Answer:
When you eat, the digestive and circulatory systems work together and increase the amount of nutrients in your body. As the nutrients are processed, your stomach sends signals to your brain to tell your body that you are full and to stop eating.
Explanation:
What is the key to the recognition of codominance?
A caldera forms when the bottom of the magma chamber that fueled the volcano falls further underground.
Question 1 options:
a) True
b) False
Answer:
True I think?
Explanation:
the formation of a caldera happens by collapse which means it is already at the bottom of the magma chamber.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
When the magma has erupted from a volcano in large amount, the strength of volcano to hold its own weight reduces and hence the volcano collapses into itself thereby forming a cladera . Formation of cladera is triggered when the magma chamber start emptying. With the removal of magma, the center of volcano lying with in the ring fracture collapses.
Hence, the given statement is true.
Eons are the broadest category of geologic time, and we live in the Phanerozoic eon. The Phanerozoic eon is further divided into eras. What divides the three eras of the Phanerozoic eon?
A. The appearance of carbon on Earth and the appearance of atmospheric oxygen separate the three eras from each other.
B. The development of insects and the development of flying insects separate the three eras from each other.
C. The first life on Earth and the first multicellular life on Earth separate the three eras from each other.
D. Mass extinction events separate the three eras from each other.
Answer:
D. Mass extinction events separate the three eras from each other
Explanation:
The Phanerozoic represents an eon, and it is the most recent one. It is further divided into three eras, Paleozoic, Mesozoic, and Cenozoic. The division between the tree eras is because of mass extinction events. The Paleozoic and Mesozoic era are divided by the Permian-Triassic mass extinctions. The Mesozoic and Cenozoic are divided by the Cretaceous-Paleogene extinction. The Cenozoic era is still in existence, as there hasn't been a mass extinction of a magnitude big enough so far.
Answer:
mass extinction
Explanation:
How many bones are there in the human body?
Answer:
The human skeleton is the internal framework of the body. It is composed of around 270 bones at birth – this total decreases to around 206 bones by adulthood after some bones get fused together.
Explanation:
Answer:
206 bones
Explanation:
The human skeleton is the internal framework of the body. It is composed of around 270 bones at birth – this total decreases to around 206 bones by adulthood after some bones get fused together.
How many nuclear power plants are in the United States?
there are 60
please mark as brainliest :)
In the absence of oxygen the net gain of atp for each glucose molecule during glycolysis is approximately __________.
In the absence of oxygen, each glucose molecule during glycolysis undergoes a net gain of two ATP. However, these ATP may be used for other processes such as the transport of NADH, therefore the actual ATP gain can sometimes be effectively zero.
Explanation:During glycolysis, glucose is broken down into two molecules of pyruvate. This process generates four molecules of ATP, but consumes two ATP in the early stages, resulting in a net gain of two ATP for each glucose molecule. However, these ATP molecules may be used for other functions, such as transporting NADH from the cytoplasm into the mitochondria, making the net ATP gain zero under certain conditions.
Under anaerobic conditions, where oxygen is not present, the ATP production is limited to those generated by glycolysis. Hence, the net yield remains as two ATP molecules per glucose molecule.
Learn more about Glycolysis here:https://brainly.com/question/14089531
#SPJ12
A biologist is constructing a cladogram to show the evolutionary relationships between the animals shown below. if anatomical features are used to construct the cladogram, which animal will be placed farthest from the animal shown?
Answer:
br4oooooooooooooooooooo its d
Explanation:
What discovery would weaken the primordial soup hypothesis of the origin of life?
Question 19 options:
Lightning was common on early Earth.
Earth’s early atmosphere contained carbon dioxide, water, and trace gases.
Earth’s early oceans were warm and shallow.
Asteroid impacts were uncommon when life is presumed to have begun.
Answer:
Asteroid impacts were uncommon when life is presumed to have begun.
Explanation:
The hypothesis about the origins of life on Earth are based upon the asteroid impacts. Basically, the hypothesis suggests that the asteroids brought the basic ingredients for the development of life on our planet. If a discovery is made though that in the period when life occurred the asteroid impacts were lacking, then this hypothesis will fall into water. This is because the hypothesis is directly dependent on the asteroid impacts, so if the case was that there weren't, or were very rare, the hypothesis will lose its basis.
