Two species of buttercup are found in the same field in South Dakota, but they emerge at different times: One species emerges and flowers in early spring, and the other species does not emerge until late summer, after the first species has set seed. This is an example of

Answers

Answer 1

Answer: Resource partitioning

Explanation: Resource partitioning is the situation where more than one group of living organisms consisting of identical individuals eligible for sharing genes distributes out nutrition, free area, sleeping areas that exist at the same time or the same area. This usually happens when a group of living organisms consisting of identical individuals eligible for sharing genes separate a role taken by a category of organisms within its neighborhood to prevent competition for food and other aids. However, creatures and plants may develop gradually to give birth to offspring at distinct times of the year, eat food at a distinct point of time, or utilize a distinct portion of a woodland or distinct distance of a lake.

Answer 2

Answer:

Resource Partitioning .

Explanation:

The ability of  two organisms of the same species, in the same ecological niche of  limited  resources,  to avoid competition for the limited resources and co-exit with one another with  the limited resources available  is called  Resource Partition.Thus  the two  buttercup species on the same field(niche) flowered at different periods to ration the limited resources(insect pollinators, soil nutrients, space,) available.

It is applicable  to  habitat and food resources.It gives room for long term co-existence  of similar species of organisms,and prevent extinction of  disadvantaged species.

It provides insights to how resources in  an ecosystem is used a particular species of organism, and the effect of removal  a specie of organism on the allocation of resources available.


Related Questions

Suppose the government has imposed a price floor on the market for soybeans. Which of the following events could transform the price floor from one that is not binding into one that is binding?a. Farmers use improved, draught-resistant seeds, which lowers the cost of growing soybeans.b. The number of farmers selling soybeans decreases.c. Consumers' income increases, and soybeans are a normal good.d. The number of consumers buying soybeans increases.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - option A.

Explanation:

Price floor is a minimum price determined by the government at which a particular item can be sold. It is legal to sell the item on the minimum price which is often imposed by the government when farmers or sellers of the item convince that market price is not fair without a price floor.

In this case the farmers are farmers use improved, drought resistant seeds, which lowers the cost of growing soybeans which can transform the price floor.

Thus, the correct answer is - option A.

Final answer:

In the context of a government-imposed price floor on soybeans, an increase in the number of consumers buying soybeans could potentially transform a non-binding price floor into a binding one. This is because the rise in demand could drive the equilibrium price above the current price floor, making the floor price binding.

Explanation:

In the context of this question, a price floor is a minimum price set by the government at a level above the market equilibrium price. If the government sets a floor price on soybeans, it sets a price that it will not allow the price of soybeans to fall below, even if market conditions would require it to. If the floor price is set above the equilibrium price, it is known as a binding price floor.

The scenario that could transform the price floor from not binding to binding would be Option D: 'The number of consumers buying soybeans increases.' This event could push the market demand for soybeans up, pushing up the equilibrium price. If this new, higher equilibrium price exceeds the price floor, then the price floor becomes binding. The government would then need to buy the surplus soybeans that are not sold in order to keep the market price at the floor price.

Conversely, if farmers use better seeds (Option A) or the number of farmers decrease (Option B), this could increase supply, which would lower the equilibrium price and make a price floor less likely to bind. Similarly, if consumers' incomes increase and soybeans are a normal good (Option C), this could also increase demand, but depending on the elasticity of the demand for soybeans, it may not increase the price enough to make a price floor binding.

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Speciation occurs when populations of a species become so different over time that they can no longer interbreed. Which of the
following best describes the relationship between speciation and biodiversity?
A.
An increase in biodiversity generally results in a decrease in speciation rate.
B. Ecosystems with low biodiversity always have a low rate of speciation.
C.
Speciation results in an increase in overall biodiversity.
D.
Speciation can only occur in ecosystems with low biodiversity
Reset
Submit

Answers

Answer: C

Explanation:

speciation results iIn more species, therefore a greater biodiversity

Speciation results in an increase in overall biodiversity. The correct option is C.

What is speciation?

The process by which populations develop into different species is known as speciation.

