Answer:
Enzyme: A biomolecule that speed up the rate of chemical reactions without being used up.
Substrate: A substance or chemical that enter the chemical reaction and is being converted into a new substance (product).
Competitive enzyme inhibition: Inhibition of enzyme's activity by binding of inhibitor to substrate binding site of the enzyme.
Explanation:
Enzymes are the biomolecules that serve to increase the rate of reactions by lowering down the required activation energy. The enzyme is never used up during reactions.
Substrates are the chemicals that undergo a chemical change and produce products.
For example, Glucose is the substrate for hexokinase enzyme and is converted into glucose 6 phosphate (the product).
When the inhibitor competes with the substrate for the binding site on the enzyme and does not allow the substrate to bind to the enzyme, the process is called competitive enzyme inhibition. It can be overcome by increasing the concentration of substrate in the system.
What region of the brain is known as the "relay center" for ALL sensory information
a. Thalamus
b. Hypothalamus
c. Epithalamus
d. Corpus collosum
e. Cerebral peduncles
The answer is A, Thalamus.
Name five essential components of a reflex arc.
Answer:
Receptor, Sensory Neuron, Integration center, Motor neuron, Effector.
Therefore these are the 5 essential components of a reflex arc.
* Hopefully this helpe:) mark me the brainliest :))
The five essential components of a reflex arc are the sensory receptor, sensory neuron, integrating center, motor neuron, and effector.
Explanation:A reflex arc is a circuit that involves a sensory input and motor output, connected by an afferent branch and an efferent branch, with an integrating center in between. The essential components of a reflex arc are:
Sensory receptor: This detects a stimulus, such as pain or pressure. Sensory neuron: This carries the information from the receptor to the integrating center.Integrating center: This is usually in the spinal cord or brain and processes the sensory information.Motor neuron: This carries the response signal from the integrating center to the effector.Effector: This is the muscle or glandular tissue that carries out the motor response. Learn more about reflex arc here:https://brainly.com/question/14473426
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Follicular dendritic cells reside primarily in which of the following tissue/organ?
Question 9 options:
A)
the bone marrow
B)
the thymus
C)
primary lymphoid tissues
D)
secondary lymphoid tissues
E)
none of these
Answer:
The correct answer will be option D-secondary lymphoid tissues.
Explanation:
Follicular dendritic cells or FDCs are non-migratory dendrite cells found in the follicles of B cell areas of any secondary lymphoid organs and belong to the stromal cells of these lymphoid organs.
They help in providing immunity by shaping the responses of B in the chronic inflammatory response and auto-immune disease. These cell help in the selection of memory B cells by presenting antigens to potential memory cells to which only B cell with B cell receptors can bind.
Thus, option D-secondary lymphoid tissues is the correct answer.
1. Choose the planet other than Earth that interests you most.
2. Create a newspaper article, real estate advertisement or letter that describes the characteristics of your planet
Answer:
jupiter
Explanation:
Which diagnostic test is the most preferred to detect liver cancer?
Answer:
A CT scan with contrast is what dr.s order first
Explanation:
This method is more cost effective for patients. the contrast that is injested makes the organs more detailed and visible, if there are any suspicions, the dr will order further testing.
If there are 4 molecules of glucose, how many ATP molecules would you produce in aerobic cell respiration?
A) 152
B) 8-10
C) 400
D) 25
Answer:
Option A, 152
Explanation:
One glucose molecule undergoes the following three process in one complete chain of aerobic cell respiration -
a) Glycolysis - 2 ATP molecules are produced
b) Kerb cycle - 2 ATP molecules are produced
c) Electron transport chain - 34 ATP molecules are produced
Hence one glucose molecule can produce 38 ATP molecule
Therefore 4 glucose molecule produce
[tex]38 * 4\\= 152[/tex] ATP molecules
Hence, option A is correct.
