What affects the likelihood that an allele will reach fixation in a population that has undergone a bottleneck?

Answers

Answer 1
the large population becomes smaller. also, bottleneck is when a large population quickly shrinks. the effects of genetic drift becomes much stronger. e.g: seals alleles can be lost during bottleneck and the number of alleles left can shift dramatically in just a few generations.
Answer 2

Final answer:

The likelihood that an allele will reach fixation in a population after a bottleneck event is determined by selective effects, genetic drift, post-bottleneck environmental conditions, and population dynamics.

Explanation:

What affects the likelihood that an allele will reach fixation in a population that has undergone a bottleneck? The likelihood that an allele will reach fixation in a population after a bottleneck event is influenced by several factors. Firstly, the nature of the bottleneck event itself can determine which alleles survive. If the bottleneck is caused by a factor that selects for certain traits (e.g., resistance to a pathogen), alleles associated with those traits may have a higher chance of reaching fixation due to selective effects. Secondly, the bottleneck can lead to a significant increase in genetic drift due to the reduced population size, which can randomly skew allele frequencies and accelerate the fixation of certain alleles. Thirdly, the new environmental conditions post-bottleneck may favor certain alleles over others, further influencing their likelihood of fixation. Finally, population dynamics, such as mate availability and reproductive success, can also affect allele fixation probabilities.


Related Questions

Cellular (aerobic) respiration takes place in the presence of and with the use of which o the following?

water

carbon dioxide

oxygen

sunlight

Answers

In the presence of oxygen

Cellular (aerobic) respiration takes place in the presence of and with the use of the following: oxygen.

Cellular respiration is the process that converts stored food or glucose into energy called ATP with carbon dioxide and H2O as byproducts. Cellular respiration is either aerobic or anaerobic respiration.

Aerobic respiration is divided into three main stages: Glycolysis, the Citric acid cycle, and electron transport chain.Oxygen is needed to help the process of turning glucose into ATP. The initial step releases just two molecules of ATP for each glucose.The later steps release much more ATP.Most of the reactions of cellular respiration are carried out in the mitochondria.

Thus, Cellular (aerobic) respiration takes place in the presence of and with the use of the following: oxygen.

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Ou have screened for several new recessive mutations in a species of wasp. wasps homozygous for apricot (aa) have pale orange eyes. (wild-type eyes are brown.) wasps homozygous for blunt (bb) have short wings. (wild-type wings are long.)

Answers

Mutation in the gene encoding the recently isolated WASP protein has now been identified as the genetic defect responsible for the X-linked Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS), a primary immunodeficiency disease associated with extensive phenotypic variability.

The non-recombinant gametes are AB and ab which are found in the parents whereas aB and Ab are recombinant in nature as they are absent in parent genotype.

Further explanation:

The true-breeding or pure-breeding represents the parents that are homozygous in nature and will pass on the specific trait to the progeny as they contain either recessive or dominant alleles but not both. The parents heterozygous for a trait will not be able to produce exactly the same phenotype in the offspring due to the presence of both types of alleles.  

The genotype of pure-breeding double-mutant can be depicted as ‘aabb’ for apricot and blunt while the wild-type genotypes can be considered ‘AABB’. The cross between the mutant and wild type genotypes would result in the progeny with only ‘AaBb’ genotype.

Parent:   aabb × AABB

Filial 1 (F1) generation: AaBb

The F1 hybrids are then test crossed with double-mutant line and result as follows:

AaBb × aabb

 F2 generation:

The genotypes obtained in the F2 generation are AaBb, Aabb, aaBb, and aabb which have the phenotypes wild-type, wild-type apricot, pale orange-wildtype, and double-mutant, respectively.  

AB, Ab, aB, and ab are the haploid genotypes that were received as gametes from the F1 generation. The gametes Ab and aB are considered recombinant while gametes ab and Ab are said to be non-recombinant because the recombinant gametes are not found in the parents while the non-recombinant ones have been transferred from the parents.

