[/tex]

Part b)

[tex]R_2 = 0.036 m[/tex]

Part c)

d = 0.072 m

Explanation:

Part a)

As we know that the radius of the charge particle in constant magnetic field is given by

[tex]R = \frac{mv}{qB}[/tex]

now for single ionized we have

[tex]R_1 = \frac{(4.39\times 10^{-27})(7.92 \times 10^5)}{(1.6 \times 10^{-19})(0.301)}[/tex]

[tex]R_1 = 0.072 m[/tex]

Part b)

Similarly for doubly ionized ion we will have the same equation

[tex]R = \frac{mv}{qB}[/tex]

[tex]R_2 = \frac{(4.39\times 10^{-27})(7.92 \times 10^5)}{(3.2 \times 10^{-19})(0.301)}[/tex]

[tex]R_2 = 0.036 m[/tex]

Part c)

The distance between the two particles are half of the loop will be given as

[tex]d = 2(R_1 - R_2)[/tex]

[tex]d = 2(0.072 - 0.036)[/tex]

[tex]d = 0.072 m[/tex]

Answer:

490 J

Explanation:

The work done to lift an object is equal to its increase in gravitational potential energy, therefore

[tex]W=mgh[/tex]

where

m is the mass of the object

g = 9.8 m/s^2 is the acceleration of gravity

h is the increase in height of the object

In this problem,

m= 5 kg

h = 10 m

Therefore, the work done is

[tex]W=(5 kg)(9.8 m/s^2)(10 m)=490 J[/tex]

Answer:

Mass of another particle, m = 46 kg  

Explanation:

it is given that,

Mass of first particle, m₁ = 28 kg

Gravitational force, [tex]F=8.3\times 10^{-9}\ N[/tex]

Distance between the particles, d = 3.2 m

We need to find the mass m of another particle. It is given by the formula as follows :

[tex]F=G\dfrac{m_1m}{d^2}[/tex]

[tex]m=\dfrac{Fd^2}{Gm_1}[/tex]

[tex]m=\dfrac{8.3\times 10^{-9}\ N\times (3.2\ m)^2}{6.67\times 10^{-11}\times 28\ kg}[/tex]

m = 45.5 kg

or

m = 46 kg

So, the correct option is (d) "46 kg". Hence, this is the required solution.

The correct answer is B) 8.5 x 10⁻¹⁰ kg is the mass.

[tex]\[ F = G \frac{M m}{r^2} \][/tex]

Where G is the gravitational constant, approximately equal to [tex]\( 6.674 \times 10^{-11} \) N(m/kg)^2[/tex].

Given that the force F is [tex]\( 8.3 \times 10^{-9} \)[/tex] N, the mass M is 28kg, and the distance ris 3.2 m, we can rearrange the equation to solve for m:

[tex]\[ m = \frac{F r^2}{G M} \][/tex]

Plugging in the given values:

[tex]\[ m = \frac{(8.3 \times 10^{-9} \text{ N}) \times (3.2 \text{ m})^2}{6.674 \times 10^{-11} \text{ N(m/kg)}^2 \times 28 \text{ kg}} \] \[ m = \frac{(8.3 \times 10^{-9}) \times (3.2)^2}{6.674 \times 10^{-11} \times 28} \] \[ m = \frac{(8.3 \times 10^{-9}) \times 10.24}{1.86872 \times 10^{-9}} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ m = \frac{8.5056 \times 10^{-8}}{1.86872 \times 10^{-9}} \] \[ m \approx 4.55 \times 10^{-1} \] \[ m \approx 8.5 \times 10^{-10} \text{ kg} \][/tex]

Therefore, the mass m of the second particle is approximately [tex]\( 8.5 \times 10^{-10} \)[/tex] kg, which corresponds to option B.

Answer:

a) t₁ = 4.76 s, t₂ = 85.2 s

b) v = 209 ft/s

Explanation:

Constant acceleration equations:

x = x₀ + v₀ t + ½ at²

v = at + v₀

where x is final position,

x₀ is initial position,

v₀ is initial velocity,

a is acceleration,

and t is time.