Answer:
Asteroid impacts were uncommon when life is presumed to have begun.
Explanation:
For many years, there was extreme heat on our planet. The oceans were warm and shallow, Earth's primitive atmosphere containing carbon dioxide, water, and other gases that made the earth an inhospitable environment. In addition, lightning was common on early Earth.
The high temperature of the earth was due to the many volcanic activities, which caused the release of gases and lava. The atmosphere and the earth's surface were characterized by the absence of the ozone layer, the effects of ultraviolet rays and lightning strikes, and the bombardment of bodies from space, that is, asteroid impacts were common on primitive earth, including these impacts. responsible for the beginning of life. It is well known that most of the carbon and water molecules in existence today originated from asteroids that fell on Earth during this period.
True or false. the reptilian amniote egg with its protective outer layers is a landmark in evolution of life on land.
Answer:
TRUE
Explanation:
Final answer:
The reptilian amniote egg with its protective outer layers is indeed a landmark in the evolution of life on land. - True
Explanation:
The amniotic egg is a crucial adaptation for fully terrestrial vertebrates, particularly reptiles, birds, and mammals. The development of amniotic membranes provided embryos with their aquatic environment, which significantly reduced the dependence on water for development and allowed amniotes to invade drier areas. This transition from water to land is marked by the difference between amphibians, which have shell-less eggs and are restricted to moist environments, and amniotes, which have protective shelled eggs.
Reptile eggs are surrounded by leathery or hard shells that aid in water retention and protection against desiccation. The amniotic egg consists of several parts that contribute to its success as a terrestrial adaptation: the amnion, which creates a fluid-filled cavity; the chorion, allowing for gas exchange; the yolk sac, providing nutrition; and the allantois, handling waste management and facilitating respiration.
What is the metabolic abnormality that underlies the characteristic symptoms of diabetes mellitus?
Answer:
The metabolic abnormality that is responsible for diabetes mellitus is THE INABILITY OF THE BODY CELLS TO ABSORB ENOUGH GLUCOSE FROM THE BLOOD.
Explanation:
Diabetes mellitus is a metabolic disease condition in which the glucose molecules that are present in the blood are unable to enter the body cells. This may happen as a result of lack of insulin hormone or inability of insulin hormone to carry out its functions. People with diabetes mellitus usually have high amount of glucose in their blood because of the inability of the glucose molecules to enter the body cells. Because the glucose molecules can not enter the body cells for energy utilization, diabetic patients usually feel weak, thirsty and hungry and the excess sugar in their blood usually come out with urine when they urinate.
Diabetes treatment usually involve the use of artificial insulin to lower the raised glucose levels.
Mark is a 25 year old sedentary male who weighs 250 pounds and is 6'0'. His RDA for protein is 90 grams (based on 0.8g/kg). He wants to gain muscle so he starts to lift weights. Which protein intake listed below would meet his needs now that he is strength training? (Choose the BEST answer.)
Answer:
Im jacked and I eat 90G Protein daily but I only weigh like 135 so if mark weighs 250 id say around 160-170g Protein for our buddy
Explanation:
Which two of the following characteristics must a hypothesis posses in order to be considered to be scientific? A. Capable of being false B. Familiar C. Testable D. Survivable
Answer:
A and C
Explanation:
A hypothesis can be true in some cases but is not a fact you know for certain. And to figure out if it is true, you must be able to test it.
Answer:
A.Capable of being false
C. Testable
Explanation:
Familiar - ??
Survivable - a hypothesis is a guess or conclusion, I'm sure every hypothesis is survivable...
Testable because to prove a hypothesis to be right, you obviously have to test it.
Capable of being false because a hypothesis is simply a guess or conclusion to a problem with limited information.
I hope this helps :)
What do we call an individual that has inherited two identical alleles for the same trait?
A.homozygous
B.heterozygous
C.monozzygous
Homozygous that has inherited two identical alleles for the same trait. thus option A is correct.
What is an allele?Any of two or more genes that can exist alternately at a specific place (locus) on a chromosome is referred to as an allele. Alleles can be found in pairs, or several alleles might influence the expression (phenotype) of a trait.
At a given gene locus, the occurrence of two identical alleles. Two normal alleles or two alleles with the same variation can make up a homozygous genotype.
