Answer and explanation:
Following points should be kept in mind while doing or observing CPR.
1)Rate should be 100-120 compressions per minute.
2)Compression depth should be atleast 2 inches.
3)Push hard and fast.
4)Interruptions of almost 10 seconds
5)Give effective breaths to make the chest rise.
6)Ventilation.
The actions that should be taken by the team in order to ensure that they are providing high-quality CPR include:
There should be smooth compressions which should be at rate of 100 - 120 compressions in every minute.The chest should be fully allowed to recoil after every compression had been done.The interruptions in the compression should be reduced to less than 10 seconds.Excessive ventilation should be avoided.Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) refers to the emergency procedure that's performed on a person that has cardiac arrest. When the heart of a person stops, this is done in order to keep the blood flowing in the person's body and preserve the person from dying.
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A woman is told that her weight has a standard score ( z z ‑score) of − 1.5 . −1.5. This means that:
a. her weight is 1.5 standard deviations below average.
2. her weight is 1.5 pounds above average.
3. her weight is 1.5 pounds below average.
4. her weight is 1.5 standard deviations above average.
Answer:
a. her weight is 1.5 standard deviations below average
Explanation:
Data provided in the question:
z score of the weight of the woman = - 1.5
Now,
The relation with the actual value and the z score is given as
x = Average + ( z × Standard deviation )
now,
substituting the value of z = - 1.5
We have
x = Average - 1.5 × Standard deviation
Hence,
z score = -1.5 means a. her weight is 1.5 standard deviations below average.
What are some of the short‑term effects of alcohol?
Answer:
Depending on how much this individual has taken in and what type of physical condition they are in they can have the effects of:
slurred speechvomitingdrowsinessheadachesproblems breathingunconsciousnessblacknessnot being able to pay attentionHope this helps ;)
Dr. Jenkins uses the Diagnostic Interview Scale, which is a published interview schedule, to help her diagnose posttraumatic stress disorder. Each of the following statements is true EXCEPT that the questions:
a. can be used with all clientsb. are mostly specificc. are preparedd. reflect the clinician's theoretical orientation
Answer:
-Reflect the clinician's theoretical orientation
Explanation:
Post Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) symptom scale interview is an interview semi structured with 17 items for assessment and proper diagnosis.
Respondents with a known traumatic history identify a single traumatic event that causes the most current stress.
It can be used with all clients hence option a is excluded.
they are mostly specific so option b is also excluded.
They are prepared, so 3rd option is also excluded.
They don't reflect the clinician's theoretical orientation.
Hence the last option reflect the clinician's theoretical orientation is the right answer
A 15-year-old boy visits his primary care physician's office with fever, headache, and malaise, along with complaints of pain on chewing and pain in the jawline just in front of the ear lobe. The boy asks his mother to leave the exam room for a minute and then tells the nurse that he is also experiencing testicular pain and swelling. The nurse recognizes that this client most likely has which condition?
a) Infectious mononucleosisb) Poliomyelitisc) Herpes zosterd) Mumps
Answer:
The nurse recognizes that this client most likely has "Mumps"
Explanation:
Primary signs of mumps comprise fever, headache, anorexia, and malaise. Within 24 hours, discomfort on eating and an "earache" happens. Once the child ideas to the place of the earache, however, he points to the jawline just in visible of the ear lobe, the site of the parotid gland. By the next day, the gland seems inflamed and feels tender; the ear develops expatriate upward and backward. Boys may also grow testicular pain and inflammation (orchitis). None of the other conditions listed matches the symptoms indicated.
A nurse assesses an older adult client who reports a 2 day history of vomiting and diarrhea. which findings will the nurse expect during the physical exam?
Final answer:
During the physical exam of an older adult client with a 2 day history of vomiting and diarrhea, a nurse would expect to find signs of dehydration, fatigue, and possible changes in blood pressure and heart rate.
Explanation:
In evaluating an older adult client with a 2 day history of vomiting and diarrhea, the nurse can expect to find signs and symptoms that commonly accompany these conditions. Notable findings may include evidence of dehydration, such as decreased skin turgor, dry mucous membranes, and possibly an orthostatic (postural) change in blood pressure and heart rate indicating volume depletion. The client may also show signs of fatigue due to the loss of fluids and electrolytes.
