Answer:
Each part perform specific function for cell.
Explanation:
1. Cytoplasm ; Site for various chemical reactions.
2. Cell Membrane ; Protective covering; Material transport regulation.
3. Nucleus ; Control center of cell; Constitute genetic material
4. Endoplasmic Reticulum ; Material processing; movement inside the cell
5. Ribosome ; Protein synthesis
6. Mitochondria ; power house of cell
7. Lysosome ; Digestion, break down of substances.
8. Golgi bodies ; transport of material and packaging.
9. Vacuole ; waste & water storage.
10 Chloroplast Cell wall; protection, transportation, Photosynthesis.
The functions of each cell part include: Cytoplasm is a gel-like substance that fills the cell and acts as a medium for cellular processes. The Cell Membrane controls the movement of substances in and out of the cell. The Nucleus contains DNA and controls the activities of the cell.
Explanation:Cytoplasm: It is a gel-like substance that fills the cell and acts as a medium for cellular processes.Cell Membrane: It controls the movement of substances in and out of the cell, providing protection and support.Nucleus: It contains DNA and controls the activities of the cell.Endoplasmic Reticulum: It is responsible for the synthesis and transport of proteins and lipids.Ribosome: It is the site of protein synthesis.Mitochondria: They produce energy in the form of ATP through cellular respiration.Lysosome: They contain enzymes that break down waste materials and foreign substances in the cell.Golgi bodies: They modify, sort, and package proteins for transport within and outside the cell.Vacuole: It stores water, nutrients, and waste materials in the cell.Chloroplast: It is found only in plant cells and is responsible for photosynthesis.Cell wall: It provides strength, support, and protection to plant cells.Learn more about Cell Parts Functions here:https://brainly.com/question/12553639
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Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. How is lactose classified?
Answer:
as a disaccharide
Explanation:
A monosaccharide is a class of sugars that can not be hydrolyzed into smaller units. They are the simplest and smallest unit of sugars. They are also the building block of complex sugars.
Disaccharides are the class of sugar that is made by the joining of two monosaccharides. These monosaccharides are joined together by glycosidic linkage.
For example, lactose is a disaccharide which is made up of glucose and a galactose molecule which are joined together by a glycosidic bond.
Lactose is classified as a disaccharide, a category of carbohydrates, because it is composed of two monosaccharides, glucose and galactose, joined together by a glycosidic linkage.
Explanation:
Lactose, known as milk sugar, falls under the category of disaccharides. Disaccharides are a type of carbohydrate that consists of two monosaccharide molecules. In the case of lactose, these monosaccharides are glucose and galactose. These two monosaccharides are linked together by a glycosidic linkage. This linkage is formed through a dehydration synthesis reaction, whereby a water molecule is released. Thus, lactose is classified as a disaccharide due to its composition of two monosaccharide units.
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There are two different alleles for flower color, P and p. The image shows a white sweet pea that is labeled with its two alleles for petal color.
A white sweet pea is labeled p p.
What can you surmise from the labeled image?
A.The genotype is heterozygous.
B.White petal color is a recessive trait.
C.White petal color is a dominant trait.
D.The phenotype is heterozygous.
B. White petal colour is a recessive trait.
Explanation:
In Mendelian genetics, the alleles depicted in small letters are recessive traits.
Since both alleles are same and in lower case they are homozygous recessive alleles for a white coloured petal gene.
The genotype of the trait will be tt because if it is crossed either with heterozygous or homozygous P alleles it will appear as tt to have phenotypic trait of white colour.
So the genotype will be tt.
When a species is moved from its native area to a new area, it can become an invasive species and damage its new ecosystem. What is one reason these species are able to do damage to an ecosystem? a. When moved to the new location, the species fills in unoccupied niches.
b. Having been moved from its home country, the introduced species does not know the local language so is unable to communicate with its new neighbors and gets angry, lashing out at any nearby organisms and doing great harm.
c. When a species is transported, it leaves behind its predators and the diseases that previously kept its population in check. Therefore the species is able to grow to large and damaging numbers.
d. In nearly every case, when a species is moved across an ocean and into a new habitat it becomes a harmful invasive species simply because it is in a new habitat.