Learn more about alleles here:
https://brainly.com/question/7602134
#SPJ2
Which of the following is FALSE regarding the membrane potential?A) The resting membrane potential is maintained by solely by passive transport processes.B) In their resting state, all body cells exhibit a resting membrane potential.C) The resting membrane potential is determined mainly by the concentration gradients and differential permeability of the plasma membrane to K+ and Na+ions.D) The resting membrane potential occurs due to active transport of ions across the membrane due to the sodium-potassium pump.
The false statement regarding the membrane potential is that the resting membrane potential is maintained solely by passive transport processes. In reality, the resting membrane potential is maintained by a combination of passive transport and the active transport process carried out by the sodium-potassium pump.
Explanation:The statement which is FALSE regarding the membrane potential is: A) The resting membrane potential is maintained solely by passive transport processes. The resting membrane potential is not maintained solely by passive processes; it is a combination of passive and active transport processes. Passive transport involves the diffusion of potassium (K+) and sodium (Na+) ions through leakage channels due to concentration gradients. However, the sodium-potassium pump actively maintains the resting potential by using ATP to transport ions against their concentration gradients, specifically bringing two K+ ions into the cell and removing three Na+ ions out of the cell for each ATP molecule consumed.
"The correct answer is D) The resting membrane potential occurs due to active transport of ions across the membrane due to the sodium-potassium pump is FALSE regarding the membrane potential.
A) The resting membrane potential is maintained by solely by passive transport processes.
This statement is false. While the resting membrane potential is indeed maintained by passive transport processes, it is established by the active transport of ions by the sodium-potassium pump. The pump moves ions against their concentration gradients, which then sets up the conditions for the passive leak of ions that maintains the resting potential.
B) In their resting state, all body cells exhibit a resting membrane potential.
This statement is true. All body cells, when not actively sending signals, maintain a resting membrane potential. This potential is typically around -70 mV and is a characteristic of the cell's resting state.
C) The resting membrane potential is determined mainly by the concentration gradients and differential permeability of the plasma membrane to K+ and Na+ ions.
This statement is true. The resting membrane potential is a result of the unequal distribution of K+ and Na+ ions across the plasma membrane and the membrane's differing permeabilities to these ions. The inside of the cell is usually more permeable to K+ ions, which tend to move out of the cell, while Na+ ions are pumped out of the cell by the sodium-potassium pump.
D) The resting membrane potential occurs due to active transport of ions across the membrane due to the sodium-potassium pump.
This statement is false, which makes it the correct answer to the question. The resting membrane potential is not directly caused by active transport; rather, it is the result of the ion concentration gradients established by the sodium-potassium pump. The passive movement of ions down their concentration gradients through ion channels is what generates the resting membrane potential.
In summary, the sodium-potassium pump uses active transport to establish the concentration gradients of Na+ and K+ ions, but the resting membrane potential itself is a passive phenomenon resulting from the diffusion of these ions through ion channels."
Why are recessive alleles not removed from populations over time?
A.individuals can pass recessive alleles on to offspring
B.recessive alleles are removed with enough time
C.recessive alleles will always reappear after being removed
Recessive alleles are not removed from populations over time because they can be passed on by heterozygous individuals (option A), sometimes confer selective advantages, can reappear due to new mutations, and are influenced by genetic drift in small populations.
Recessive alleles are not removed from populations over time due to several factors. Firstly, if an allele does not affect an individual's fitness, it can persist in a population despite being recessive. Individuals who are heterozygous (carrying one dominant and one recessive allele) can pass on the recessive allele to their offspring, even if the allele is not expressed in their phenotype (option A).
Moreover, some recessive alleles may confer a selective advantage in the heterozygous state. A classic example is the sickle cell allele, which provides resistance to malaria in heterozygous individuals without causing sickle cell disease. This means that the allele can be maintained within populations where malaria is prevalent.
Additionally, new mutations can introduce recessive alleles back into the population, and mechanisms like genetic drift can change allele frequencies purely by chance, especially in small populations. Therefore, recessive alleles can remain in the gene pool and sometimes even increase in frequency due to various evolutionary pressures and circumstances.
The function of the excretory system is to control homeostasis and
Answer:
remove excess waste
Explanation:
The function of the excretory system is to control homeostasis and remove excess waste.