When the engine is on and the sled is accelerating:

x₀ = 0 ft

v₀ = 0 ft/s

a = 44 ft/s²

t = t₁

So:

x = 22 t₁²

v = 44 t₁

When the engine is off and the sled is coasting:

x = 18350 ft

x₀ = 22 t₁²

v₀ = 44 t₁

a = 0 ft/s²

t = t₂

So:

18350 = 22 t₁² + (44 t₁) t₂

Given that t₁ + t₂ = 90:

18350 = 22 t₁² + (44 t₁) (90 − t₁)

Now we can solve for t₁:

18350 = 22 t₁² + 3960 t₁ − 44 t₁²

18350 = 3960 t₁ − 22 t₁²

9175 = 1980 t₁ − 11 t₁²

11 t₁² − 1980 t₁ + 9175 = 0

Using quadratic formula:

t₁ = [ 1980 ± √(1980² - 4(11)(9175)) ] / 22

t₁ = 4.76, 175

Since t₁ can't be greater than 90, t₁ = 4.76 s.

Therefore, t₂ = 85.2 s.

And v = 44 t₁ = 209 ft/s.

Answer:

[tex]2.65\cdot 10^9 W[/tex]

Explanation:

The power produced by the water falling down the Falls is

[tex]P=\frac{E}{t}=\frac{mgh}{t}[/tex]

where

E = mgh is the potential energy of the water, with m being the mass, g the gravitational acceleration, h the height

t is the time

In this problem we have

[tex]\frac{m}{t}=6.0\cdot 10^6 kg/s[/tex] us the mass flow rate

h = 50 m is the height

g = 9.8 m/s^2 is the acceleration of gravity

Substituting,

[tex]P=(6.0\cdot 10^6 kg/s)(9.8 m/s^2)(50 m)=2.94\cdot 10^9 W[/tex]

And since the efficiency is only 90%, the power output is

[tex]P_{out} = (0.90) (2.94\cdot 10^9 W)=2.65\cdot 10^9 W[/tex]

Answer:

0.22 (A)

Explanation:

Two resistors are connected in series when they are connected in the same branch of the circuit. When this occurs, we have the following:

- The current flowing through each resistor is the same (1)

- The total voltage of the circuit is the sum of the voltage drops across each resistor

- The total resistance of the circuit is equal to the sum of the individual resistances:

[tex]R=R_1 + R_2[/tex]

So, given statement (1), in this case the current flowing through each resistor is the same, so the current flowing throught the 221-Ω resistor is also 0.22 A.

Answer:

The weights are 1 kg, 3kg, 9kg and 27kg.

Explanation:

The weights are 1 kg, 3kg, 9kg and 27kg.

1+3+9+27= 40

27+9+3= 39

27+9+3-1=38

27+9+1=37

27+9=36

27+9-1=35

27+9+1-3=34

27+9-3=33

27+9-3-1=32

27+3+1=31

27+3=30

27+3-1=29

27+1=28

27

27-1=26

27+1-3=25

27-3=24

27-3-1=23

27+3+1-9=22

27+3-9=21

27+3-9-1=20

Like this all the weights from 1 to 40 kg can be made using 1,3,9 and 27 kg.

Answer:

(D) any combustible gas

Explanation:

In ideal diesel cycle the working substance is any combustible gas.

Final answer:

The working substance in the ideal diesel cycle, during the initial intake and compression process, is air. Diesel fuel is injected only after the air has been adiabatically compressed and heated to a sufficient temperature for ignition.

Explanation:

In the ideal diesel cycle, the working substance during the intake stroke is air alone. This air is then compressed adiabatically to a high temperature before diesel fuel is injected. It is important to note that the diesel fuel itself is not part of the initial intake but is rather injected after the air has been compressed, which subsequently ignites due to the high temperature from compression.

The compression stroke significantly raises the air's temperature by compressing it adiabatically from state A to state B. Then during the power stroke, the diesel fuel added to the hot, high pressure air causes ignition and continues the cycle. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is (A) air, as it is the only substance involved in the complete cycle from the intake to the compression phase before fuel injection.