Answer:
c. When a species is transported, it leaves behind its predators and the diseases that previously kept its population in check. Therefore the species is able to grow to large and damaging numbers.
Explanation:
An invasive species is the species that is not native to the ecosystem in which that species has entered. Invasive species are responsible for the destruction of the ecosystem because they outcompete with native species and reproduce faster than them.
This happens because in the new ecosystem they do not have their natural predators which control their number and not the pathogens that cause disease in them. Therefore they grow exponentially and outcompete native species.
If toxic fumes are generated while performing an experiment, await instructions from your lab instructor; follow them completely and as quickly as possible. true false
Answer:True
Explanation:
The toxic fumes in the laboratory is very common when performing any experiment inside the laboratory.
There are various types of chemical reaction which can fortunately or unfortunately result in evolution of the toxic fumes.
In this case the person should not panic and just listen to the instructor carefully.
Follow it as soon as possible.Carefully and completely empty the place and go to some place which has fresh air.
Redundancy occurs when ___________specify one __________. Wobble pairing explains how it's possible for one_______ to read more than one codon. Wobble pairing allows a redundant code to be read by a small number of_________
Answer:
More than one mRNA codon,
Amino acid
tRNA
tRNAs
Explanation:
An amino acid acids are normally specified by one mRNA codon. Redundancy occurs when more than one mRNA codon specify one Amino acid.
Wobble pairing explains how its possible fore one tRNA to read more than one one codon. tRNA has anti-codons that bind to specific mRNA and in wobble pairing after the first two positions are paired the third binding will be more loose.
Wobble pairing allows a redundant code to be read by a small number of tRNA.
Women with an inadequate weight gain during pregnancy are at higher risk of giving birth to an infant with what?
Answer:
The correct answer is - intrauterine growth restriction.
Explanation:
Intrauterine growth restriction or IUGR is a condition that occurs during the pregnancy of growth of the fetus in the mother's womb. It is found in women with normal or underweight conditions.
This can result in a baby small for gestational age which is also called SGA which is a case of the weight being below ten percent for the gestational age.
Thus, the correct answer is - intrauterine growth restriction.
Meiosis results in independent assortment of maternal and paternal chromosomes. If 2n = 6 for a given organism and there is no crossing over, what is the chance that a gamete produced by this diploid organism will receive only paternal chromosomes?
Final answer:
The chance that a gamete will receive only paternal chromosomes when 2n=6, assuming no crossing over and independent assortment, is 1 in 8, or 12.5%.
Explanation:
The subject of the question is independent assortment in meiosis. If an organism has a diploid number of 6 (2n = 6), for each of the 3 pairs of chromosomes, there is an equal chance of receiving either the maternal or paternal chromosome.
Since independent assortment ensures that gametes receive a random combination of these chromosomes, there are 23 possible combinations, or 8 possible combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes. The chance of receiving only paternal chromosomes in a gamete is therefore 1 in 8, or 12.5%.
It is important to note that this calculation assumes no crossing over occurs, which typically introduces further genetic variation.
Corrine was getting a cup of coffee at a local convenience store when the cashier was confronted by masked gunmen. As the cashier reached below the counter to press an alarm, one of the gunmen shot her. Two weeks later, Corrine is still badly shaken. She is too frightened to run routine errands in her neighborhood. She startles easily. Although she is troubled by random flashbacks to the event, she finds that she can recall surprisingly little about it when she is directly asked. Corrine is MOST likely to be diagnosed with ______ disorder.
From an evolutionary perspective, why is the conscious awareness of ongoing sensations advantageous for animals? a. It provides the opportunity to choose responses rather than to respond instinctively. b. It facilitates the development of complex motor and sensory control. c. It allows animals to respond instinctively to oncoming threats. d. It enables animals to have a sense of mortality and a strong will to pass on their genes.
Answer:
The correct answer is: c. It allows animals to respond instinctively to oncoming threats.
