Which of the following happens when a cell divides? Select one: a. The cell's volume increases. b. It becomes more difficult for the cell to get enough oxygen and nutrients. c. The cell has DNA overload. d. Each daughter cell receives its own copy of the parent cell's DNA.
Explanation:
During mitosis repeated chromosomes are positioned close to the center of the cytoplasm and then isolated so every girl cell gets a duplicate of the first DNA (in the event that you start with 46 in the parent cell, you should wind up with 46 chromosomes in every little girl cell). To do this cells use microtubules (alluded to as the axle mechanical assembly) to "pull" chromosomes into every "cell". The microtubules have the 9+2 game plan examined before Animal cells (with the exception of a gathering of worms known as nematodes) have a centriole. Plants and most other eukaryotic living beings need centrioles. Prokaryotes, obviously, need shafts and centrioles; the phone layer expects this capacity when it pulls the by-then recreated chromosomes separated during parallel splittingCells that contain centrioles additionally have a progression of littler microtubules, the aster, that stretch out from the centrioles to the cell film. The aster is thought to fill in as a prop for the working of the axle strandsHence, the right answer is option "d"Some organisms can create a sodium motive force by pumping sodium ions across a membrane using the energy of an electron transport system. In order for this sodium motive force to provide useful energy for the cell, the organism must contain __________.
Answer:
an Na+ driven synthase
Explanation:
Some organism have sodium driven synthase which actively transport the sodium ions across the cell membrane with the help of energy of electron transport chain.
In most bacteria, there are antiporters that are used to exchange sodium ions with proton which is driven by electrochemical proton potential. So these organisms converts proton motive force into sodium motive force.
In humans also there are antiporter called sodium-potassium pumps which use ATP energy to transport sodium out of the cell.
Which of the following is not cited as an environmental drawback to the development of aquaculture worldwide? a. Aquaculture often leads to overexploitation of marine organisms. b. Pollution from aquaculture facilities can harm nearby wild organisms and ecosystems. c. Aquaculture can compete for space along crowded coastlines, resulting in the destruction of natural ecosystems like mangroves. d. Many farmed fish species are carnivorous, so can be an inefficient use of other potential food sources.
Answer:
b. Pollution from aquaculture facilities can harm nearby wild organisms and ecosystems.
Explanation:
Aquaculture has to do with deliberate rearing and harvesting of aquatic animal species in a controlled aquatic environment for the purpose of consumption and other human uses.
Since aquaculture is concerned mainly with the aquatic environment, any form of associated pollution will be limited to the aquatic environment and harming nearby wild organisms and ecosystem might not arise.
The correct option is b.
Bear pigmentation is subject to epistasis of the B alleles by the d alleles. B (black) is dominant over b (brown). D is dominant over d. Homozygous d is epistatic to the black and brown genes. Given this information, what will result from a F1 cross between two bears
Answer:
9/16 black, 3/16 brown, 4/16 white
Explanation:
BD Bd bD bd
BD BBDD BBDd BbDD BbDd
Bd BBDd BBdd BbDd Bbdd
bD BbDD BbDd bbDD bbDd
bd BbDd Bbdd bbDd bbdd
A punnet square can be described as a diagram which is made to predict the genotype as well as the phenotypes of the offsprings of a cross.
To study the epistatis nature of the pigmentation in bear, a punnet square was made and the results of the punnet square are shown above.
The results of the punnet square show that the cross between two bears will have the chances of producing 9/16 black bears, 3/16 brown bears and 4/16 white bears.
Which are the main points of the cell theory? Select all that apply. A. Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things. B. New cells are produced from existing cells. C. All cells enclose their DNA within a nucleus. D. All living things are made up of cells.
The cell theory emphasizes that cells are the fundamental units of structure and function, new cells arise from pre-existing cells, and all living organisms are comprised of cells. Here options A, B, and D are correct.
A. Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things. This means that all living organisms, from the tiniest bacteria to the largest whales, are built from tiny, membrane-bound units called cells. These cells are like the building blocks of life, responsible for carrying out all the essential processes that keep an organism alive and functioning.
B. New cells are produced from existing cells. This concept, known as cell division, ensures the continuity of life. Cells don't just spontaneously appear; they arise from the division of pre-existing cells. This process allows organisms to grow, repair damaged tissues, and reproduce.
D. All living things are made up of cells. This fundamental principle encompasses the universality of cellular life. Whether it's a simple single-celled organism like an amoeba or a complex multicellular organism like a human, all living things are composed of one or more cells. Here options A, B, and D are correct.
Describe four ways that species are being threatened with extinction globally
Answer:
Pollution, community growth, Global warming, and animal hunting
Explanation:
there are many different things that humans are doing to get the animals population to decrease everyday.
Pollution, community growth, Global warming, and animal hunting.
What are species?
A species is a unit of biodiversity as well as the fundamental classification and taxonomic rank of an organism in biology.
A species can also be identified by its karyotype, DNA sequence, anatomy, behavior, or ecological niche. In addition, since fossil reproduction cannot be studied, paleontologists use the chronospecies idea.
There are between 8 and 8.7 million different species of eukaryotes, according to the most recent accurate estimate. But by 2011, just 14% of these had been described. All species, with the exception of viruses, have a two-part.
Therefore, Pollution, community growth, Global warming, and animal hunting.
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Mrs. Wade has type O blood, and her mother has type B blood. Her mother stated that her father has type AB blood. What is the chance that he is her father?
Answer: The chance of he being her father is 0.
Explanation:
The mother with blood type B,
The father with blood type AB,
Mrs Wade the offspring with blood type O.
Possible genotypes for both parents:
Mother is BB or BO,
Father is AB.
Since the offspring is having blood type O, we consider a cross between BO of mother and AB of father.
Mother father
Parents gametes: BO x. AB
Offsprings. AB, AB, AO, BO.
From the cross the genotypes that are possible of carrying O are AO and BO but this cannot be used to say that the baby will have blood type O because the O present in AO and BO is recessive gene.
Also, for the baby to have blood type O, she must have gotten one allele from each parent to have a genotype OO which is not so in this case.
Therefore, the chance that he is her father is 0.
All of the following categories were established by the Elizabethan Poor Law except: Select one: a. The able-bodied poor b. The impotent poor c. Dependent children d. The indigent poor
Answer:
d. The indigent poor
Explanation:
The Elizabethan Poor Law or the English Poor Law was established to cater for the poor in Wales and England.
The Elizabethan poor laws gave power to the local government increase taxes when necessary, to cater for the needs of the poor, by building houses for the disabled, aged and the poor; and also provide necessary tools to enable the unemployed get back work.
Elizabethan Poor Law established three categories of relief recipients, they include dependent children, the able-bodied poor and the impotent poor
When researchers are measuring plant productivity, they usually harvest and measure above-ground biomass. But with grassland plants, it is common to find that most of an individual's biomass is in its root system. Why don't researchers measure below-ground biomass as well?
Answer:
Because of the fibrous root network of grasses.
Explanation:
Measuring below ground biomass of grass plants is technically impossible and difficult because of the fibrous root network different plants form with one another and within the soil. The network virtually makes it impossible to individually extract all the underground biomass of each grass.
Final answer:
Researchers measure above-ground biomass when measuring plant productivity because it is easier to measure and provides a good estimate of the plant's overall biomass. However, grassland plants have a significant portion of their biomass in their root system, which is not measured. Measuring below-ground biomass is challenging due to difficulties in accurately measuring the highly branched and spread out root system.
Explanation:
Researchers usually measure above-ground biomass when measuring plant productivity because it is easier to measure and provides a good estimate of the plant's overall biomass. Above-ground biomass includes the stems, leaves, and flowers of the plant, which are responsible for photosynthesis and the production of resources for other living things. However, it is important to note that in grassland plants, a significant portion of the plant's biomass is in its root system.