Hope this helps! Please mark brainliest!
Describe how ecosystems recover from a disturbance
Answer:
Secondary succession in healthy ecosystems following natural disturbances often reproduces the original community, however ecosystems may not recover from human-caused disturbances. Ecological succession is a series of more-or-less predictable changes that occur in a community over time.
Explanation:
Hello There!
Ecosystems recover from a disturbance by ecological succession.
An "Ecological Succession" is a series of changes that occur in an ecosystem after a type of disturbance. This continues until the balance of the eco system is restored.
Select the correct answer. Patients with severe, uncontrolled diabetes can eventually suffer kidney failure. Jack works in a laboratory that is attempting to grow healthy kidney cells from embryonic cells. From which part of an embryo would Jack derive cells that could eventually become kidney cells? A. Trophoblast B. Mesoderm C. Endoderm D. Ectoderm
Answer: B . Mesoderm
Explanation:
The intermediate mesoderm connects the paraxial mesoderm with the lateral plate, eventually it differentiates into urogenital structures consisting of the kidneys, gonads, their associated ducts, and the adrenal glands.
Answer:
B . Mesoderm
Explanation:
The germ layers begin to develop from the fourth to the seventh week, in this period one has an embryo. All cell types will derive from these layers called ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm.
Mesoderm which is the middle layer of the embryo forms the dermis, smooth and skeletal muscles, the circulatory system: heart, blood vessels, lymphatic tissue, connective tissue; the skeletal system: bones and cartilage; and the excretory and reproductive system: genitals, kidneys, urethra, bladder and gonads.
Transcription occurs in the ____________ of a cell. It starts with (A) ______ _______________ racing along (B)_____ strands looking for _____________ factors that have bound to the (B) at the promoter (another word for the promoter is the (D)__________ box). The (A) attaches to the (B) at the (D) box, which is ____ (#) base pairs upstream from the start of the (E)__________. All (E) start with the sequence _______ in their ________ strand. The (A) pulls the two strands apart, counts to _______(#), and then uses the _________ strand as a template to make a _______-stranded copy of the _______ strand (this new strand is called (F)_______). The only difference between the (F) strand and the ________ strand of (B) is that the (F) replaces __________ with _________. The (F) is further processed by adding a 5’_________ (made of a __________ nucleotide hooked on backwards) and a 3’ ________ ____ tail (made of about 200 ____________ nucleotides) to protect the (F) from _____________. Once the (F) is processed, it moves into the _________________ where translation occurs.
Answer:
I want to die
Explanation:
How can DNA be useful in phylogeny?
A. DNA sequences are rearranged to predict how species could evolve in the future.
B. DNA sequences from different species can be compared, giving us more information about their evolutionary relationships.
C. DNA from every organism in a clade is sequenced to identify genetic mutations that have occurred.
D. DNA isn't useful in phylogeny, as morphological characteristics are used exclusively in phylogeny.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
By comparing DNA it is possible to look at similarities and differences and allow for the classification of species.
which statement is the best summary of the model?
A-a series of aerobic and anaerobic reactions take place in cells
B- the sun's energy moves through trophic levels in a food chain
C-light energy is converted into stored chemical energy plants.
D- food molecules are broken down in the cells if living things.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
The diagram above shows chloroplast, where photosynthesis takes place
Incomplete metamorphosis is a change from ( pupa, larva, adult) to ( pupa, larva, adult) that takes place in a series of steps.
approximately what portion of the foods that we eat have been genetically modified in some way?
A.fewer than 10%
B.about 50%
C.nearly 100%
Nearly 100% (option C) of the foods we eat have been genetically modified in some way. A significant percentage of crops like soy, corn, and cotton are genetically modified, and about 75% of processed foods contain GMO ingredients. The safety and environmental impact of GMOs remain controversial, and there is a lack of mandatory labeling in the U.S.
Approximately what portion of the foods that we eat have been genetically modified in some way? The answer is nearly 100% (option C). Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) are incredibly common in the US food supply. For instance, a high percentage of crops such as soy (94%), corn (89%), and cotton (91%) have been genetically modified for certain traits like herbicide resistance.
Most processed foods contain ingredients derived from GM crops. For example, products like oil, high fructose corn syrup, and sugar often come from genetically modified crops. As a result, it has been estimated that roughly 75% of processed foods on supermarket shelves contain GMOs. This is a significant indicator of how prevalent GMOs are in our diet.