In contrast to anagenesis, which refers to phyletic evolution within lineages, cladogenesis, the separation of lineages, was first described by the scientist Orator F. Cook in 1906.

Rivers change their courses, mountains rise, continents drift, organisms migrate, and what was once a continuous population is split into two or more smaller populations.

According to scientists, who believe that geographic isolation is a common method for the process of speciation to start.

The most frequent type of speciation, allopatric speciation, takes place when populations of a species become geographically isolated. Gene flow between populations stops when they are divided.

The amount of biodiversity as a whole rises as a result of speciation.

Thus, the correct option is C.

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Which of the following statements about meiofauna is FALSE?
a.Meiofauna feed primarily on bacteria removed from the surface of sediment particles.
b.Meiofauna are found only in the supratidal (spray) zone.
c.Meiofauna are found from the intertidal zone to deepest ocean trenches.
d.Meiofauna live in the tiny spaces between sediment particles.
e.Meiofauna are very small organisms, generally only 0.1 to 2 millimeters (0.004 to 0.08 inch) long.

Answers

Answer:

Option-(E): Meiofauna are very small organisms, generally only 0.1 to 2 millimeters (0.004 to 0.08 inch) long.

Explanation:

The are very minute in size and live inside the benthic region of the seabed. Along, with that they are also found to be living in both fresh and sea water, which makes it able to have more nutritional.But, they are however much smaller in body size as compared to other bacterial life inside the environment.

A significant body of research indicates ____ for exam stress; large scale disasters; loss of a spouse; response to viral challenge including herpes simplex, Epstein Barr, HIV, and cold virus; and long-term caregiving by loved ones of persons with dementia. immune system growth immune system suppression increased growth of phagocytes immune dysregulation

Answers

Answer:

immune system suppression

Explanation:

Research indicated suppression of the immune system can have many causes like stress during exam releases corticosteroid which is a stress hormone that reduce the function of the immune cell thereby suppress the immune system.

Emotional stress like loss of a spouse or loved ones suppresses the immune system of a person and makes a person vulnerable to disease. Viral challenges especially those that attack the immune system suppress our immune system.  

Research suggests that Dementia caregivers are at increased risk of lower immunity, cardiovascular disease and lower immune response towards vaccine.

As a result of chronic stress associated with an intense high school weight-lifting program, a 15-year-old boy suffers an avulsion fracture of the greater tubercle of the humerus. In the ER, he displays difficulty initiating abduction of the upper limb. Which muscles was involved in this fracture?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is: supraspinatus.

Explanation:

Many muscles insert in the humerus - in its greater tubercle, where the fracture took place, is where three of the four rotator cuff muscles insert: supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor. Avulsion of the greater tubercle could result in detachment of any of these 3 muscles but if we take into account that the 15-year-old boy had difficulty initiating abduction of the upper limb, we can infer that the damaged muscle is the supraspinatus because its main action is to start the abduction the upper limb.

Explain what a haploid cell is as if you were talking to an 8-10-year-old. (Please help, I'm working on a storybook about meiosis for children. Let's learn about how you came to be, children-os!)

Answers

Answer:

A haploid cell can be described as a type of cell which comprises of only a complete set of chromosome. Haploid cells are present in the gamete cells or sex cells. A sperm cell and an egg is haploid.

Diploid cells can be described as a type of cell which comprises of two sets of chromosomes. A zygote is diploid. All somatic cells of the body are diploid.

Answer:

chromosomes

Explanation:

Assume a thylakoid is somehow punctured so that the interior of the thylakoid is no longer separated from the stroma. This damage will have the most direct effect on which of the following processes' Assume a thylakoid is somehow punctured so that the interior of the thylakoid is no longer separated from the stroma. This damage will have the most direct effect on which of the following processes?a) the splitting of waterb) the absorption of light energy by chlorophyllc) the flow of electrons from photosystem II to photosystem Id) the synthesis of ATP

Answers

Answer:

D) the synthesis of ATP

Explanation:

The chloroplast possesses the thylakoids and stroma in which the thylakoid is associated with the light reaction and ATP synthesis and the stroma is associated with the Calvin cycle.