Measuring below-ground biomass can be challenging because it is difficult to accurately measure the root system without damaging it. Roots can be highly branched and spread out in the soil, making it hard to capture their full biomass. Additionally, digging up the soil to measure below-ground biomass can disturb the plant and the surrounding ecosystem.
By focusing on above-ground biomass, researchers can still get a good estimate of plant productivity and its contribution to ecosystem functioning and resource availability.
Sodium ions, oxygen (O2), and glucose pass directly through lipid bilayers at dramatically different rates. Which of the following choices presents the correct order, from fastest to slowest?A. Glucose, oxygen, sodium ions.
B. Glucose, sodium ions, oxygen.
C. Oxygen, glucose, sodium ions.
D. Oxygen, sodium ions, glucose.
E. Sodium ions, glucose, oxygen.
F. Sodium ions, oxygen, glucose.
The substances cross the lipid bilayer at different rates due to their properties. Oxygen passes fastest, then sodium ions, and glucose passes slowest. Hence, the answer is 'Oxygen, sodium ions, glucose'.
Explanation:The rates at which different substances can cross the lipid bilayer depend on their chemical properties. Oxygen (O2) can cross the quickest due to its small size and non-polar nature, enabling it to move directly through the lipid bilayer easily. On the other hand, glucose, as a large polar molecule, cannot cross the lipid bilayer directly without assistance (usually by a process called facilitated diffusion). Sodium ions, despite their small size, are charged and hence require a transporter to move across the lipid bilayer (usually through a process called active transport).
Therefore, the correct order from fastest to slowest is oxygen, sodium ions, and glucose, or choice D. Oxygen, sodium ions, glucose.
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Why are primers needed for DNA replication? They help direct the placement of the telomeres. They help with the joining of Okazaki fragments. The primers help with the proofreading function of DNA polymerase. DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to an existing chain. A tiny amount of RNA is needed to tell the cell where genes are located.
Explanation:
Primase makes a RNA groundwork, or short stretch of nucleic corrosive reciprocal to the layout, that gives a 3' end for DNA polymerase to take a shot at. A normal groundwork is around five to ten nucleotides in length. The preliminary primes DNA amalgamation, i.e., kicks it off. When the RNA preliminary is set up, DNA polymerase "extends" it, adding nucleotides individually to make another DNA strand that is integral to the layout strand. DNA polymerases can just make DNA in the 5' to 3' directions, and this represents an issue during replication. A DNA double helix is constantly hostile to resemble; as it were, one strand runs in the 5' to 3' heading, while different runs in the 3' to 5' bearing. This makes it fundamental for the two new strands, which are likewise antiparallel to their layouts, to be made in somewhat various ways.Primers are necessary for DNA replication because DNA polymerase requires an existing strand to add nucleotides. They facilitate the creation of Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand and are crucial for the replication of chromosome ends by telomerase, thus protecting the genetic information during cell division.
Explanation:Primers are an essential component of DNA replication because DNA polymerase can only add nucleotides to an existing chain of DNA. In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, replication begins with the synthesis of a short RNA primer by the enzyme primase. This primer serves as a starting point for DNA polymerase to extend the new DNA strand.
The leading strand is synthesized continuously using a single primer, while the lagging strand is synthesized in fragments known as Okazaki fragments, each requiring a separate RNA primer. Once a fragment is synthesized, the RNA primers are removed, and the gaps are filled with DNA nucleotides. DNA ligase then joins these fragments to form a continuous strand.
The existence of these primers also presents a challenge at the ends of chromosomes, the telomeres, where successive rounds of replication could lead to their shortening. However, the enzyme telomerase addresses this issue by extending the telomeres using an inbuilt RNA template, after which DNA polymerase and DNA ligase finish replicating the strand. This mechanism ensures that the chromosome ends are adequately replicated and protected from degradation.