In assessing dehydration, the nurse should be vigilant for symptoms like a marked decrease in urination, a very dry mouth and throat, and dizziness or lightheadedness with position changes. Due to the prolonged vomiting and diarrhea, which can significantly affect hydration and electrolyte status, additional findings could include changes in mental status, such as confusion, particularly in older adults.
The _________________ are the subjective and objective data that signal the existence of the actual or possible health problem.
Answer:
defining characteristics
Explanation:
The nursing diagnosis, also known as the defining characteristics, is the clinical judgment on the response of a person, family or community to health problems, real or potential, or to vital processes, which provide the basis for the selection of nursing interventions and the achievement of objectives for which the nurse is responsible.
It is characterized by:
- It is the exposition of a problem of the user
- It is a conclusion that is deduced
- It is based on subjective and objective data that can be verified.
- It is the exposition of a nursing trial
- It deals with issues that nurses are authorized to attend
- It deals with spiritual, physical, psychological and sociocultural aspects.
- It deals with situations that the nurse can attend independently.
The theory stating that behaviors are motivated by an organism's attempts to reduce tension from conditions such as hunger or thirst, and return the body to a state of balance, is called ________ theory.a. drive-reduction
b. homeostatic
c. needs
d. disequilibrium
Answer: a) drive-reduction
Explanation: Homeostasis is basically the body's need to maintain stability necessary for survival despite changes in the world outside. It is the body's unconscious tendency to maintain internal states (temperature, sleep, thirst, hunger) at stable levels.
Drive-reduction theory, which is a major theory of motivation, suggests that when there is an Homeostatic imbalance, needs are created, people perform actions (i.e their behaviour changes) to restore the body's ideal state, because of the need to restore balance.
The theory explaining behavior as attempts to reduce physiological tension and achieve homeostasis is called the drive-reduction theory.
Explanation:The theory that states behaviors are motivated by an organism's attempts to reduce tension from conditions such as hunger or thirst, and return the body to a state of balance, is called the drive-reduction theory. This theory posits that deviations from homeostasis create physiological needs, leading to psychological drive states that direct behavior to meet these needs and, ultimately, return the system back to homeostasis. For instance, hunger drives an organism to seek food, thereby reducing the drive once homeostasis is achieved.
Baby Billy calls his favorite blanket a "blankie." When he sees other blankets in the house, however, he does not refer to them as a "blankie" because he uses that name only for his favorite blanket. This is an example of _________.a) underextension. b) overextension. c) referential style. d) holophrasic speech.
Answer:
a) underextension.
Explanation:
Psychologically, underextension can be defined as a classification term used in language to account and relate one object or an entity as opposed to all objects or all entity that is linked to that class. This phenomena is rampant in children when beginning to acquire and reinforce a new language.
In the case of Baby Billy, Baby Billy calls his favorite blanket a "blankie.", he has already learns the word(blanket) for something else callled (blankie), without extending it to other things in the same category because when he sees other blankets in the house, he does not refer to them as a "blankie".
Sean Brown is a new care provider and has never before used Prime Suite. He is frustrated, and though you have been trying to help him, he is still having difficulty. What would be sound advice to give to Dr. Brown?
Answer:
The best advice to give would be to direct him to the PrimeSUITE User Guide and show him the index, content and search functionality
The nurse is caring for a patient who was prescribed bethanechol 1 month ago. Which statement made by the patient indicates the medication is effective?
Answer: That is when the patient state that he or she can now urinate with ease without any form of discomfort.
Explanation:
Bethanechol is used to treat urinary retention (difficulty urinating), which may occur after surgery, after delivering a baby, and in other situations. Bethanechol may also be used for purposes other than those listed in this medication guide.
Bethanechol is used to improve urine flow in patients suffering from urinary retention. A patient's statement indicating its effectiveness could involve affirming regular bathroom visits or mentioning no more trouble urinating.
Explanation:The medication, bethanechol, is a cholinergic drug which mainly is used to treat urinary retention. It works by stimulating the bladder muscle in order to improve urine flow. Thus, an effective outcome would be one that indicates an improvement in urinary symptoms. For example, a statement that would reflect effectiveness could be 'I don't have trouble urinating anymore' or 'I go to the bathroom regularly now'.