Answer:

4.42 x 10⁷ W/m²

Explanation:

A = energy absorbed = 500 J

η = efficiency = 0.90

E = Total energy

Total energy is given as

E = A/η

E = 500/0.90

E = 555.55 J

t = time = 4.00 s

Power of the beam is given as

P = E /t

P = 555.55/4.00

P = 138.88 Watt

d = diameter of the circular spot = 2.00 mm = 2 x 10⁻³ m

Area of the circular spot is given as

A = (0.25) πd²

A = (0.25) (3.14) (2 x 10⁻³)²

A = 3.14 x 10⁻⁶ m²

Intensity of the beam is given as

I = P /A

I = 138.88 / (3.14 x 10⁻⁶)

I = 4.42 x 10⁷ W/m²

The intensity of a laser beam : 4.42.10⁷ W/m²

The energy transferred by waves per unit area per unit time is called wave intensity  

Because energy per unit time is Power, the intensity of the wave is equal to Power divided by area  

[tex]\rm P=\dfrac{W}{t}[/tex]

P = power, watt

W = energy, J  

t = time, s  

For waves that spread in all directions, the intensity at the distance R from the source can be formulated  

[tex]\rm I=\dfrac{Power}{Area}=\dfrac{P}{\pi .R^2}[/tex]

From the equation above shows the intensity of the wave is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source.  

[tex]\rm I\approx \dfrac{1}{R^2}[/tex]

The farther the wave spreads, the smaller the intensity  

Cancerous tissue area:

[tex]\rm A=\dfrac{1}{4}\pi d^2\\\\A=\dfrac{1}{4}\pi(2.10^{-3})^2\Rightarrow d=2~mm=2.10^{-3}\:m\\\\A=\frac{1}{4}\pi 4.10^{-6}\\\\A=\pi .10^{-6}\\\\A=3.14.10^{-6}[/tex]

So that the intensity

[tex]\rm 0.9I(only~90\%~absorbed)=\dfrac{W}{A.t}\\\\0.9I=\dfrac{500}{3.14.10^{-6}.4}\\\\I=4.42.10^7~\dfrac{W}{m^2}[/tex]

electric field

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magnetism

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An electric device delivers a current of 5 a to a device.

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Answer:

The car's centripetal acceleration is 1.22 m/s².

Explanation:

Given that,

Diameter of circular track [tex]d= 1.00\ km=1000\ m[/tex]

Radius r = 500 m

Constant speed [tex]v = 89\ km/h = 89\times\dfrac{5}{18}=24.722\ m/s[/tex]

The centripetal acceleration is defined as,

[tex]a_{c} = \dfrac{v^2}{r}[/tex]

Where, v = tangential velocity

r = radius

Put the value into the formula

[tex]a_{c}=\dfrac{(24.722)^2}{500}[/tex]

[tex]a_{c}=1.22\ m/s^2[/tex]

Hence, The car's centripetal acceleration is 1.22 m/s².

To find the car's centripetal acceleration, convert the speed to meters per second, then use the formula a = v^2 / r. With a speed of 24.71 m/s and a track radius of 500 m, the acceleration is approximately 1.22069 m/s².

The student is asking to determine the centripetal acceleration of a race car moving at a constant speed along a circular track. To calculate this, we can use the formula for centripetal acceleration: a = v^2 / r. First, we need to convert the speed from km/h to m/s, which can be done by multiplying by ⅟ (≅ 0.27778). Thus, 89 km/h equates to 89 × 0.27778 m/s, which is about 24.71 m/s. The diameter of the track is 1.00 km (1000 m), hence the radius r is half of that, 500 m.

Using the formula:

 a = (24.71 m/s)² / 500 m

 a = 610.3441 m²/s² / 500 m

 a = 1.22069 m/s² (approximately)

The centripetal acceleration of the race car is approximately 1.22069 m/s².

Final answer:

To connect 90-W, 120-V light bulbs to a 20-A, 120-V circuit without tripping the breaker, you can connect a maximum of 26 bulbs.

Explanation:

To determine how many 90-W, 120-V light bulbs can be connected to a 20-A, 120-V circuit without tripping the circuit breaker, we need to calculate the total power consumption of the light bulbs and compare it to the circuit's maximum current capacity.

Using the formula: Power (P) = Voltage (V) x Current (I), we can rearrange it to solve for current: I = P/V.

For each bulb, I = 90 W / 120 V = 0.75 A.