Answer:
A) 152
Explanation:
Aerobic respiration involves the breakdown of glucose in the presence of oxygen to produce carbon dioxide, water and energy in the form of ATP.
Theoretically, 38 molecules of ATP is yielded from one molecule of glucose during aerobic cellular respiration.
Hence, if 1 molecule of glucose produces 38 molecules of ATP;
4 molecules of glucose will produce: 4 x 38 = 152 molecules ATP
The correct option is A.
The immediate energy system (ATP-PC) relies on:
a. the reactions of glycolysis
b. oxygen availability in the immediate cellular environment
c. the high-energy phosphates stored in muscle cells
d. the oxidation of lactate
Answer:
c. the high-energy phosphates stored in muscle cells
Explanation:
Phosphocreatine (PC) or creatine phosphate is a compound rich in energy. It has energy stored in it which can be used to phosphorylate ADP into ATP. The phosphocreatine is stored in muscle cells when muscles are not working. The produced ATP serves as an energy source for muscle contraction. The creatine produced during ATP production is phosphorylated again into PC using ATP when muscles are resting.
You are examining another neuron, and find that it has two processes, both of which generate action potentials. What is the structural class of this neuron? How did you come to this conclusion?
Answer: This is a pseudounipolar neuron.
Explanation: A pseudounipolar neuron has two axons, a central process and a peripheral process. Both processes are capable of generating action potentials, and so both are axons.
Answer:
This is an example of the neurons named pseudounipolar in which the two axons a central process and a peripheral process.
A pseudounipolar neuron is a kind of neuron in which one extension can be seen coming out of its cell body.
This neuron has the ability to split into two branches. One branch can travel the peripheral nervous system and the other reaches the central nervous system.
This can be concluded because it has two place of processing one is central and other is peripheral.
One of the most common spontaneous lesions that occurs in DNA under physiological conditions is the hydrolysis of the amino group of cytosine, converting the cytosine to uracil. What would be the effect on DNA structure of a uracil group replacing cytosine?
Which of the following is the functional unit of a myofibril?
a. sarcomere
b. myofilament
c. sarcolemma
d. endomysium
Answer:
Sarcomere
Explanation:
Myofibril is the unit of the muscle cell. The myofibril is rod like in structure and developed by the process of myogenesis in embryo.
Sarcomere is the basic structural unit of the skeletal muscles and shows striations under the microscope. Sarcomere consists of thick and thin filaments of actin and myosin. Different bands like A- band , H-Band, I-Band and Z- line is visible in the sarcomere.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
Which of the following is true of valves in veins?
A) They are associated with venous sinuses
B) They are most abundant in limbs
C) They contract to propel blood forward
D) They prevent blood pressure in veins from dipping below that of arteries
Answer:
A
Explanation:
they are associated with venous sinuses.this valve open one way flow of direction of the heart.
Muscle that adducts the thigh
a. Adductor longus
b. Gastrocnemius
Final answer:
The Adductor longus is the muscle that adducts the thigh, moving it toward the body's midline. It also medially rotates and flexes the thigh.
Explanation:
The muscle that adducts the thigh is responsible for moving the thigh towards the midline of the body. Among the options provided, a. Adductor longus is the muscle that performs this function. The adductor longus muscle not only adducts the thigh but also medially rotates and flexes it. It is important to differentiate it from the gastrocnemius, which is primarily involved in plantar flexing the ankle and does not adduct the thigh. The adductor magnus is another muscle in the medial compartment that has an anterior fascicle which adducts, medially rotates, and flexes the thigh, and a posterior fascicle that helps in extending the thigh.
List three general functions of the thoracic cage.
Answer:
1. Protects the heart, abdominal organs, and lungs
2. helps with breathing
3. supports the bones of the shoulder girdle & arms.
Explanation:
The thoracic cage is a part of the skeleton system, formed of 12 pairs of ribs, costal cartilages, the sternum, and the 12 thoracic vertebrae.