Luis contracts with Greenfield to buy several of Greenfield's dairy cows. Greenfield delivers the cows, but Luis doesn't pay for them. Greenfield may be able to have his cows returned if he seeks the remedy of:
Answer:
restitution
Explanation:
Based on the information it can be said that in this scenario Greenfield may be able to have his cows returned if he seeks the remedy of restitution. The law of restitution refers to the law of gains-based recovery in which the court forces the defendant to give up his/her gains/profit to the claimant in the court case. Which in this case would be Luis would be the devendant and Greenfield the claimant.
Greenfield may seek the legal remedy of replevin to retrieve his dairy cows when Luis fails to pay for them after delivery within the contractual agreement.
Explanation:In the context of Law, specifically contracts and sales, if Luis contracts with Greenfield to buy several of Greenfield's dairy cows, and Greenfield delivers the cows but Luis fails to pay for them, Greenfield has a possible legal remedy. This remedy is termed as 'replevin'. Replevin is a legal process by which one may recover goods that were wrongfully taken or retained. Contrary to a money-back guarantee mentioned in the text, which is more applicable to consumer goods market, in this contractual scenario related to property (dairy cows), Greenfield can seek the court's help to have his cows returned.
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Lysine is an essential amino acid for animals. If an animal did not consume lysine in its diet, you might expect that the animal ________. Lysine is an essential amino acid for animals. If an animal did not consume lysine in its diet, you might expect that the animal ________. was a carnivore would be very healthy could not effectively make many necessary proteins would make lysine from other amino acids
Answer: would make lysine from other amino acids
Lysine is an essential amino acid for animals. If an animal did not consume lysine in its diet, you might expect that the animal would make lysine from other amino acids
Explanation:
Essential amino acids like lysine can be derived from endogenous sources (synthesized within the body) or from exogenous sources such as diets, food supplements etc.
Hence, lysine would be synthesized from aspartate, its non-essential precursor within the cells of the animal in order to compensate for the lack in its diet.
The biggest risk factor for the development of skin cancer is excessive exposure to ultraviolet radiation from sunlight. Exposure to UV light in a tanning booth is safer. Is this statement true or false?
Explanation:
Tans from a tanning bed or from the sun are proof of UV radiation harm. Each time you tan you are collecting sun harm which can cause wrinkles, hanging skin, and skin malignant growth. Tanning meeting can expand the danger of creating skin malignancy.There is nothing of the sort as a sound suntan. Any adjustment in your normal skin shading is an indication of skin harm. Proof recommends tanning incredibly expands your danger of creating skin malignancy. The expansion in skin color called melanin, which makes your skin tan, is an indication of harm.Final answer:
The assertion that tanning booths are safer than sun exposure is false. UV radiation from both the sun and tanning booths is a proven carcinogen that significantly increases the risk of skin cancer. Protective measures should be used to reduce the risk of UV radiation exposure.
Explanation:
The statement that exposure to UV light in tanning booths is safer than sun exposure is false. Both sunlight and artificial sources such as sunlamps and tanning booths emit ultraviolet (UV) radiation, which is a significant risk factor for skin cancer. The World Health Organization classifies UV radiation as a Group 1 carcinogen, which confirms it is known with virtual certainty to cause cancer. Therefore, artificial tanning exposes you to the same risks as natural sunlight.
Exposure to UV radiation, whether from the sun or tanning booths, can cause early aging of the skin and damage that leads to skin cancer. Lifelong sun exposure and severe, blistering sunburns greatly increase the risk of developing skin cancer. Protective measures such as seeking shade, applying sunscreen, and wearing protective clothing are recommended to reduce the risk of skin cancer.
Other risk factors for skin cancer include having light-colored skin, numerous moles, a family history of skin cancer, and the use of artificial tanning sources before age 30. It's important to recognize that the risk of skin cancer increases with any form of UV exposure and it is critical to take precautions to minimize that risk.