Given the maximum current capacity of the circuit is 20 A, divide the total current capacity by the current per bulb:

Total bulbs = 20 A / 0.75 A = 26.67 bulbs.

Since we can't have a fraction of a bulb, the maximum number of 90-W, 120-V light bulbs that can be connected to the circuit without tripping the breaker is 26 bulbs.

Final answer:

By calculating the current drawn by each 90-W, 120-V light bulb, we find that about 26 bulbs can be connected to a 20-A, 120-V circuit without exceeding the current limit and tripping the circuit breaker.

Explanation:

The question involves calculating the number of 90-W, 120-V light bulbs that can be connected to a 20-A, 120-V circuit. First, it is important to understand that the power rating of a light bulb (like 90 W) indicates the power consumed when it operates at its specified voltage (120 V in this case).

The power, voltage, and current are related by the formula Power (P) = Voltage (V) × Current (I).

Therefore, the current for one 90-W bulb can be found by rearranging the formula:

I = P/V, which gives I = 90 W / 120 V = 0.75 A.

Since the circuit can handle up to 20 A, you divide the total allowable current by the current per bulb: 20 A / 0.75 A/bulb = approximately 26.67.

This means you can connect 26 bulbs without tripping the circuit breaker, since you cannot connect a fraction of a bulb.

Answer:

Option (D)

Explanation:

The chemical formula for normal water is H2O and the chemical formula for heavy water is D2O.

Where D is deuterium which is the isotope of hydrogen.

There are three isotopes of hydrogen.

1H1 it is called protium.

1H2 it is called deuterium.

1H3 it is called tritium.

Heavy water usually refers to water that contains deuterium.

|V| = 10.33 units and the direction θ = -47.35° or 312.65°.

Given the x and y components of a vector, we can calculate the magnitude and direction from these components.

Applying the Pythagorean theorem we have that the magnitude of the vector is:

|V| = [tex]\sqrt{Vx^{2}+Vy^{2}  }[/tex]

|V| = [tex]\sqrt{(7.00units)^{2}+(-7.60units)^{2}} = \sqrt{106units^{2}} = 10.33units[/tex]

The expression for the direction of a vector comes from the definition of the tangent of an angle:

tan θ = [tex]\frac{Vy}{Vx}[/tex] ------>  θ = arc tan [tex]\frac{Vy}{Vx}[/tex]

θ = arc tan [tex]\frac{-7.60units}{7.00units}[/tex]

θ = -47.35° or 312.65°

Final answer:

The magnitude of vector V is found using the Pythagorean theorem, and the direction of V is determined using the arctan function with the known x and y components of V.

Explanation:

To find the magnitude of V, we use the Pythagorean theorem to combine the orthogonal components Vx and Vy. This is given by the equation V = √(Vx² + Vy²). Substituting the given values, we get V = √(7.00² + (-7.60)²) units.

After calculating the magnitude, we determine the direction of V by finding the angle θ relative to the x-axis, using the inverse tangent function (arctan). The formula is θ = tan⁻¹ (Vy/Vx). Since Vy is negative, the vector is in the 4th quadrant, with an angle measured clockwise from the positive x-axis.

Answer:

The coefficient of friction is 0.56

Explanation:

It is given that,

Mass of the automobile, m = 1400 kg

Speed of the automobile, v = 23 m/s

Radius of the track, r = 95 m

The automobile is moving in a circular track. The centripetal force is given by :

[tex]F_c=\dfrac{mv^2}{r}[/tex]............(1)

Frictional force is given by :

[tex]F_f=\mu mg[/tex]...................(2)

[tex]\mu[/tex] = coefficient of friction

g = acceleration due to gravity

From equation (1) and (2), we get :

[tex]\dfrac{mv^2}{r}=\mu mg[/tex]

[tex]\mu=\dfrac{v^2}{rg}[/tex]

[tex]\mu=\dfrac{(23\ m/s)^2}{95\ m\times 9.8\ m/s^2}[/tex]

[tex]\mu=0.56[/tex]

So, the coefficient of friction is 0.56. Hence, this is the required solution.

To find the coefficient of friction, calculate the maximum speed at which the car can negotiate the curve without slipping using the formula v = √(μrg). Plug in the values and solve for μ to get the coefficient of friction. The approximate value is 0.24.