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Answer details:

Grade: College Biology

Subject: Genetics

Chapter: Gene Interactions

Keywords:

Gametes, recombinant gametes, non-recombinant gametes, pure-breeding, true-breeding, F1 generation, F2 generation, genotypes, phenotypes, recessive allele, dominant allele, wild-type, mutant.

 

The location (room) in which a surgery can be conducted is not dependent on which factor?

Answers

The location in which a surgery can be conducted that should no dependent on the species of the surgical patient. Because all human are equal in the body so in surgery time it does not consider the species of the patient. If we consider only Whether the surgery is survival or non-survival. Whether a surgery is major or minor. The source of funding.

Which of these is an advantage of using wind as a source of energy? A. Wind energy doesn't pollute the air.
B. Wind turbines take up a lot of space.
C. Wind turbines can produce noise pollution.
D. Wind turbines can harm local wildlife, such as birds.

Answers

the answer to this question is A, as it states the positive effect of wind energy on the environment. 

Answer: A. Wind energy doesn't pollute the air.

Explanation:

Wind energy is a renewable source of energy due to abundance of wind in the atmosphere. The wind energy is harnessed by high speed wind currents used to run the wind turbine. The turbine convert the wind energy into electrical energy.

The wind energy does not generate pollutants like the energy generated by conventional fuels like fossil fuels.

During emerging adulthood, all body systems _____. function optimally age rapidly cease developing begin to develop

Answers

function optimally

Emerging adulthood covers the age between 18 to 25 years old. During this stage of development, 68.4% of young adults reported that their physical health was either very good or excellent, and oftentimes, childhood ailments, such as asthma, are outgrown. Because body systems function optimally at this stage, it is an ideal time for physical work and successful reproduction. 

when two plants, both tall, were crossed, they produce some offspring that were dwarves. Assuming that the height of the plant is controlled by a single gene and the allele for the tall plant is dominant, what is the genotype of the parents

Answers

The genotypes of the parents would have to be Tt and Tt. It could not be Tt and tt because both plants are tall. It could not be TT and Tt because then all offspring would be tall. The Tt cross would give offspring of TT, Tt, Tt, and tt, which fits all the requirements. 

The Answer is

D. Tt and Tt

How can scientific knowledge impact a decision about treating a disease outbreak?

Answers

Well scientific knowledge can help with diseases because say for ex: scientist 1 and scientist 2 are trying to treat breast cancer on a girl, they do the exams and tests on her and all, but when they receive some news about cures or risks and etc, they may improve their methods, be more cautious, or use more techniques, so its basically like a preparation tool for scientists so they know what's ahead.

Scientific knowledge may be able to tell us what the disease is immune to, and which kind of cure would actually work against the disease present, and which would be ineffective or may even help the disease spread and mutate.

hope this helps

Approximately 80 percent of the illicit drugs smuggled into the united states are interdicted (stopped) at the border.
a. True
b. False

Answers

I would say false

Approximately 80 percent of drugs smuggled into the border are from mexico so that's probably where they get the '80%' from. 

Biological rhythms that occur on a daily basis are called _____ rhythms.

Answers

Answer:  "circadian" .
_____________________________________________

The main hazard from a quiet volcanic eruption is a. volcanic gases. b. lava flows. c. geysers. d. pyroclastic flows.   Please select the best answer from the choices provided

Answers

The answer is B) lava flows 
Final answer:

The main hazards from a quiet volcanic eruption are volcanic gases and lava flows. These can have substantial long-term effects on the atmosphere, climate, and terrestrial landscapes. Explosive phenomena like geysers and pyroclastic flows are more characteristic of violent eruptions.

Explanation:

The main hazard from a quiet volcanic eruption is not geysers or pyroclastic flows, as these usually occur in explosive eruptions. Instead, the primary dangers are a. volcanic gases and b. lava flows. Volcanic gases, such as water vapor, carbon dioxide, and sulfur dioxide, are released massive quantities during eruptions. These gases can have long-term effects on the atmosphere and climate. Furthermore, even quiet eruptions can produce enormous amounts of lava. Lava flows can spread rapidly from long cracks during an eruption, forming vast lava plains, like those that exist on the Moon and some of the other terrestrial planets. These flows can cover large areas, causing significant harm to human settlements and ecosystems.