Three major functions of the thoracic cage are -
-The thoracic cage has a heart, lungs, and some abdominal organs in its cavity and prevents it from any shock or injury.
-As thoracic cage contains the lungs in its cavity, When the muscular diaphragm contracts and flattens, an inhalation is completed while the contraction of intercostal muscles rise the thoracic cage up and out.
-The thoracic cage provides attachments for muscles of the upper limbs, neck, abdomen, thorax, and back and supports the shoulder girdle.
The thoracic cage serves three crucial functions: protection, support, and respiration.
Explanation:The thoracic cage, or ribcage, serves several important functions:
Protection: The thoracic cage encloses and protects the organs of the thoracic cavity, including the heart and lungs. It acts as a shield, preventing injury to these vital organs.Support: The thoracic cage provides support for the shoulder girdles and upper limbs. It serves as the attachment point for various muscles, including those in the back, chest, neck, and shoulders. This support allows for the movement and stability of the upper body.Respiration: The ribcage plays a crucial role in respiration. Changes in the volume of the thorax, caused by the movements of the ribs and diaphragm, enable breathing. The ribs expand during inhalation and contract during exhalation, allowing for the exchange of gases in the lungs.Learn more about Functions of the thoracic cage here:https://brainly.com/question/12886021
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Which is not a normal component of lymph?
A) water
B) plasma proteins
C) red blood cells
D) ions
Answer:
Red blood cells
Explanation:
Lymph is a colorless fluid that flows in the lymphatic system of an organism. Lymph transport proteins and interstitial fluid back into the circulation.
Lymph consists of proteins, ions, water and lymphocytes. Lymph donot contain red blood cells and hence the fluid is white in appearance. Lymph mixes with blood in subclavian veins.
Thus, the correct answer is option (C).
Red blood cells are not a component of lymph. Lymph is a fluid that consists of primarily white blood cells, water, plasma proteins, and ions.
Explanation:The component that is not a normal part of lymph is red blood cells (option C). Lymph is a clear, colorless fluid that is part of the body's immune system. It primarily consists of white blood cells (specifically lymphocytes), as well as water, plasma proteins, and ions. However, it does not contain red blood cells, which are confined to the bloodstream and not the lymphatic system.
Learn more about Lymph here:https://brainly.com/question/31717879
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Which statement about the knee is INCORRECT?
a.) The deep cups created by the tibial condyles help to stabilize the joint.
b.) Several bursae secrete synovial fluid to lubricate the knee.
c.) The knee is vulnerable to lateral forces that can cause injury.
d.) Several ligaments cross the knee to stabilize the knee in several directions.
Answer:
a.) The deep cups created by the tibial condyles help to stabilize the joint.
Explanation:
The incorrect statement about the knee is 'The deep cups created by the tibial condyles help to stabilize the joint.' The knee is primarily stabilized by ligaments and muscles, not by the tibial condyles.
Explanation:The incorrect statement about the knee is the first option (a). The tibial condyles do form part of the knee joint, but they do not create deep cups to stabilize the joint. Instead, the knee joint is stabilized by other structures such as ligaments and muscles. The tibial condyles articulate with the femoral condyles to form the knee joint.
In contrast, options (b), (c), and (d) are all correct. Bursae in the knee do secrete synovial fluid to lubricate the joint and reduce friction. The knee is indeed vulnerable to lateral forces that can cause injury. And several ligaments do cross the knee to stabilize the joint in several directions.
Learn more about Knee anatomy here:https://brainly.com/question/36429945
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Which ion has the intracellular concentration?
A. Bicarbonate
B. Chloride
C. Potassium
D. Sodium
Answer: The answer is potassium. Its the major ion in the intracellular region.
Explanation: Extracellulary, Sodium is major ion. Intracellular concentration of sodium is: 12 mEq/L Extracellular concentration of sodium is: 140 mEq/L Intracellularly, Potassium is major ion.