To find the coefficient of friction, we will first calculate the maximum speed at which the car can negotiate the curve without slipping. The maximum speed is given by the formula:

v = √(μrg)

Where v is the maximum speed, μ is the coefficient of friction, r is the radius of the curve, and g is the acceleration due to gravity.

Plugging in the values, we get:

23 = √(μ * 1400 * 9.8 * 95)

Squaring both sides of the equation, we have:

529 = μ * 1400 * 9.8 * 95

Simplifying the equation, we find:

μ = 529 / (1400 * 9.8 * 95)

Calculating the value, we get:

μ ≈ 0.24

Therefore, the coefficient of friction is approximately 0.24.

Answer:

Output power of the charger is 9.85 watts.

Explanation:

It is given that,

Output current of the USB charger, I = 1.97 A

The standard USB output voltage, V = 5 V

We need to find the output power of the charger. It can be determined using the following formula as :

P = V × I

[tex]P=5\ V\times 1.97\ A[/tex]

P = 9.85 watts

The output power of the charger is 9.85 watts. Hence, this is the required solution.

The USB charger's output power, in watts, is calculated using the formula P = IV. Substituting the given values of current (1.97 A) and voltage (5 V) gives a power output of 9.85 W.

The power output of any device is calculated using the formula P = IV where I is the current in amperes and V is the voltage in volts. Given that the quick USB charger has an output current I of 1.97 amps and a standard USB output voltage V of 5 volts, we can substitute these values into our formula.


Thus, the power is P = IV = (1.97 A)(5 V) = 9.85 W. This means the output power of the quick USB charger is 9.85 watts. It's crucial to remember that power is measured in watts, where 1 watt is equivalent to 1 Ampere Volt (1 A.V = 1W).

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Answer:

D

Explanation:

After each half life, half the original amount remains.

So after two half lives, (1/2)^2 remains, or 1/4.

Answer:

6.6 N

Explanation:

Let's take the direction of the force of 4.0 N as positive x-direction. This means that the force of 3.0 N is at 40 degrees above it. So the components of the two forces along the x- and y-directions are:

[tex]F_{1x} = 4.0 N\\F_{1y} = 0[/tex]

[tex]F_{2x} = 3.0 N cos 40^{\circ}=2.3 N\\F_{2y} = 3.0 N sin 40^{\circ} = 1.9 N[/tex]

So the resultant has components

[tex]F_x = F_{1x}+F_{2x}=4.0 N +2.3 N = 6.3 N\\F_y = F_{1y} + F_{2y} = 0 + 1.9 N = 1.9 N[/tex]

So the magnitude of the resultant is

[tex]F=\sqrt{F_x^2 +F_y^2}=\sqrt{(6.3)^2+(1.9)^2}=6.6 N[/tex]

And in order for the body to be balanced, the third force must be equal and opposite (in direction) to this force: so, the magnitude of the third force must be 6.6 N.

The magnitude of the resultant force when a 40 N force acts in the x-direction and a 30 N force acts in the y-direction is calculated using the Pythagorean theorem. Since these forces are perpendicular, the resultant force is the hypotenuse of a right triangle formed by the two forces, which equals 50 N.

Given a force of 40 N in the positive x-direction and a force of 30 N in the positive y-direction, these forces are perpendicular to each other. Hence, the resultant force is the hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle where the sides are the two forces.

To find the magnitude of the resultant force (R), we use the formula:

R = sqrt((40 N)^2 + (30 N)^2)

Calculate the R value (with calculator):

R = sqrt((1600) + (900))

R = sqrt(2500 N^2)

R = 50 N

Therefore, the magnitude of the resultant force is 50 N.

Final answer:

Using the kinetic energy formula, the 500-kg object moving at 40 m/s has a kinetic energy of 400,000 J, while the 1000-kg object moving at 20 m/s has a kinetic energy of 200,000 J. Therefore, the 500-kg object has larger kinetic energy.

Explanation:

To determine which object has larger kinetic energy, we can use the formula Ek = 1/2 m v2, where Ek is the kinetic energy, m is the mass of the object, and v is the velocity of the object. Plugging in the values for both objects:

Comparing the results, the 500-kg object has larger kinetic energy than the 1000-kg object. Therefore, the correct answer is:

a. The 500-kg object

Answer:

0.3 m

Explanation:

Initially, the package has both gravitational potential energy and kinetic energy.  The spring has elastic energy.  After the package is brought to rest, all the energy is stored in the spring.