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A nurse is teaching a client who is awaiting a heart transplant. Which statement indicates the client understands what is required to help minimize rejection?a) "There is no risk of rejection if the donor heart is an exact match."
b) "I will receive medication before and during surgery which will eliminate the risk of rejection."
c) "I will need medication following surgery to prevent rejection and if my body does not reject the new heart I will not have to take any medication at home."
d) "I will need to take three different types of medications for the rest of my life to help prevent rejection."
Answer:
d) "I will need to take three different types of medications for the rest of my life to help prevent rejection."
Explanation:
Clients who have had heart transplants depends on many factors, including age, health, and response to the transplant and they are constantly balancing and trying to cope with the risk of rejection and with the risk of infection.
They are needed to take follow up measure which involves usage of varieties of complex medications, biopsies of the transplanted heart (to diagnose rejection), and clinical visitations.
They need to understand that there are 'three classes of medications prescribed for a transplant client to help minimize rejection': these are corticosteroids, calcineurin inhibitors, and antiproliferative agents.
A 78 Y/O female was admitted with heart failure to the ICU from home. By day 3 of hospitalization, she had improved and was transferred to the medical cardiac unit. The pressure injury survey was conducted on day 4 of hospitalization and the survey team saw a Stage 1 area of persistent, nonblanchable redness on her right heel. Review of her hospital admission assessment record revealed that she had 4+ lower right leg edema and brown discoloration of the lower calf and ankle skin. A 2 cm by 4 cm wound with serous drainage also was also documented over her medial lower leg midpoint between her calf and ankle. The skin assessment documented on arrival to the medical cardiac unit noted a Stage 1 pressure injury at this site in addition to the wound, edema, and brown discoloration on her left lower leg as noted on the admission assessment. For the pressure injury survey, this would be reported as:__________
Answer:
A hospital acquired pressure injury only.
Explanation:
the pressure injury was not observed and documented in the admission assessment record. Since, the pressure injury is obtained after hospitalization, it is a hospital acquired injury. When the patient is admitted into the cardiac unit, the presence of Stage 1 pressure injury was documented which was already present on arrival to medical unit. Hence, the pressure injury is not cardiac unit acquired pressure injury. The admission assessment record does not contained information about the venous ulcer which the patient already had upon admission and this ulcer was in the same lower proximity as the pressure injury and this venous ulcer might have been the reason of this injury.
You come upon a child who has collapsed. The child is not breathing normally and does not have a pulse. You are alone and have no immediate access to a phone or other form of communication. Which action would you do first?
Final answer:
When you find a child collapsed without a pulse and not breathing normally, you should immediately start CPR, if you are trained, and seek emergency help at the first opportunity.
Explanation:
Immediate Action for a Collapsed Child
When you come upon a child who has collapsed and is not breathing normally and does not have a pulse, the first action to take, especially if you are alone without immediate access to communication, is to start Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR). Before initiating CPR, ensure that the area is safe for both you and the child. Once safety is confirmed, begin with chest compressions immediately. If you are trained in providing rescue breaths and feel competent to do so, include them in the CPR sequence. Otherwise, performing hands-only CPR is still beneficial. The goal is to artificially circulate blood and oxygen to vital organs until proper medical help can be obtained. After two minutes of CPR, if there is no response and if it's an option, quickly look for help or a phone to call emergency services, then return to the child and continue CPR.
If the child was found submerged in water, remove them from the water first before starting CPR as performing CPR in water is ineffective. In the case of a choking child, if conscious, administer back blows and the Heimlich maneuver if you are trained. For an infant, follow proper choking protocol, which involves turning the baby upside down and giving back slaps. Remember, fast action and proper technique are critical for increasing the chances of survival.
Due care and due diligence require that an organization make a valid effort to protect others and continually maintain this level of effort, ensuring these actions are effective.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
An organization is required to make a valid effort to show due care and due diligence towards its employees and other stakeholders so that they could limit their chances of liability in unethical and socially unacceptable scenarios. Due care steps are taken by an organization to draw a line between what is acceptable and what is unacceptable while dealing with employees. Due diligence is to create awareness about the consequences of unethical or illegal actions taken by management or employees.