Assuming a synapse is excitatory, which of the following would tend to strengthen a synapse? a. A drug that enhances reuptake of the transmitter b. An antagonist to the receptor c. A drug that blocks calcium entry into the presynaptic terminal d. A drug that inhibits an enzyme in the synaptic cleft that degrades the neurotransmitter
Answer:
C
Explanation:
calcium ions stimulate the release of acetylcholine
Excitatory synapse is defined as the in which the positive action potential is caused in the neurons and cells.
The correct answer is:
Option D. A drug that inhibits an enzyme in the synaptic cleft that degrades the neurotransmitter
Excitatory synapse can be explained as:
1. Excitatory synapse will be determined by the neurotransmitter if it is released from the presynaptic neuron. The neurotransmitter will inhibit or excite the receiving neuron.
2. The synapse can be strengthened by the drug that inhibits the synaptic cleft that degrades the neurotransmitter. The calcium influx triggers the synaptic vesicles to bind to the presynaptic membrane.
3. The action potential causes the release of ACh into the synaptic cleft that causes the conformational change in the membrane channels.
Thus, the correct answer is Option C.
To know more about neurotransmitters, refer to the following link:
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These cells do not function as antigen presenting cells (APCs)?
a. Macrophages and Langerhans cells
b. B cells and Langerhans cells
c. B cells and macrophages
d. Helper T cells and CD8 T cells
e. B cells and dendritic cells
Answer:
Birds feathers are modified scales. true or false
Explanation:
What is the term for the muscles of the mouth?
Answer: Im pretty sure it's the orbicularis oris muscle.
What is found inside synaptic vesicles?
a. calcium
b. acetylcholine
c. receptor proteins
d. acetylcholinesterase
Hello There!
Inside synaptic vesicles, you can find Acetylcholine which is an acetic acid.
41) When blood pressure receptors sense a loss of blood pressure, they ________ their firing rate.A) increaseB) decrease
A I believe because the blood pressure always increases when you are stressed or something like that
Which organs are primarily responsible for removing old or worn red blood cells from circulation?
Answer:
Liver and spleen is primarily responsible for removing old or worn red blood cells from circulation.
Explanation:
Red blood cells that are old, tear and worn out requires the removal of these cells from the circulation. Spleen removes the old and worn cells by the process of phagocytosis. Macrophages present in the spleen phagocytose the worn RBCs and old RBCs are recycled by the spleen.
Liver also removes the old and worn RBCs from the circulation and recycles iron present in the red blood cells. Liver rely on the buffer system that consume worn RBCs and has the ability of recycling iron.
The spleen and liver are primarily responsible for removing old or worn red blood cells, helped by macrophages in those organs and the bone marrow. These organs ensure the continual renewal of healthy RBCs in circulation.
Explanation:The organs that are primarily responsible for removing old or worn red blood cells (RBCs) from circulation are the spleen, liver, and to some extent, the bone marrow. RBCs have a lifespan of approximately 120 days, after which they become old or damaged. These worn-out cells are then phagocytized by a type of myeloid phagocytic cell called a macrophage. Macrophages located within the spleen, liver, and bone marrow perform this task efficiently. The spleen acts as a blood filter and also serves as a reservoir for immune factors, whereas the liver processes the components of the degraded erythrocytes' hemoglobin, turning them into bile pigments for excretion.
The kidneys also play a vital role in the circulatory system by filtering the blood, removing waste products and excessive or free hemoglobin, especially during hemolysis, where RBCs are broken down and their hemoglobin is released into the bloodstream, but the primary role in the removal of old RBCs lies with the spleen and liver.
Which of the following are materials or equipment used in this lab to extract DNA?
Mark ALL responses that apply.
a. centrifuge and sample tubes
b. centrifuges and micro pipettes
c. centrifuge, micro pipettes, warm water bath
d. liquid chemical solutions and cheek swab
e. inoculating loop and flame
Answer:
centrifuges and micro pipettes are used to extract DNA..