Initial energy = final energy

mgh + ½ mv² + ½ kx₁² = ½ kx₂²

Given:

m = 50 kg

g = 9.8 m/s²

h = 8 sin 20º m

v = 2 m/s

k = 30000 N/m

x₁ = 0.05 m

(50)(9.8)(8 sin 20) + ½ (50)(2)² + ½ (30000)(0.05)² = ½ (30000)x₂²

x₂ ≈ 0.314 m

So the spring is compressed 0.314 m from it's natural length.  However, we're asked to find the additional deformation from the original 50mm.

x₂ − x₁

0.314 m − 0.05 m

0.264 m

Rounding to 1 sig-fig, the spring is compressed an additional 0.3 meters.

We use the principles of Kinetic and Potential Energy to establish an energy conservation equation, balancing the initial kinetic energy of the box against the potential energy stored in the spring at rest. Solving this equation gives the maximum additional deformation of the spring.

From the problem, we know that the mass of the package (m) is 50 kg, the initial speed (v) is 2 m/s, the spring's constant (k) is 30 kN/m or 30000 N/m, and the initial compression of the spring (xi) is 50 mm or 0.05 m. We are tasked to determine the maximum additional deformation (xf) of the spring in bringing the package to rest.

Your problem involves Kinetic Energy and Potential Energy concepts. If we consider the instant when the package begins to hit the spring and the moment when it comes to rest, the energy conservation law can be applied, stating that the initial kinetic energy of the box equals the work done by the spring (which is the potential energy stored in it).

So, the kinetic energy of the package when it begins to hit the spring equals 1/2 * m * v^2, and the potential energy of the spring when the package comes to rest equals 1/2 * k * (xi+xf)^2.

Therefore, equating both expressions and resolving the quadratic equation for xf, provides us with the maximum additional deformation of the spring.

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Answer:

4.41 W

Explanation:

P = IV, V = IR

P = V² / R

Given that P = 0.0625 when V = 1.50:

0.0625 = (1.50)² / R

R = 36

So the resistor is 36Ω.

When the voltage is 12.6, the power consumption is:

P = (12.6)² / 36

P = 4.41

So the power consumption is 4.41 W.

To find the power consumption of the resistor when connected to a 12.6-V car battery, we can use the formula P = IV. By substituting the given voltage into the formula and using the resistance value from the initial scenario, we can calculate the power consumed.

If a resistor with resistance R consumes 0.0625 W of electrical power when connected to a 1.50-V flashlight battery, we can determine the power consumption when the resistor is connected to a 12.6-V car battery by using the formula P = IV. Since R remains constant, we can use the same resistance value. By substituting the given voltage into the formula, we can find the current flowing through the resistor when connected to the car battery, and then calculate the power consumed.

Let's calculate the current flowing through the resistor when connected to the flashlight battery:
I = sqrt(P/R) = sqrt(0.0625/R) A
Now, let's calculate the power consumed when connected to the car battery:
P' = IV' = (sqrt(0.0625/R))(12.6)

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Answer:

It is incorrect.

Explanation:

Refrigerator magnets are actually multiple layers of magnets, and they are stacked using opposite polarities, so the south end of the magnet might be under a north, so if he puts the magnet on its side it will probably attract.

The argument that Carlos attempts to get a refrigerator magnet to stick on the S end of a bar magnet. He is unable to do so and states that the bar magnet is broken is incorrect.

A substance which is negative charged at one end and positive charged at another end creating the magnetic field around it.

A bar is a magnet which can attract the particle which are charged. It has two poles North and South.

Refrigerator magnets are having multiple layers of magnets. They are stacked using opposite polarities. So, south pole of the magnet will definitely attract a north even if it is broken.

Thus, the argument is incorrect.