Explanation:
Animals always remain aware of all the sensations that take place in its environment.This is because when awake, all the sense organs of the organism remain active. But it is possible that some of the organs are more active than the other. Under normal condition, animals sense all the events happening in the surrounding environment but decide and respond to those which they think to be necessary for them.But the adaptation of the characteristics of conscious awareness of the surroundings is of particular advantage under the conditions of threat.Under the conditions of threat, animals do not get the time to choose and decide whether to respond or not. They always have to give a response instinctively in order to evade the threat.This instinctive reaction of what exactly is required to be done in case of a threat is acquired due to the adaptation of the capability to remain aware of the ongoing sensations.Peter recently traced his headaches, dizziness, and rapid heartbeat to eating soy food products. Most likely, Peter has a(n) ____.
Answer:
Peter has a "soy allergy".
Explanation:
Biochemically, immune system of the people with soy allergy identifies soy proteins as toxic. Therefore, their immune system signals the release of immunoglobulin antibodies. Next time when the person comes in contact with soy proteins, the antibodies recognize them and produce histamine. This release of histamine result into allergic reactions. According to the given conditions in the question, headaches, dizziness, and rapid heartbeat are most likely the result of soy allergy.
Name the possible ways that diseases are spread. Describe how this happens in communities.
Subject: Anatomy and Physiology
science and engineering techniques used to manipulate living cells to produce useful products
Yes that would be genetic modification or stem cell research, such as the induced pluripotent stem cell that is completely man made.
The difference between the images in the two eyes, or the ______, is the binocular cue the brain uses to see in three dimensions.
Answer:
Disparity
Explanation:
The disparity in vision refers to the imperfect match between the two eyes caused by the different views perceived at a slightly different angle by two eyes.
This difference between the image formed at the retina at a different angle gets fused and the brain perceives the fused image as a single perception by the eyes. This disparity thus allows the brain to analyse the 3D view of the sample and the binocular disparity between image helps determine the depth of the image.
Thus, Disparity is the correct answer.
Describe the different types of DNA mutations: a. point mutation b. base substitution c. frameshift d. triplet repeat
Answer:
In point mutation, alteration affects only one single nucleotide.
In base substitution mutation, one single nucleotide is swapped with another nucleotide
In frameshift mutation, the addition or deletion of one or more base pairs could lead to shift in the arrangement
In triplet repeat mutation, a base pair repeats until it reaches threshold limit
Explanation:
In point mutation, alteration affects only one single nucleotide. This alteration could be insertion, deletion or substitution of only one single nucleotide.
In base substitution mutation, one single nucleotide is swapped with another nucleotide during the replication process of DNA.
In frameshift mutation, the addition or deletion of one or more base pairs could lead to shift in the arrangement of triple nucleotide bases.
For instance if the base pair is
AAT GCC CGA TCT
If insertion occurs at second base pair, then the frame will shift as below
AAT GAC CCG ATC T….
In triplet repeat mutation, a base pair repeats until it reaches threshold limit and then becomes unstable
True/False: Western blotting allows the visualization of proteins with the use of antibodies that specifically bind to the proteins of interest?
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Why are fixed pieces of equipment, such as bouncy seats, high chairs, and playpens, detrimental to an infant's development?
Answer:
These equipment limit children opportunities to experience diverse and active childhood experiences.
Explanation:
Parts of child basic developmental psychology is socialization through interaction with different environments of diverse objects and individuals. This stimulate brain developments, builds child's confidence, approach and allow movements from one location to another. However, fixed piece equipment which although may provide rooms for slight skeletal exercises,do not allow interaction with other infants in diverse environments, and this limit exposure to diverse and active childhood experiences.
Final answer:
Fixed equipment like bouncy seats, high chairs, and playpens can be detrimental to infants' development by limiting physical activity and exploration, delaying milestones in physical development, and reducing interaction with the environment, which is essential for sensory-motor skills, cognitive development, and social and emotional growth.
Explanation:
Fixed pieces of equipment such as bouncy seats, high chairs, and playpens are sometimes seen as detrimental to an infant's development for a few key reasons. These devices can limit the amount of physical activity and exploration an infant engages in, which are critical components of their development. Physical movement, like crawling and walking, helps in the development of muscle strength, coordination, and brain development. When infants spend a lot of time in these devices, they miss out on opportunities to explore their environment, learn how to navigate obstacles and develop their motor skills naturally through free play.