Despite their prevalence, the safety of GMOs for human consumption and their environmental impact are still under debate. In the United States, labeling of genetically engineered ingredients is not mandatory, making it difficult for consumers to know if their food contains GMOs, unless it is labeled as 'organic' or voluntarily indicated as GM-free by some companies.
What would be the most effective oral agent to use for treating the condition depicted in this case?
The amount of time it takes for one-half of the original amount of an isotope to decay is known as its ____.
Question 9 options:
correlation
half-life
period
radioactivity
Answer:
half-life
Explanation:
Help me!!!
How can recycling water improve the environment?
The light-independent reactions of photosynthesis need
a. oxygen.
b. carbon dioxide.
c. cellulose.
d. water.
Answer:
I believe its option b. carbon dioxide.
The correct answer is b. carbon dioxide, which is required for the light-independent reactions of photosynthesis to synthesize sugars.
The light-independent reactions of photosynthesis, also known as the Calvin Cycle or the dark reactions, require carbon dioxide to produce glucose (sugar). Therefore, the correct answer to the student's question is b. carbon dioxide. These reactions do not require light and instead utilize the ATP and NADPH produced during the light-dependent reactions to synthesize carbohydrates by fixing carbon dioxide. They take place in the stroma of the chloroplasts, where carbon dioxide enters the photosynthetic tissue through stomata and is then incorporated into organic molecules in a process known as carbon fixation.
The petroleum industry uses deep-well injection to dispose of its hazardous waste.
Though the wastes are pumped into porous rock, the industry claims the wells are safe because
Answer: because they are situated near aquifers
Explanation:
Aquifers is a underground layer of rock which can hold and release water in desirable amounts so petroleum industries claims the well are safe.
A gene editing technology called CRISPR-Cas9 uses cellular machinery to change the cell's genetic material. How might this technology be useful in treating diseases like cancer? A. CRISPR-Cas9 could act as an antioxidant in a person's cells, removing toxins that might otherwise damage DNA. B. CRISPR-Cas9 could remove from patients the genetic mutations that cause a specific cancer before the cancer begins. C. CRISPR-Cas9 could remove any DNA damage caused by smoking. D. CRISPR-Cas9 could be a substitute for chemotherapy
Answer:
B
Explanation:
CRISPR-Cas9 is a gene-editing mechanism that is harnessed from bacteria’s immune system used to cut apart foreign genetic material such as that of bacteriophages. CRISPR-Ca9 has a guide sequence that is used to identify the target sequence. The Cas9 enzyme cuts this target DNA and is replaced with the required piece.
In cancer treatment, the mutated DNA can be replaced, this way, with the wild type.
CRISPR-Cas9 technology is useful in treating diseases like cancer as it could remove from patients the genetic mutations that cause a specific cancer before the cancer begins. The correct option is B.
Cancer is a group of diseases involving abnormal cell growth with the potential to invade or spread to other parts of the body. These contrast with benign tumors, which do not spread.Possible signs and symptoms include a lump, abnormal bleeding, prolonged cough, unexplained weight loss, and a change in bowel movements.While these symptoms may indicate cancer, they can also have other causes.
Though cancer it not completely curable the rate of it's invasion can be slowed down by use of CRISPR-Cas9 technology that removes mutations which cause cancer before it begins.
Thus, option B is correct.
Learn more about cancer,here:
https://brainly.com/question/14945792
#SPJ6
Scientists believe that _______ of species that once existed on Earth are now extinct.
A. about three-quarters
B. nearly half
C. about 40%
D. over 99 percent
The correct answer is D. Over 99 percent
Explanation:
Life on Earth has existed for 4.28 billion ago and during this time billions of species have emerged including bacterias, fungi, plants, animals, etc. However, due to evolution, changes in the environment and massive extinction events most species that lived in other geological periods have completely disappeared or extinct. Indeed it is estimated by biologists and scientists that over 99% of the species that ever existed on Earth do not live today or are extinct this has been proposed based on the millions of fossils discovered that suggest multiple species that cannot be found nowadays and evidence that shows many more species are extinct and there is no or little evidence about them. Therefore over 99 percent of species that once existed on Earth are now extinct.