Centrifuges and micro pipettes are materials or equipment used in this lab to extract DNA .
What steps does DNA extraction involve?There are five basic steps of DNA extraction:
Breaking cells open to release the DNA. Separating DNA from proteins and other cellular debris.Precipitating the DNA with an alcohol. Cleaning the DNA.Confirming the presence and quality of the DNA.Hence , B is correct option
To learn more about DNA extraction, here
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In regards to a patient who is hypoxic, what is the minimum number we look for in a patient's oxygen saturation?
a) 85%
b) 88%
c) 91%
d) 94%
Answer: the correct answer is c) 91%
Values under 60 mm Hg usually indicate the need for supplemental oxygen. Normal pulse oximeter readings usually range from 95 to 100 percent.
As stated above, a reading of 94 to 99 percent or higher indicates normal oxygen saturation, and anything below 90 percent is considered to be low blood oxygen, also known as hypoxemia.
Explanation:
Hypoxemia occurs when oxygen levels in the blood become so low that tissues and organs in the body don't get the oxygen they need. This happens because COPD damages the air sacs, which means the lungs cannot transfer the available oxygen to the bloodstream.
Which cranial nerve is responsible for shoulder shrugging?
Answer: I believe it is the accessory nerve
Some problems with use of DNA analysis for forensic evidence may occur because of
identical twins.
not enough of a sample.
contaminated samples.
degraded samples.
All of the above.
Answer: Option D " all of the above "
Explanation: DNA can be a great source of information when used as a forensic evidence. This technique has many advantages and disadvantages when used as a source of information in case of crime.
Identical twins: There are some common fragments of DNA that is same in identical twins so it can be a difficulty in deciding the criminal.
Not enough of a sample: DNA should be present in a detectable amount to be used an sample for evidence, less than this detectable amount is a waste and cannot be used as a sample for evidence.
Contaminated and degraded sample: If the sample of DNA is contaminated or degraded then the result might be incorrect and might not be used as a sample for forensic evidence.
Hence, the correct answers are all of the above.
In the cardiac cycle,
A. the right atrium and the right ventricle contract simultaneously.
B. the two atria relax while the two ventricles contract.
C. the left atrium contracts before the right atrium.
D. all four chambers of the heart contract at the same time.
E. all four chambers of the heart are in systole at the same time.
Final answer:
The correct answer is B, where the two atria relax while the two ventricles contract. This represents the ventricular systole phase of the cardiac cycle, in which the ventricles contract to pump blood while the atria are relaxed, filling with blood.
Explanation:
The cardiac cycle consists of a period of relaxation known as diastole followed by a period of contraction called systole. During diastole, the heart muscle is relaxed and blood flows into the heart. At this time, the right and left atria are relaxed and the right and left ventricles are also relaxed, allowing blood to flow from the atria to the ventricles through open atrioventricular valves. At the end of diastole, the atria contract (atrial systole), enhancing the filling of the ventricles. Following this, the ventricles contract (ventricular systole), which forces blood out of the heart to the lungs and the rest of the body. This sequence is carefully regulated to ensure efficient blood pumping.
Given the choices in the question and the facts presented, the correct answer is B. The two atria relax while the two ventricles contract. This phase corresponds to ventricular systole, where the right and left ventricles contract to pump blood into the pulmonary artery and aorta, respectively, while the atria are in their diastole (relaxing) phase to receive blood from the body and the lungs.
Where is the information stored in the DNA?
Answer:
he genetic information is stored in the chemical structure of the DNA.
Explanation:
What region is the main control center for autonomic functions
a. Thalamus
b. Hypothalamus
c. Epithalamus
d. Pons
e. Medulla oblongata
Answer:
b,
Explanation:
the hypothalamus, just above the brain stem
What type of tissue shortens to perform its function?
Answer:
The muscle tissue shortens to performs it's function which we know as muscle contraction