Moreover, excessive use of these devices can also delay milestones in physical development such as rolling over, sitting up, or crawling. Engaging with the environment directly also enhances sensory-motor skills and cognitive development through touching, feeling, and manipulating objects. Interaction with caregivers and the environment, which is lessened when an infant is confined, is crucial for social and emotional growth as well.
While these pieces of equipment can be beneficial for short periods, ensuring that infants have plenty of floor time and opportunities for direct interaction with their surroundings and people is essential for holistic development. Using these devices judiciously, while prioritizing active, supervised play, can mitigate potential developmental drawbacks.
When Mendel crossed a plant homozygous for round seeds to another plant homozygous for wrinkled seeds, he found that all the progeny had round seeds. How is this explained?
A) The parent that was homozygous for round seeds underwent self‑pollination.
B) The allele for round seeds is recessive to the allele for wrinkled seeds.
C) The progeny were homozygous for the allele for round seeds.
D) Segregation of alleles in the two parents produced gametes with both alleles.
E) The allele for round seeds is dominant to the allele for wrinkled seeds.
Answer:
E
Explanation:
Gregor Mendel discovered the principles that governs heredity. In one of his experiments, he discovered that an organism receives two forms of a gene called ALLELE from each parent. He realized that one allele is capable of masking the expression of its variant pair in a gene. He called the allele that masks or is expressed, DOMINANT allele while the allele that is masked, RECESSIVE allele. He termed this principle the LAW OF DOMINANCE.
The above explained law of dominance is what applies in the question here. When the homozygous round allele and wrinkled allele were crossed, the allele for round seeds are dominant over the allele for wrinkled seeds (recessive) i.e. in a heterozygous state (combination of the different alleles), the round allele will mask the phenotypic expression of the wrinkled allele, expressing itself over it.
Which of the following pathogens are unicellular, eukaryotic organisms that belong to the Kingdom Protista?
a.) viruses
b.) fungi
c.) bacteria
d.) protozoa
Answer:d.) protozoa
Explanation:protozoa is a unicellular eukaryotic organism that belongs to kingdom protista. Protozoans depends on other organism for there food because they do not produce there own food. Some protozoa can be parasitic in nature.
Example of protozoa is amoeba.
A _____ reinforcer is any reward that satisfies a basic, biological need, such a hunger, thirst, or touch.
The question is incomplete as it does not have the options which are:
a. primary
b. negative
c.positive
d. secondary
Answer:
A) primary
Explanation:
In psychology, a reinforcer refers to a stimulus which strengthens the behaviour and increases the chances or probability of the desired response.
The reinforcer can be of two types on the basis of pairing with a stimulus as a primary reinforcer and secondary reinforcer.
The primary reinforcer refers to the stimulus which is present in the humans from birth and is evolved as a part of the evolution for survival. The primary reinforcer does not depend on the stimulus and therefore is considered unconditioned reinforcer. Since it has evolved as part of the evolution for survival, therefore, strengthen the behaviour such as sex, hunger, water, touch.
Thus, A) primary is the correct answer.
A primary reinforcer satisfies basic biological needs and provides innate reinforcing qualities without the need for learning; examples include food, water, and touch.
A primary reinforcer is any reward that satisfies a basic, biological need, such as hunger, thirst, or touch. Primary reinforcers have innate reinforcing qualities and are not learned. They include necessities like water, food, sleep, shelter, sex, and touch. Importantly, primary reinforcers are linked to survival and are intrinsically rewarding; they fulfill our physical needs and can also provide pleasure. For example, jumping into a cool lake on a hot day would be inherently reinforcing as it both meets the physical need of cooling down and is pleasurable.
In chickens, a single mutation has a dominant effect on neck feathers (causing the chickens to have "naked necks") and a recessive effect on viability (causing the chickens to die early). Let N be the mutant allele and n the wild-type allele.
A) Male chickens with naked necks are crossed to females with normal neck feathers. Think about the genotypes of those chickens. Among the F1 progeny, what % naked neck versus normal neck feather adult chickens do you expect?
B) Male chickens with naked necks are crossed to females with naked necks. Among the F1 progeny, what % naked neck versus normal neck feather adult chickens do you expect?