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What are the psychosocial effects of BDD?

Answers

Body dysmorphic disorder, also known as BDD, is defined in the Merriam-Webster dictionary as a pathological preoccupation with an imagined or slight physical defect of one’s body to the point of causing significant stress or behavioral impairment in several areas (as work and personal relationships)












Final answer:

Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD) leads to severe psychosocial effects such as depression and anxiety, heightened self-consciousness, unhealthy coping mechanisms like substance abuse, and stress particularly related to puberty.

Explanation:

Body Dysmorphic Disorder (BDD) has profound psycho-social effects on individuals suffering from it. These include negative impacts on interpersonal relationships, mental health, and typical social functioning. Here are some key psychosocial effects of BDD:

Depression and Anxiety: People with BDD often experience co-morbid disorders, including depression and anxiety (Al-Asadi, Klein, & Meyer, 2015). This can result in feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and a constant state of worry and fear. Self-consciousness: Individuals with BDD are overly concerned with their appearance, leading to severe self-consciousness and embarrassment. They often avoid social interactions and can become quite isolated (Falagas et al., 2007). Unhealthy Coping Mechanisms: Due to the mental distress caused by BDD, individuals may resort to unhealthy coping mechanisms, such as substance abuse or self-harm (Wisner et al., 2013). Stress related to puberty: Puberty can exacerbate feelings of self-consciousness, which can be particularly challenging for individuals with BDD (Ge, Conger, & Elder, 2001).

It's vital to provide support to individuals with BDD to mitigate these psychosocial effects and promote overall well-being.

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A car has positive acceleration. what information can you infer from this? A. The car is changing direction B. The car is speeding up in the same direction as it traveling C. The car is slowing down is down and changing he direction it is traveling D. The car is slowing down

Answers

B
because velocity talks about the speed and direction of an object


Answer:

The correct answer is option B. "The car is speeding up in the same direction as it traveling".

Explanation:

A positive acceleration is defined as change of velocity upwards the direction that the object has taken. Therefore, a car having a positive acceleration means that the car is speeding up in the same direction as it traveling. Basically, after a positive acceleration, the car is traveling faster in the same direction that it was before.

A child is admitted in the clinic with nausea, vomiting, constipation, hypophosphatemia, and glycosuria. after talking to the parents, the nurse learns that they are painting the house. what can the nurse deduce from the symptoms? the child is suffering from:

Answers

From the symptoms, the nurse can deduce from the symptoms that the child has a reaction to lead or an allergy.It is also possible that the child suffers from Crohn's disease, which is triggered by a variety of environmental elements.

Bone marrow transplant taken from a donor and infused through the central vein is coded to what icd-10-pcs code

Answers

The ICD-10-PCS code is 30240G4.

Firstly, select "Administration" (section 3) because the procedure is the administration of bone marrow to the patient. Secondly, select "Circulatory" (section 30) because it is being administered in a vein (circulatory system). Third, select "Transfusion" (section 302) because it is being done a transfusion of bone marrow. Then select "Central Vein" (section 3024) because that's the place of administration in the circulatory system. Lastly, go to "Bone Marrow" (section 30240G) as that is what's being transfused and then choose "Transfusion of Allogeneic Unspecified Bone Marrow into Central Vein, Open Approach" (30240G4) because it is not specified what type of transfusion it is.
Final answer:

A bone marrow transplant is coded in the ICD-10-PCS with a specific seven-character alphanumeric code, which should be referred to in the ICD-10-PCS manual. The code varies depending on procedure details but ensures matching of donor and recipient to avoid GVHD.

Explanation:

The ICD-10-PCS (International Classification of Diseases, Tenth Revision, Procedure Coding System) code for a bone marrow transplant taken from a donor and infused through the central vein involves a specific code that identifies the type of procedure. During the procedure, it is crucial to have a matching donor to prevent tissue rejection and minimize the risk of Graft-versus-Host Disease (GVHD). After a matching donor is found, the patient's own bone marrow is destroyed through radiation and/or chemotherapy, followed by the intravenous infusion of donor bone marrow stem cells. These stem cells then colonize the recipient's bone marrow to restore its function.