Why are cellular respiration and photosynthesis considered opposite reactions
Explanation:
They are opposites because they are the same chemical reaction but reversed. Cellular respiration takes glucose (from nutrient/food) and oxygen (from atmosphere) in order to make CO2 (think about exhaling) and H20 (water).
Cellular respiration and photosynthesis are considered opposite reactions because cellular respiration is a catabolic reaction whereas photosynthesis is an anabolic reaction.
What are metabolic reactions?Metabolic reactions are the catabolic and anabolic reactions which takes place inside the cell of a living organism.
Catabolic reaction or catabolism is the breakdown of complex substances into simpler substances which produces energy in the form of ATP. These are the oxidizing reactions which occurs inside the mitochondria. These reactions provides energy in the multi-step processes in which metabolites are oxidized to produce ATP. Example: Cellular respiration.
Anabolic reactions are the reactions which include the conversion of simpler substances into complex substances such as glucose in the process of photosynthesis. These reactions build the necessary compounds which maintains the organism are the reduction reactions. Thus, organisms require both oxidizing and reducing agents.
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In psychologist Robert Rescorla's classical conditioning experiment, one group of rats experienced a tone just before each of 20 shocks. A second group of rats experienced the same number of tone-shock pairings plus an additional 20 shocks with no tone. Rescorla found that the rats in the first group showed a much stronger conditioned fear response than the rats in the second group. How did Rescorla explain this finding
Answer:
The answer is given below.
Explanation:
Rescorla explain this finding by stating that the tone experienced by the group of rats just before each of 20 shocks was a reliable predictor of the shock for the first group.
The psychologist Robert Rescorla stated in his famous classical conditioning experiment that 2 stimuli does not produce the same level and kind of conditioning. Conditioning works in a better way, if the conditioned stimulus will act as a reliable signal that projects the appearance of an unconditioned stimulus.
"In ______ immunity the individual produces antibodies against particular pathogens while in ______ immunity the individual is given specific antibodies against a pathogen"
Answer:
active, passive
Explanation:
Here is the complete question:.
In ______ immunity the individual produces antibodies against particular pathogens while in ______ immunity the individual is given specific antibodies against a pathogen.
-active, neutral
-passive, neutral
-active, passive
-passive, active
-neutral, active
An enzyme has a total of four active sites. When you denature the molecule and study its composition, you find that each active site occurs on a different polypeptide. Which of the following hypotheses does this observation support?A. The enzyme is subject to allosteric regulation. B. The protein has quaternary structure. C. The protein's structure is affected by temperature and pH. D. The enzyme requires a cofactor to function normally.
Answer:
B. The protein has quaternary structure.
Some animals, such as cows, normally produce only one offspring from each mating. If a cow showed a dominant phenotype, why would a typical testcross be a difficult way to determine the genotype of that animal?
Answer:
Because of insufficient number of offsprings to determine the result of test cross.
Explanation:
Normally, in genetics, a test cross is a cross between a dominant phenotype (genotype unknown) and a homozygous recessive genotype in order to determine the genotype of that dominant organism.
The result of the test cross is obtained when a 1:1 phenotypic ratio is produced for each trait i.e. 1 dominant trait: 1 recessive trait showing that the parent is heterozygous while all the offsprings will show dominant traits if the dominant phenotype was homozygous. Hence, more than one offspring is required to be able to conclude
In this question, the cow only produce one offspring which may be DOMINANT for the observed trait making it difficult to know if other offsprings will all be dominant or some of them recessive. Hence, it is not a sufficient number needed to determine the genotype from the phenotypic ratio of offsprings.
What is not a characteristic that distinguishes gymnosperms and angiosperms from other plants?
The provided question is incomplete as the options are not provided, however the options are as follows:
A.alternation of generations
B ovules
C. integuments
D. pollen
E. dependent gametophytes
Answer:
The correct answer is - option A. alternation of generation.