Due Care and Due Diligence are essential business practices that involve reasonable efforts to prevent harm and conduct thorough investigations before taking actions, respectively. They apply across different domains, ranging from academia to corporate governance, and are often reinforced by legal requirements.
Explanation:Understanding Due Care and Due Diligence in Business Practices
Due care and due diligence are critical concepts in business and other organizational activities that denote the effort an organization must make to protect stakeholders and continually ensure the effectiveness of these efforts. Due care implies that an organization must act with a level of reasonable care while performing any acts that could foreseeably harm others. It encompasses a variety of responsibilities, from ensuring the safety of participants in a study to respecting human rights and exercising fair labor practices as highlighted by corporate governance strategies. Conversely, due diligence is the investigative process that precedes an action, such as assessing risks associated with business decisions or evaluating the qualifications of potential employees to fulfill their duties.
To contextualize, academia mandates informed consent for study participants, as a part of due care. Similarly, Open Educational Resources (OER) stewards strive to improve access through persistent effort and due care towards education. In the corporate realm, companies are expected to uphold human rights and ethical labor practices, showcasing their due diligence in governance. Legal frameworks also extend the notion of due diligence through laws such as truth-in-lending and Sarbanes-Oxley, mandating transparency and ethical corporate conduct.
The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services advises exclusive breast feeding for the first _______ and inclusion of breast milk in the baby's diet until at least ________.
A) 6 weeks; 6 months.
B) 4 months; 6 months.
C) 6 months; 1 year.
D) 1 year; 2 years.
Answer:
C) The U.S. Department of Health and Human Services advises exclusive breast feeding for the first 6 months and inclusion of breast milk in the baby's diet until at least 1 year.
Explanation:
When it comes to breastfeeding, breast milk is the best option for the new born baby, It provides not only all the nutrients needed to grow healthy and the development of every part of their bodies, but also is the best protection, reducing the risk of having allergies, asthma, diarrhea and many infections and deseases. This is due to the fact that Breast milk provides Immunoglobulines which play an essential role in the baby's inmunity. During these first 6 months, breast milk is much more easy to digest than formula, though they have made huge improvements. After those first 6 months, the baby is ready to include some vegetables, cereals, fruits and water while the still drink breast milk too.
The health care provider has prescribed lidocaine with epinephrine for injection to be administered before obtaining a biopsy. The nurse would question the prescription after the patient makes which statement?
Answer:
"I am taking a new medicine for high blood pressure."
Explanation:
Lidocaine and epinephrine mixture dose is used to source numbness or loss of sensation for patients taking certain medical actions (by obstructive certain nerves by means of the brachial plexus, intercostal, lumbar, or epidural blocking techniques). Lidocaine and Epinephrine Vaccinations deliver an regular pulp anesthesia of at minimum 60 minutes with an normal period of soft tissue anesthesia of about 2.5 hours. The accumulation of epinephrine 5 micrograms/ml (1:200 000) as a vasoconstrictor to local anaesthetic results reduces systemic fascination and extends the anaesthetic result.
After teaching the pregnant woman about ways to minimize flatulence and bloating during pregnancy, which statement indicates the need for additional teaching?a) "I'll try to drink more fluids to help move things along."b) "I'll switch to chewing gum instead of using mints."c) "I'll increase my time spent on walking each day."d) "I'll stay away from foods like cabbage and brussels sprouts."
Answer:
d) "I'll stay away from foods like cabbage and brussels sprouts."
Explanation:
A professor at Big State University proposes to study attitudes about obesity in Chile by giving subjects in Chile surveys to complete. Which is a question that the Big State University IRB should ask the researcher in order to determine if this study should be reviewed by a local Chilean IRB or ethics committee, as well as the Big State University IRB? Will the researcher have collaborators at the research site abroad?
Answer:
The obesity may be defined as the deposition of the excessive fat layer on the specific body parts. Obesity occurs due to the increase in the body weight and increases the risk of heart related disease.