Answer:
As a single mutation has inferred, hence we can assume that the genotype of the male chickens with naked necks will be Nn. The female chickens with normal neck feathers will have the genotype nn. To depict the outcomes of a cross between them, lets generate a punnet square:
n n
N Nn Nn
n nn nn
The results from the punnet square show that 50% of the offsprings will have the probability to have naked neck and 50% of the offsprings will have normal neck.
Which of the following is not true?
a. oxygen 16 evaporates more readily from the ocean than oxygen 18
b. oxygen 16 and oxygen 18 are found in roughly equal amounts in ocean water
c. the nucleus of oxygen 18 contains two more neutrons than the nucleus of oxygen 16
d. both oxygen 16 and oxygen 18 are found in the shells of marine organisms
Answer:
Option (B)
Explanation:
Oxygen-16 and Oxygen-18 are both an isotope of oxygen. The O-16 is a lighter isotope and it indicates a warmer climate and the O-18 is a heavier isotope and it is a good indicator of colder climate. These differences in the climate occur due to the effects of both the factors namely precipitation and evaporation.
The O-16 isotope being lighter evaporates much rapidly, so in the tropical regions where the temperature is relatively high, there occur a high amount of O-18 in the ocean. In addition to this, when the water vapor starts to condense, it starts to rain and the water droplets produced during rainfall are enriched in the concentration of O-18, as it is much heavier than the O-16.
These amount of O-16 and O-18 are always found to be present in unequal amounts or proportion in the ocean water as these processes such as precipitation and evaporation takes place continuously.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B), which is not true.
The most common forms of peptic ulcer are duodenal and gastric ulcers. What are the most common risk factors for peptic ulcer disease?
Answer:
Peptic ulcer are the open sores which form inside the lining of the stomach and in the upper portion of the small intestine.
The stomach pain is most common symptom of this disease. It is not caused by spicy food and stress.
It is caused by the infection of bacterium Helicobacter pylori and it cam also be caused due to long term intake of the non steroidal anti inflammatory drug.
The risk is person should not take spicy food once he is detected by this disease and should discontinue the drugs causing this disease.
The most common risk factors for peptic ulcer disease include infection with Helicobacter pylori, the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), smoking, alcohol consumption, and stress.
Explanation:The most common risk factors for peptic ulcer disease include:
Infection with Helicobacter pylori: This gram-negative bacterium is found in over 90% of duodenal ulcers and approximately 80% of stomach ulcers.Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): Frequent or long-term use of NSAIDs, such as aspirin or ibuprofen, can increase the risk of peptic ulcers.Smoking: Smoking damages the protective lining of the stomach and increases the production of stomach acid, making ulcers more likely to form.Alcohol: Excessive alcohol consumption can irritate the stomach lining and contribute to the development of ulcers.Stress: While stress alone does not cause ulcers, it can worsen symptoms and delay healing.Learn more about Risk factors for peptic ulcer disease here:
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Imagine that you are a genetic counselor, and a couple planning to start a family comes to you for information. Charles was married once before, and he and his first wife had a child with cystic fibrosis. The brother of his current wife, Elaine, died of cystic fibrosis. What is the probability that Charles and Elaine will have a baby with cystic fibrosis
Answer:
1/6
Explanation:
Assuming the disorder is not sex linked, Charles is a carrier so he will be Ff.
His wife Elaine can be a carrier or not because her parents must have been both Ff
Possible F1 generation for her was FF, Ff, Ff and ff. She does not have the disease.
Therefore the total chance of her having FF was 1/3 whereas Ff will be 2/3
Probability of the kid having the disease will be calculated by;
(2/3×1/4) +(1/3×0)= 1/6
The probability that Charles and Elaine will have a baby with cystic fibrosis is 25%.
Explanation:The probability that Charles and Elaine will have a baby with cystic fibrosis can be determined by analyzing their family history and considering the genetic inheritance of the disease. In this case, Charles and his first wife had a child with cystic fibrosis, indicating that Charles is a carrier of the gene. Elaine's brother also had cystic fibrosis, suggesting that there is a high probability that Elaine is also a carrier.
Since cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease, both parents must be carriers of the faulty gene in order for their child to have the disease. Therefore, the probability of Charles and Elaine having a baby with cystic fibrosis would be 25%.