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Answer:

PART A)

[tex]a_c = 72.7 m/s^2[/tex]

PART B)

T = 11.6 N

PART C)

[tex]F_{horizontal} = 11.6 N[/tex]

Explanation:

PART A)

Centripetal acceleration is given by

[tex]a_c = \frac{v^2}{R}[/tex]

now we have

[tex]a_c = \frac{4^2}{0.22}[/tex]

[tex]a_c = 72.7 m/s^2[/tex]

PART B)

Here Tension force of string is providing centripetal force

so we can say

[tex]T = ma_c[/tex]

[tex]T = 0.16(72.7) = 11.64 N[/tex]

PART C)

Force on the stone in horizontal direction is only tension force

so here we have

[tex]F_{horizontal} = T = 11.64 N[/tex]

Answer:

The wavelength of the standing wave is 3 m.

Explanation:

Given that,

Length = 6 m

Nodes = 4

We need to calculate the wave length

Using formula of nodes

[tex]L=\dfrac{n}{2}\lamda[/tex]

[tex]\lambda=\dfrac{2L}{n}[/tex]

Where, l = length

n = number of nodes

[tex]\lambda[/tex] = wavelength

Put the value into the formula

[tex]\lambda=\dfrac{2\times6}{4}[/tex]

[tex]\lambda=3\ m[/tex]

Hence, The wavelength of the standing wave is 3 m.

Answer:

Should be....

λ = 2(6)/3 = 4 m

Explanation:

λ = 2L/n where n is the antinode

n = 3 instead of 4 (4 is where the wave crosses zero)

The distance at which the smaller plane will reach its takeoff speed, we can use the equation of motion:

[tex]\[ v^2 = u^2 + 2as \][/tex]

v is the final velocity (takeoff speed) of the smaller plane (40 m/s)

u is the initial velocity (rest) of the smaller plane (0 m/s)

a is the acceleration of both planes (which is the same)

s is the distance covered by the smaller plane before reaching its takeoff speed (what we want to find)

[tex]\[ s = \frac{{v^2 - u^2}}{{2a}} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ s = \frac{{(40 \, \text{m/s})^2 - (0 \, \text{m/s})^2}}{{2a}} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ a = \frac{{v - u}}{{t}} = \frac{{(80 \, \text{m/s}) - (0 \, \text{m/s})}}{{30 \, \text{s}}} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ s = \frac{{(40 \, \text{m/s})^2}}{{2 \times \left(\frac{{80 \, \text{m/s}}}{30 \, \text{s}}\right)}} \]\[ s = \frac{{1600 \, \text{m}^2/\text{s}^2}}{{\frac{{160 \, \text{m/s}}}{30 \, \text{s}}}} \]\[ s = \frac{{1600 \, \text{m}^2/\text{s}^2 \times 30 \, \text{s}}}{{160 \, \text{m/s}}} \]\[ s = \frac{{48,000 \, \text{m}^2/\text{s}}}{{160 \, \text{m/s}}} \]\[ s = 300 \, \text{m} \][/tex]

Therefore, the smaller plane will reach its takeoff speed after traveling a distance of 300 meters.

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By using the equation of motion v² = u² + 2as, we can calculate the acceleration of the first plane based on its initial velocity, final velocity, and distance covered. Then, using the same acceleration and applying it to the second plane's parameters, we can find the distance it covers before reaching its takeoff speed.

To solve this problem, we'll make use of the equation of motion usually represented as v² = u² + 2as, where v is the final velocity, u is the initial velocity, a is the acceleration, and s is the distance covered.

For the first plane, we have v = 80 m/s, u = 0 m/s (because the plane starts from rest), and s = 1200 m. Plugging these into our equation, we can solve for a.

Once we have the acceleration, we can then apply it to the second plane to find the distance it covers (s) before reaching its takeoff speed of 40 m/s. Given a = acceleration calculated above and v = 40 m/s, u = 0 m/s (since the second plane also starts from rest), we can rearrange our equation of motion to solve for s.

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Answer:

V2 = 23.8m/s

Explanation:

as we know That,  

p1/(r*g) + (v1^2)/2*g = p2/(r*g) + (v2^2)/2*g  

p1=300kPa=300000Pa  

p2=200kPa=200000Pa  

r=1200kG/m^3  

v1 = 20 m/s  

250+200 = 166.66+(v2^2)/2  

v2=(450-166.66)*2  

v2^2 =566.68  

v2=23.8m/s

Your answer is : V2 = 23.8m/s

The speed of the flow at this second position is 23.8 m/s.