Explanation:
Angiosperms and gymnosperms both have alternation gymnosperms however the dominant phase in both are sporophyte. The basic idea of this type of life cycle is stays same.
Plant spores produces the gametes in gametophyte phase of alternation of generation and these gametes form zygote to produce the dominant sporophyte phase of this.
Thus, the correct answer is - a) alternation of generation.
In the late 1960s, Robert Paine conducted landmark studies on diversity in the rocky intertidal zone, comparing the species diversity in control plots with diversity in experimental plots from which he removed the top predator, sea stars. After 5 years, 15 species of intertidal invertebrates lived in the control plots, while the experimental plots were dominated by only two species, one mussel and one barnacle. The process most likely responsible for the loss of species diversity in the experimental plots was:_______.predation.a. parasitism.b. competitive exclusion.c. resource partitioning.d. mutualism.
Answer: Predation
Explanation:
Predation can be defined as the biological interaction where one organisms eats the other organism.
It belongs to the family of micropredation, parasitism. The predators sit and wait for the prey in order to kill them and eat them.
In the question when the top predators were removed then there was a control in the number of species left is due to the action of the predators on the prey.
What sensory information is encoded for by hair cells in the maculae of the saccule and utricle? What is the function of the otoliths (statoconia and gel material)? What are the functions of the vestibular nuclei? ...
Answer and Explanation:
The sensory information encoded for by the hair cells in the maculae of the saccule and utricule are:
the direction and strength of mechanical stimuli (polarity information)Response to the head's rotational movementFunctions of the otoliths
The otoliths provide balance, movements and serve as directional indicators in vertebrates. They help higher vertebrates in sound detection.
Functions of the vestibular nuclei
Maintenance of equilibrium and postureModification of muscle toneRelays information to the cerebral cortexDirecting the movements of the head and eyeMaintaining the line of visionSecondary structure is determined by interactions between amino acid side chains and tertiary structure is determined by interactions between the repeating constituents of the polypeptide backbone.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The sequence of amino acids in a protein is determined by the DNA and the structure of protein thus formed is a linear sequence. These linear structures undergo structural changes due to the formation of bonds between the constituent molecules.
When bonds are formed by the interactions between the CO group of one chain and the -H group which forms the backbone is known as the secondary structures. Two types of arrangements arise of this that is the helical and pleated sheet.
When the bonds are formed between the side groups or the R group of the amino acid therefore the amino acid structure formed is known as the tertiary structure.
Thus, false is the correct answer.
Protein structure is organized into several levels: primary (amino acid sequence), secondary (local folding such as α-helices and β-pleated sheets), and tertiary (overall 3D structure due to various interactions). Each level builds on the previous to create the complex structure necessary for protein function.
Explanation:Protein Structure Levels
The primary structure of a protein refers to its sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain, which is critical as it determines the higher levels of protein structure. The secondary structure involves local interactions between stretches of a polypeptide, predominantly through hydrogen bonds forming structures like α-helices and β-pleated sheets. It's crucial to note that secondary structure does not involve the side chains (R-groups) of amino acids, which do contribute to the tertiary structure. Tertiary structure is the complete three-dimensional shape of the polypeptide chain, built from diverse interactions, including hydrogen bonds, ionic bonds, hydrophobic interactions, and disulfide bridges between amino acids that are distant in the primary sequence.
Understanding these structural levels is key to grasping how proteins fold and function, as each level of structure builds upon the previous to create a complex biological molecule capable of diverse functions within the cell.
Overgrazing of public land by privately owned livestock is an example of the
Final answer:
Overgrazing of public land by privately owned livestock is an example of the tragedy of the commons.
Explanation:
Overgrazing of public land by privately owned livestock is an example of the tragedy of the commons.