Based on the information provided, it seems like the index terms provided do not directly correlate with a specific ICD-10-PCS code. For the purposes of coding, one would need to refer to the ICD-10-PCS code manual to locate the precise procedure code, which is typically a seven-character alphanumeric code. The provided terms such as bone marrow transplant (792, 794) could refer to the index of a coding manual but not the exact code itself that should be used.

Which immune cells are disrupted when a child is infected with human immunodeficiency virus (hiv)?

Answers

The cells that are disrupted are the CD4+ cells

How do biological organisms use energy worksheet answer key?

Answers

First, chemical energy from organic molecules is used to make ATP (Adenosine triphosphate) in cellular respiration, after which ATP provides energy for biological processes.

Answer:

Organisms use energy in two steps:

Conversion of food into adenosine triphosphate (ATP):

Organisms harness the chemical energy of the food and convert it into more usable for that is, ATP. The set of chemical reactions involved in this process is termed as cellular respiration. It may include glycolysis, Krebs cycle, electron transport chain, oxidative phosphorylation.

ATP hydrolysis:

Organisms use the energy associated with ATP through a hydrolysis reaction. The hydrolysis of ATP releases ADP, Pi,  and energy. ADP is further hydrolyzed to produce AMP, Pi, and energy.

"1. what can be done to motivate companies to evaluate training programs"

Answers

as well as the five major categories of outcomes that can be measured to evaluate training effectiveness. The five outcomes (cognitive, skill-based, affective, results, and ROI) used in evaluating training programs were explained. Good training outcomes need to be relevant, reliable, discriminate, and practical. Next, threats to both internal and external validity were discussed. Various evaluation designs were explained with an emphasis on related costs, time, and strength. Return on Investment (ROI) and cost-benefit analysis were explained, and examples given. The chapter concluded with a listing of key terms, discussion questions,The company’s management would need to be made aware of the investment made by the company for the training and the need to summatively evaluate it to determine if the training program is effective, and formatively evaluate it to identify its strengths and weaknesses to better accomplish training. Evaluation is vital to improving a training program, or deciding whether to replace it completely with a better program or a non-training option. (p. 217-218) 2. What do threats to validity have to do with training evaluation? Identify internal and external threats to validity. Are internal and external threats similar? Explain. Answer: If threats to validity exist, the evaluator may question whether a training program was really effective or if possible benefits were the result of other factors. Internal threats to validity affect the believability of the study, while threats to the external validity affect the believability of the program’s benefits for future use. Characteristics of the company, the outcome measures, and the persons in the evaluation study are the internal threats to validity. Reaction to pretest, reaction to evaluation, interaction of selection and training, and interaction of methods are the external threats to validity. Internal and external threats are not similar. Threats to external validity relate to how study participants react to being included in the study and the effects of multiple types of training, whereas internal validity provides confidence that the results of the evaluation are due to the training program and not to another factor. (p. 232) 3. What are the strengths and weaknesses of each of the following designs: posttest-only, pretest/posttest comparison group, pretest/posttest only? Answer: 6-9

one of the effects of hurricane Katrina, which devastated new orleans in 2005 was the death of almost all of the plants in flooded areas. initially, toxic chemicals and bacteria were suspected as a possible cause. Scientist later determined that the salt concentration in the floodwater caused the plants to die. The death of the plants was most likely due to? A. water moving into plant cells from the surrounding environment. B. Water moving out of plant cells into the surrounding environment.
C. both water and salt moving from plant cells into the surrounding environment.
D. both water and salt moving into plant cells from the surrounding environment.

Answers

 B. Water moving out of plant cells into the surrounding environment is the cause of the plants death in flooded areas in New Orleans in 2005 because of the hurricane Katrina. Since the floodwater has a salt concentration that penetrates into the plant cells.