As the information given in the question, the university must ask the researcher about the collaboration of the research at the research site in the abroad. The survey must include the individual from the different states and countries. All these surveys must be complied at the different research site present in abroad.
A client exhibits knee instability while performing ball squats. Which of the following should a fitness professional suggest to the client to reduce the discomfort?
Answer:
Decrease the range of motion involved in the exercise.
Explanation:
A ball squats activity is the dorsoflexion of ankle and contraction of muscles around the joint to produce maximal contraction. People who have an unstable knee shall not perform ball squat in depth and shall decrease the range of motion. These people with knee instability shall have a knee flexion restricted to 50-60° so that shear forces applied on posterior joints are minimized.
During the ________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome, intense arousal occurs as the body mobilizes internal physical resources to meet the demands of the stress-producing event.A) alarmB) resistanceC) plateauD) alert
Answer: Alarm stage
Explanation:
The alarm stage of the body involves the flight or fight response. When the body is exposed to the stress conditions, the typical reactions of the body is stimulated by the help of the hormones like epinephrine and nor epinephrine.
Epinephrine hormone helps in the transportation of the glucose and fatty acid molecules from the fatty cells.
Both of the above hormone helps in increasing the heart rate at the time of stress.
Simon presents with alopecia areata with well-circumscribed patches of hair loss on the crown of hishead. How do you respond when he asks you the cause?
a."You must be under a lot of stress lately."
b."It is hereditary. Did your father experience this also?"
c."The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism."
d."We’ll have to do some tests."
Answer:
The correct option is C) "The cause is unknown, but we suspect it is due to an immunologic mechanism."
Explanation:
Alopecia areata can be described as an autoimmune disorder which is characterized by hair loss. For some people, only some hair might be lost in patches but for other people the hair loss might be severe. In severe conditions, all the hair from the head and even from the entire body can be lost. Alopecia areata is a common disorder and every one in five peoples experiencing the disorder also has another member of the family with the same disorder.
Jennifer and Nate are seeing Dr. Becker for their marital issues. Neither one of them has a psychological disorder, but they are interested in strengthening their relationship. Dr. Becker is most likely a _________ psychologist.a. social
b. developmental
c. clinical
d. counseling
Answer:
The correct option is D: Counseling Psychologist
Explanation:
Counseling Psychology is referred to an applied psychology aimed at helping people to gain absolute control of their feelings. A counseling Psychologist is simply a practitioner who helps people make changes in the manner of thinking, behaving, and feeling, without being judgmental. Jennifer and Nate needs a counseling Psychologist to help them keep their feelings in check. Marital issues are as a result of a death in feelings of a partner and the best person to handle this is a counseling psychologist.
When asked to explain why teenage gang membership is rising, Dr. Yale responds, "Generally speaking, these children are driven by conflicts between what they wish to do and what society wishes them to do." It is most likely that Dr. Yale would be a proponent of ____ theory.A. psychodynamicB. social cognitiveC. ecologicalD. cognitive-developmental
Answer:
A. psychodynamic
Explanation:
The theory of psychodynamics argues that behavior is the consequence of psychological forces inherent in the individual that occurs outside of consciousness. The psychodynamic theory adduces 5 propositions they are.
1. That we behave unconsciously
2. Conflicts arise in our mind
3. Personality begins to be formed by early childhood experiences.
4. The way we think about ourselves influences how we socialize with others.
5. Having a developed personality influences how we handle sexual or aggressive feelings if we are dependent instead of independent
The psychodynamic orientation in the field of mental health follows a line that includes psychoanalytic thinking, based on the fact that the act of conduct is always an act with meaning and purpose, regardless of whether or not the subject possesses knowledge of same. The methodology derived from this conception points, consequently, to the exploration and objectification of that internal world of which the subject has no knowledge, considering the inadvertent or unconscious behavior as an essential component of it, precisely because it is considered to be the unconscious which gives meaning and support to manifest behavior. This objective marks the difference that distinguishes it from other methodologies, which treat the inadvertent components of behavior in a more marginal way.
According to Aaron Beck's cognitive theory, one illogical thought process regularly found in depression is _____, the drawing of broad negative conclusions on the basis of a single insignificant event.