The tragedy of the commons refers to a situation where a shared resource, such as public land, is overused and degraded due to the self-interest of individuals. In this case, each livestock owner wants to graze their animals on the public land without considering the long-term consequences of overgrazing.
This leads to the degradation of the land, loss of natural resources, and threats to the livelihoods of other livestock owners. It is important to implement sustainable management practices to prevent the tragedy of the commons from occurring.
Openings between _____ cells create pores in the leaf epidermis that play a critical role in photosynthesis by allowing diffusion of atmospheric CO2 into a leaf's interior.
Answer:
Guard
Explanation:
The opening between guard (pores) cells is known as stomata. The stomata helps in diffusion of atmospheric CO2 into leaf's interior and also involved in loss of water by plant leaves through transpiration. The opening and closing of stomata is controlled by guard cells.
Guard cells control the opening and closing of stomata by becoming turgid or flaccid because of potassium ions. The water potential decreases by increasing the solute concentration and water always flow from higher potential to lower potential. Remember maximum water potential is zero.
When potassium ions concentration increases inside the guard cells, water follow the potassium ions and guard cells become turgid which cause the opening of stomata. On the other side when the potassium ions concentration decreases inside the guard cells the water leaves the guard cells and guard cells become flaccid causing closing of stomata.
Which epithelia forms the walls of the air sacs across which gas exchange occurs in the lungs?
Answer:
Simple squamous tissue
Explanation:
It is found forming the walls of air sacs and is made up of one layer of cells that re flattened
The walls of the air sacs in the lungs, where gas exchange occurs, are formed by simple squamous epithelium, which is sufficiently thin to efficiently facilitate this process.
Explanation:The epithelia that form the walls of the air sacs, or alveoli, where gas exchange occurs in the lungs is known as simple squamous epithelium. This type of epithelium is very thin to allow for the efficient exchange of gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and bloodstream. By its nature, it is ideally suited for areas where rapid diffusion is required.
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Diatoms are mostly asexual members of the phytoplankton. Diatoms lack any organelles that might have the 9 2 pattern. They obtain their nutrition from functional chloroplasts, and each diatom is encased within two porous, glass like valves. Which question would be most important for one interested in the day-to-day survival of individual diatoms
A key question for understanding the life of diatoms involves understanding the various factors that affect their ability to photosynthesize, their crucial means of nutrition. Understanding how environmental factors affect photosynthesis would grant insight into diatom survival.
Explanation:The most crucial question for one interested in the day-to-day survival of individual diatoms would likely revolve around the factors that affect their ability to photosynthesize, as photosynthesis is the source of their nutrition. A possible question could be:
'What conditions or factors impact the photosynthesis process in diatoms?'
Diatoms, part of the phytoplankton, carry out photosynthesis using functional chloroplasts, like plants on land. They are encased within two porous, glass-like valves that allow the exchange of substances. Environmental factors such as light intensity, carbon dioxide and nutrient levels, and temperature can influence the rate and efficiency of photosynthesis. Understanding these factors would be essential for comprehending the day-to-day survival of diatoms.
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For someone interested in the day-to-day survival of diatoms, it's important to understand how they obtain nutrients, reproduce, and contribute to the ecosystem. This can be achieved through the process of photosynthesis, asexual and occasional sexual reproduction, and functioning in maintaining the carbon cycle.
Explanation:The most important question for someone interested in the day-to-day survival of individual diatoms would be: How do diatoms obtain the nutrients they need for survival and how do they reproduce? Diatoms, which are members of the stramenopiles subgroup, exist as single-celled photosynthetic protists, and are a component of freshwater and marine plankton. They encase themselves in glassy cell walls or frustules composed of crystallized silicon dioxide.
Their nutrition is primarily obtained from functional chloroplasts as they carry out photosynthesis using photosynthetic pigments like chlorophyll a and chlorophyll c₁/C₂. Additionally, during periods of nutrient availability, they bloom in large numbers and their excess population, when they die, sinks to the sea floor and aids in maintaining the carbon cycle.