___________________ are mutualistic fungi that help provide nutrients to trees, shrubs, and other plants.
These figures show the four levels of protein structure: primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure. Which level of protein structure is characteristic of some, but not all, proteins?1. Secondary level of protein structure
2. Tertiary level of protein structure
3. Quaternary level of protein structure
Answer:
3. Quaternary level of protein structure
Explanation:
The quaternary level of protein structure is exhibited by those proteins that have more than one polypeptide chain. The proteins that have two or more separate polypeptide chains are said to have multi subunits. These polypeptide chains of a protein may be identical or different from each other. The arrangement of these protein subunits represents the quaternary structure of these proteins. For example, hemoglobin is a protein that exhibits the quaternary level of protein structure.
_______________ refers to people's ideas about their own and others' mental states; that is, how feelings, perceptions, or thoughts might predict behavior.
Answer:
Theory of mind is the correct answer.
Explanation:
Theory of mind relates to the capability to know and understand the other's and own mental states and also to recognize that how the mental states, ideas, passions, intentions, and prospects that are separate from one's own.The development of a theory of mind is important during the developmental method. Theory of mind is important because it helps to know and predict the reaction and expression of others.A snowshoe hare produces a white coat during the winter, allowing it to better hide from predators. As a result, it has thrived and over time a majority of snowshoe hares in the population also produce white coats in the winter. Which of the statements is/are true?a. The white-coated hare has higher fitness than other hares that do not change coat color.
b. The white-coated hare has a competitive advantage in its environment.
c. The new population of hares resulted from natural selection.
d. The alleles for a white winter coat increased over time.
e. all of the above
Answer:
A snowshoe hare produces a white coat during the winter, allowing it to better hide from predators. As a result, it has thrived and over time a majority of snowshoe hares in the population also produce white coats in the winter. Which of the statements is/are true?
The white-coated hare has a competitive advantage in its environment.
The new population of hares resulted from natural selection.
Explanation:
The analogy shown above describes the law of natural selection which explains why the organism that fits into a new environment survives as a result of inheritance of a distinct trait that differentiate them from others. Also, the organism has greater advantage over the environment because it has device means of survival over time
Answer:
a
Explanation:
to me it seems correct
Bacteria and fungi are important to humans because they: A. help control weeds. B. pollinate crop plants. C. provide shelter. D. deplete nutrient minerals in the soil. E. provide foods and antibiotics.
Answer:
E. provide foods and antibiotics.
Explanation:
sometimes microorgansims plays important role for human such as;
Bacteria;
Present in our gut help to digest food and the gut of animal such sa cattle help to digest cellulose.Bacteria are used in the production of food products such as yogurt and cheese.Help in pest control such as Bacillus thurigiensis.Help in the production of certain medicines and supplement such as InsulinFungi;
There are many mushrooms we can eat and fungi are also involved in the production of certain food products such as wine, bread.Fungi are involved in production of certain medicines such as penicillin is produced from Penicillium.
The nurse in a primary care clinic and a client have come to see the primary care provider because the client is getting married and wants to have a prenuptial gynecologic examination. After the exam, the nurse asks about the woman's plan to have a family. The woman responds, "Why do I have to plan for a family?
Answer: She has a family history of thromboembolism.
Explanation: A woman visits the family planning clinic to request a prescription for birth control pills. Which factor would indicate that an ovulation suppressant would not be the best contraceptive method for her.
A biologist observes that a particular plant species is found in a forest but not in a nearby meadow. She hypothesizes that the plants could grow in the meadow but are not found there because their seeds have yet to land in the meadow. Which of the following would be the most appropriate way to scientifically evaluate this hypothesis?
1. constructing a logical argument about why her hypothesis must be true
2. measuring how far the seeds typically travel from their parent plant
3. scattering seeds in several areas of the meadow and observing whether they start to grow
4. observing how long it takes the seeds to eventually reach the meadow
Answer:
3
Explanation:
An hypothesis is a proposed explanation to an observation or an intelligent guess about a phenomenon made with little evidence at the beginning before proceeding to do further investigation or research. The most appropriate way to scientifically evaluate the hypothesis is to scatter seeds in several areas of the meadow and observed whether they will start to grow.