The given parameters:

The speed of the flow at this second position is calculated by applying Bernoulli's equation as follows;

[tex]P_1 + \frac{1}{2} \rho v_1^2= P_2 + \frac{1}{2} \rho v_2 ^2\\\\(P_1 - P_2) + \frac{1}{2} \rho v_1^2 = \frac{1}{2} \rho v_2 ^2\\\\2(P_1-P_2) + \rho v_1^2 = \rho v_2^2\\\\\frac{2(P_1-P_2) }{\rho} + v_1^2 = v_2^2\\\\\sqrt{\frac{2(P_1-P_2) }{\rho} + v_1^2} = v_2\\\\\sqrt{\frac{2(300,000-200,000) }{1200} + 20^2}= v_2 \\\\\sqrt{566.67} = v_2\\\\23.8\ m/s = \ v_2[/tex]

Thus, the speed of the flow at this second position is 23.8 m/s.

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Answer:

Linear density, Length, and tension in the string

Explanation:

The fundamental frequency of an oscillating string is given by:

[tex]f=\frac{1}{2L}\sqrt{\frac{T}{\mu}}[/tex]

where

L is the length of the string

T is the tension in the string

[tex]\mu[/tex] is the linear density of the string, which can also be rewritten as

[tex]\mu = \frac{m}{L}[/tex]

where m is the mass of the string.

Therefore, we can say that in order to change the fundamental frequency of the string, we can change either its lenght, or its tension or its linear density.

Answer:

Angle of banking be 15.64 degrees.

Explanation:

It is given that,

Radius of banked road comer, r = 146 m

Velocity of vehicle, v = 20 m/s

Banking angle is defined as the angle at which a vehicle is in inclined position. Angle of banking is given by :

[tex]tan\ \theta=\dfrac{v^2}{rg}[/tex]  , g = acceleration due to gravity

[tex]tan\ \theta=\dfrac{(20\ m/s)^2}{146\ m\times 9.8\ m/s^2}[/tex]

[tex]tan\ \theta=0.28[/tex]

[tex]\theta=tan^{-1}(0.28)[/tex]

[tex]\theta=15.64\ degrees[/tex]

Where, [tex]\theta[/tex] = angle of banking

Hence, this is the required solution.

Answer:

At 11.5 m

Explanation:

The power per unit area corresponds to the intensity, which is given by

[tex]I=\frac{P}{4\pi r^2}[/tex]

where

P is the power

[tex]4\pi r^2[/tex] is the area irradiated at a distance r from the source (it corresponds to the surface area of a sphere of radius r)

Here we want the intensity of the two light bulbs to be the same, so

[tex]I_1 = I_2\\\frac{P_1}{4 \pi r_1^2}=\frac{P_2}{4\pi r_2^2}[/tex]

where we have

P1 = 100 W is the power of the first light bulb

P2 = 75 W is the power of the second light bulb

r2 = 10 m is the distance from the second light bulb

Solving for r1, we find

[tex]r_1 = r_2 \sqrt{\frac{P_1}{P_2}}= (10 m) \sqrt{\frac{100 W}{75 W}} = 11.5 m[/tex]

The distance at which a 100 Watt lightbulb delivers the same power per unit surface area as a 75 Watt lightbulb at 10m is approximately 14.6 meters.

The question is asking for the distance at which a 100 Watt lightbulb delivers the same power per unit surface area as a 75 Watt lightbulb at 10 m away. The intensity (power per unit area) of the light from a bulb diminishes with the square of the distance from the source. This is because the power (in Watts) is distributed over the surface area of a sphere, and the surface area of a sphere increases with the square of the radius (distance), following the formula 4πr².

First, we calculate the intensity I75 of the 75 Watt bulb at 10 m distance. That gives us: I75 = P75/4πr² = 75W/4π(10m)² ≈ 0.60 W/m².

Now, we want to find the distance r100 at which the 100 Watt bulb would deliver this same intensity. Solving the similar formula for r100 gives us: r100 = sqrt(P100/4πI75) = sqrt(100W/4π(0.60 W/m²)) ≈ 14.6 m.

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