Furthermore, though diatoms mostly reproduce asexually, instances of sexual reproduction exist where the male gametes, featuring flagella, seek out female gametes. Thus, day-to-day survival of diatoms involves obtaining nutrients, reproducing and maintaining a balanced ecosystem.
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1. Geopla magistri 2. Geospa fortit
3. Geospisa parvula
Carthidea olivacea
Finches from Galapagos Archipelago
Finch species living on the Galapagos Islands exhibit a variety of beak types that favor different foods. Finches that eat seeds and
plant parts have beaks of the shorter, thicker variety, while finches that eat insects and other small organisms have thin, pointed
beaks. 78% of the finches on an island in the Galapagos have beaks that are identical to Finch 1. What conclusion can you reach
about the availability of food for the finches on this island?
)
There is an abundance of insects
There is an abundance of seeds and nuts.
There is a wide variety of foods for the finches to eat.
Plants have died out and there are only insects for food.
There is an abundance of seeds and nuts is the conclusion about the availability of food for the finches on this island.
Explanation:
Two types of beak are seen in finches of Galapagos Archipelago.
Seed and plant eating have shorter and thicker beaks
Insect eating finches have pointed and thin beaks.
78% or the majority of finches have shorter and thicker beaks which indicates that food suitable for them is widely available.
The survival rate and numbers of finches prove that there is an abundance of seeds and plants in the Archipelago which can sustain this big number or the majority of finches.
It also proves that insects have lessen or seed eating finches are producing in large numbers and surviving.
___ were concerned with the scientific study of voice and gesture and the impact of delivery on the mind.
Answer:
Elocutionists
Explanation:
Elocutionists are a set of people that are involved in the scientific study of the substance of a speech, which entail how the elements of speech, such as voice and gesture, have a compelling and final impact on the mind. They are mostly focused on the effective delivery of speech. Elocution is what they major on.
Environmental sustainability is the responsible interaction with the environment to avoid depletion or degradation of natural resources. If we exploit natural resources or pollute and degrade the environment without allowing the environment an opportunity to replenish itself, future generations will be unable to meet their needs. By adopting a sustainable, green lifestyle, you become aware of the impact of your choices in food, products, and energy use on future generations. To support a sustainable lifestyle, a consumer must make certain decisions before the purchase any products. What questions should you ask yourself before buying if you have chosen a sustainable, green lifestyle? A) A, C, D, E B) C, D, E, F Eliminate C) A, C, D, E, F D) All are appropriate questions to ask.
Answer:
(C) A, C, D, E, F
Explanation:
USA Test Prep
Before making any purchase in line with a sustainable, green lifestyle, it's crucial to consider the product's durability, recyclability, potential for toxicity, and the ethics of its manufacturing process. All aspects that contribute to the product's environmental impact should be assessed to ensure the conservation of resources for future generations. Hence, all questions provided regarding sustainability are pertinent.
Adopting a sustainable, green lifestyle requires us to make conscious decisions before making any purchase to ensure we do not deplete or degrade the environment for future generations. When planning to buy products, you should ask yourself whether the product is durable, has low potential exposure to toxic substances, comes with minimal and recyclable packaging, and is reusable, repairable, and capable of being remanufactured. This aligns with adopting a sustainable ethic, which involves treating the earth's resources as finite and conserving them in a manner that allows their continued use in the future.
Moreover, considering the product's life cycle, including the availability of repair parts and the infrastructure for recycling materials such as lithium in batteries, is crucial. Supporting companies that practice eco-friendly packaging and recycling, as well as advocating for governmental practices that enforce sustainability, can also contribute to maintaining environmental health. Thus, all questions related to a product's sustainability, durability, potential for toxicity, reuse, repairability, recyclability, and the ethics of its manufacturing process are appropriate to consider before making a purchase, indicating that option D) All are appropriate questions to ask would be the correct choice.