The question is incomplete asit does not have the options which are:
a. overgeneralization
b. catastrophizing
c. dichotomous thinking
d. selective abstraction
Answer:
Overgeneralization
Explanation:
During the time period when a person feels depressed, the mind is occupied by the negative thoughts which make a person feel bad about his or her life.
Many psychiatrists has given the theory to solve the psychic problem in which one of the psychiatrists was Aaron Beck who gave the cognitive theory of the depression.
The cognitive theory of the depression states that the negative feelings, behaviour and experience to the environment are the cause of the depressive symptoms.
In the given question, the given condition is a type of cognitive therapy distortion called overgeneralization in which one event or experience is applied to generalize all the experiences of the past and future.
Thus, Overgeneralization is the correct answer.
The illogical thought process found in depression, according to Aaron Beck's cognitive theory, is 'overgeneralization,' where one draws broad negative conclusions from a single event. This cognitive distortion leads to feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness. Cognitive-behavioral therapy aims to address these negative thought patterns.
According to Aaron Beck's cognitive theory, one illogical thought process regularly found in depression is overgeneralization. In this cognitive distortion, a person draws broad negative conclusions on the basis of a single insignificant event. For example, if someone fails an exam, they might think, "I am a total failure; I will never succeed in anything," instead of acknowledging the failure as a one-time event.
Overgeneralization is a common cognitive distortion seen in those suffering from depression, leading to feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness. Cognitive-behavioral therapy often focuses on identifying and reframing such negative and pervasive thought patterns to alleviate depressive symptoms.
Examples of Cognitive Distortions:
All-or-nothing thinking: Viewing situations in black-and-white categories.Jumping to conclusions: Making negative interpretations without definite facts.Overgeneralization: Drawing broad conclusions based on a single event.
The immigrant tenements in New York City lower east side had many challenges for Lillian Wald in giving nursing care. These challenges included: Over crowding, Insufficient lighting, No indoor plumbing TRUE or FALSE
Answer:
True
Explanation:
This statement is true that the immigrant tenements in New York City lower east side had many challenges for Lillian Wald in giving nursing care which includes Over crowding, Insufficient lighting and No indoor plumbing
The early focus of nutrition research was on the ____. Group of answer choices
1. amount of nutrients that help prevent chronic diseases
2. type of nutrients that help prevent chronic diseases
3. prevention of heart disease
4. amount and type of nutrients needed to prevent deficiencies
Answer:
The early focus of nutrition research was on the 4. Amount and type of nutrients needed to prevent deficiencies.!
Explanation:
Nutrition research is relatively young. One of the first developments was the first vitamin isolated in 1926. During this period of time, research was focused on nutrient deficiency diseases. Researching in the field of non-communicable chronic diseases, like diabetes, obesity, Etc. is recent. All these changes obey to the health context and the common diseases of the different periods of time. Option 1, 2 and 3 are examples of these young area of research.
The nurse is reviewing the history and physical exam of a woman who has come to the clinic for a routine physical. Which factor would the nurse identify as increasing the client's risk for breast cancer?
Answer:
A lump or mass in the breast.
Swelling of all or part of the breast, even if no lump is felt.
Skin irritation or dimpling.
Breast or nipple pain.
Nipple retraction (turning inward)
The nipple or breast skin appears red, scaly, or thickened.
Nipple discharge.
Research participants preferred specific vacation destinations that they had simply imagined themselves experiencing. If the imagination process followed consumption of a drug that increased levels of _____, then ___________.
Answer:
Research participants preferred specific vacation destinations that they had simply imagined themselves experiencing. If the imagination process followed consumption of a drug that increased levels of dopamine,
Explanation:
Dopamine is a neurotransmitter that is related to pleasure, it influences decision making and it depends of chemeical reactions in the neurons.
This production of dopamine can be estimulated by drugs, since the production of dopamine brings pleasure, the preferences would be influenced by it.
Which statement should a nurse include when teaching a class on health promotion related to keeping cells healthy? Select all that apply.
Answer:
....
Explanation:
Celia spends a good deal of her time worrying, is easily fatigued, and often has difficulty concentrating, which is affecting her grades. Her symptoms may characterize:_________.