Final answer:

The plants in the flooded areas of New Orleans died after Hurricane Katrina in 2005 due to the high salt concentration in the floodwaters. This caused water to move out of the plant cells (plasmolysis) leading to dehydration and death.

Explanation:

The death of the plants in the flooded areas of New Orleans after Hurricane Katrina in 2005 was most likely due to B: Water moving out of plant cells into the surrounding environment. This effect is largely related to the concept of osmosis. Essentially, the high salt concentration in the floodwaters created a hypertonic environment, causing the water in the plant cells to move out towards the saltier environment in a bid to balance the concentration. This process, known as plasmolysis, results in dehydration and ultimately the death of the plant.

Furthermore, some plant species, known as halophytes, can tolerate such salty conditions due to special adaptations. However, the majority of the plants in the flood-hit areas of New Orleans were not halophytic, thus could not withstand the high salt concentrations. This demonstrates that while some organisms can well regulate the effects of osmosis, many cannot when faced with extreme conditions.

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Which organelles' function is primarily locomotion?

Answers

Flagellum is organelle primarily for locomotion.
Final answer:

The main organelles linked with cell locomotion are flagella and cilia. They are found in both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells, with structural differences. Other contributing organelles include pseudopodia in amoeba and flagellum in Euglena.

Explanation:

The primary organelles associated with locomotion, or movement within cells, are flagella and cilia. These organelles are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, though their structures are distinct. In eukaryotic cells, the flagellum resembles a flexible whip and is made up of nine parallel pairs of microtubules surrounding two central ones, which are arranged in a 9+2 array. The cilia are similar to flagella but shorter and can be used for locomotion, feeding, or the movement of extracellular particles.

Other organelles that contribute to locomotion include pseudopodia in amoeba, which are lobe-like extensions used to anchor the cell to a surface and pull it forward, and the whip-like flagellum in Euglena.

It's important to note that these organelles not only enable the cells to move independently, they also help maintain the cell's shape, secure other organelles in specific positions, and allow the cytoplasm and vesicles to move within the cell.

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Which part of the brain regulates hunger and thirst

Answers

I think the answer is: Hypothalamus

Final answer:

The hypothalamus in the brain regulates hunger and thirst by receiving neural and hormonal signals, which indicate when to eat and when you are full.

Explanation:

The part of the brain that regulates hunger and thirst is the hypothalamus. It functions as the main control center, integrating various neural and hormonal responses from the digestive system. The hypothalamus contains neural circuits that respond to chemical signals indicating nutrient levels in the blood, as well as mechanical signals from the stomach regarding its fullness. These responses determine whether we feel the need to eat or the sensation of satiety. Additionally, fat tissue produces the hormone leptin, which communicates with the hypothalamus to help regulate food intake and energy balance.

Which body of water is home to the ENSO cycle?

Answers

equatorial Pacific Ocean


The correct answer is equatorial pacific ocean.

Equatorial pacific ocean is a body of water is home to the ENSO cycle.

ENSO cycle refers to southern Oscillation or El Nino. The interaction which occurs between ocean and atmosphere in tropical pacific results to periodic differences.

The three phases of ENSO include La nina, El Nino and neutral phase. ENSO lasts for nine to twelve months. They mostly develop on March to June and weaken on May to July.

ENSO is caused when atmospheric pressure across the pacific of equatorial.

Reef producing coral are called _______.

Answers

the answer is hermatypic

Why would removing eosin y and/or methylene blue from emb agar alter the medium's sensitivity or specificity/?

Answers

EMB agar is a selective medium for gram negative bacteria. It is a selective and differential medium for coliform. EMB agar contain eosin which is toxic to gram positive bacteria; the function of eosin is to inhibit the growth of gram positive bacteria and to react with lactose fermenter.
Eosin thus customize EMB agar for gram negative bacteria and removing it from the agar will alter the medium sensitivity.

An individual who cannot access memories created before brain damage or injury is suffering from _____ amnesia.

Answers

The inability to access memories formed, or difficulty in retrieving them, before brain damage or injury is called a Retrograde Amnesia
It is caused by impairment to the memory-storage areas of the brain. This type of damage can result from a distressing injury, a serious illness, a seizure or stroke, or a degenerative brain infection. It can be temporary, permanent, or get worse over time depending on the cause. With this type of amnesia, memory loss typically involves facts instead of skills. For instance, a person might forget if he owns a car, what make and model it is, or when he bought it, but he will still know how to drive.

What enzyme came from the digestive tract of the mondoni

Answers

I found the full exercise on the internet and it describes that there are three enzymes and you want to know which are the two enzymes from the digestive tract of the mondoni and which one is the enzyme from a hot spring.
Attached are two graphs from the analysis of the activity of these enzymes regarding temperature and pH. I found these graphs with the full exercise.
The enzymes that probably came from the digestive tract of the mondoni were enzymes A and B. These enzymes were resistant two lower levels of pH which indicates that they could be present in a digestive tract, which tends to be acidic, while the enzyme C does not tolerate lower pH levels. Enzymes A and B were also more active when in lower temperatures that match temperatures of a normal living organism, whereas enzyme C was more active in higher temperatures matching its probable provenience - a hot spring.
Final answer:

The question refers to an enzyme from the digestive tract of a 'mondoni', which could be a mistake or misinterpretation. In general, organisms like 'mondoni', if they exist, would have enzymes like amylase, lipase, and protease in their digestive tract to break down food for absorption.

Explanation:

The question doesn't specify a particular enzyme related to the digestive tract of the 'mondoni,' which appears to be a misspelling or misunderstanding. However, generally speaking, organisms have multiple enzymes that function in the digestive process. Enzymes like amylase, lipase, and protease work to break down carbohydrates, fats, and proteins respectively into their smaller constituent parts for absorption and utilization in the body. Amylase breaks starches into simple sugars, lipase splits fats into glycerol and fatty acids, while proteases break proteins into amino acids. If the 'mondoni' refers to a specific organism, a further and more accurate answer may require additional information about the organism.

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Lancelets display how many of the four major characteristics of the phylum chordata? 1 2 3 4 next

Answers

The lancelets consist of approximately 32 types of fish-like maritime chordates in the order of Amphioxiformes, with an international dissemination in tropical seas and low temperate, they are commonly found half-buried in sand.  The lancelets show 4 of the major characteristics of the phylum chordata.

 

What type of cellular transport do they use for large molecules? what features of the cell membrane permit it?

Answers

this is called active transport or fully permeable

Answer: The type of transport that amoebas use for large molecules is endocytosis and exocytosis.

Explanation: Endo- and exocytosis are two types of active transport. In both of these forms of transport, small spheres of membrane called vesicles are used to move molecules.

What occurs when an earthquake causes a sudden vertical change in the sea floor? a. isostasy b. soil creep c. sheet erosion d. a tsunami


apex D. a tsunami

Answers

D. A Tsunami would occur

Answer: d. Tsunami

A tsunami is a natural disaster in which high speed waves generate in the ocean due to the gravitational force exerted by the moon on the water of the ocean resulting in flood. But these may also occur because of the underwater earthquakes, landslides and volcanic eruptions. All these events causes changes in the sea floor.

Therefore, tsunami will occur when an earthquake causes a sudden vertical change in the sea floor.  

The spinal cord ends between the first and second lumbar vertebrae. this area is called the:

Answers

The spinal cord ends between the first and second lumbar vertebrae. This area is called the conus medullaris.
In English, this term is translated as 'medullary cone.' It is the lower part of the spinal cord, which is a gathering of nervous tissue and support cells. 

A client with schizoaffective disorder is engaging in an extremely long conversation about a current affairs in the world. the client goes on to provide the nurse with minute details. the nurse interprets this as suggesting what?

Answers

Depending on the contents of the conversation it could mean a variety of things. If the client is interpreting world affairs correctly he is unlikely to be having a schizophrenic episode. However, if his interpretation is out of the norm, or intently self-focused it is likely that they are having an episode. This may also be indicative of how their medicine is working and if they are taking it.
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