The membrane of the thylakoid is involved in maintaining the membrane potential in which ATP synthase are embedded. The F1 unit of the ATP synthase or rotor rotates when the Hydrogen moves from the thylakoid membrane to the stroma.  

If the membrane is punctured then it will disrupt the proton flow and process of ATP synthesis is disrupted.

Thus, Option-D is correct.

Membranous channel extending inward from muscle fiber membrane

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is- transverse tubules.

Explanation:

Transverse tubules are the membranous channel that extends inward from the muscle cell, these are the actually the addition or extensions of the cell membrane that invade into the center of muscles cells except smooth muscles.

The role of the transverse tubules is to generating the stimulus or signals from the sarcolemma to down in the cell. Sarcolemma are the surface of the cells in muscles.

Thus, the correct answer is - transverse tubules.

Final answer:

The T-tubule is the membranous channel that extends inward from the muscle fiber membrane, allowing the action potential to trigger the release of calcium ions from the Sarcoplasmic Reticulum, which initiates muscle contraction.

Explanation:

The membranous channel extending inward from the muscle fiber membrane that you are asking about is known as the T-tubule (transverse tubule). These are periodic invaginations of the sarcolemma that ensure the action potential can travel into the interior of the cell. When an action potential propagates along the sarcolemma, it enters the T-tubules and triggers the opening of calcium channels in the membrane of the adjacent Sarcoplasmic Reticulum (SR). This results in the diffusion of calcium ions (Ca++) into the sarcoplasm, which is key in initiating the contraction of the muscle fiber's contractile units, known as sarcomeres.

When an analyst discovers that a set of classes have a similar set of attributes and methods, it may make sense to _____ out the similarities into a separate class.

Answers

Answer:

Factor

Explanation:

Factoring out involves noting the similar attributes between the classes. It’s such information that helps in the formation of a new class according to the distinct similarities between them after several tests and observation may have been conducted.

Your sister-in-law is amazed at her 9-year-old son. She can remember when her son was not able to sit and listen to a story for very long and now he is able to listen intently and remember the story in very good detail. What two advances occur during middle childhood in information processing abilities that assist with his newly developed abilities?

Answers

Answer: Attention and memory

Explanation:

Attention and memory are the two skills developed in the body which is led to   the development of abilities.

As a child he had a good memory that is the reason he remember the whole story. This happened at the time when he was not able to sit.

When he grew up he started taking interest in the story and paid attention to the story again.

This is the reason the child remembers the story very well.

The skeletal muscle complex known as the triad consists of

Answers

Answer:

A triad is composed of a T-tubule and two adjacent terminal cisternae of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

Explanation:

Florence Nightingale was a nursing pioneer who challenged prejudices against women and elevated the status of all nurses. Which statement accurately describes one of her accomplishments?
a.She established the fact that nursing is the same as medicine.
b.She promoted the addition of nursing education as part of a medical degree.
c.She established the tenets of the American Red Cross.
d.She promoted the publication of books about nursing and health care.

Answers

The correct option is (D)

Explanation:

Florence Nightingale raised the status of nursing to a respected occupation, improved the nature of nursing care, and established present day nursing education. She advanced the production of books about nursing education and health care. Her conviction with respect to nursing was that it was independent and particular from the act of medication. She didn't belief that nursing training ought to be a piece of a clinical degree. Clara Barton built up the American Red Cross in 1882.

A group of small fish live in a lake with a uniformly light-brown sandy bottom. Most of the fish are light brown, but about 10% are mottled. This fish species is often prey for large birds that live on the shore. A construction company dumps a load of gravel in the bottom of the lake, giving it a mottled appearance. Which of these statements presents the most accurate prediction of what will happen to this fish population? 1. The proportion of mottled fish will increase over time.2. In two generations, all the fish will be mottled.3. There is no way to predict the result.4. As the mottled fish are eaten, more will be produced to fill the gap.5. The ratios will not change.

Answers

1. The proportion of mottled fish will increase over time.

Explanation:

The mottled appearance of the bottom of the lake provided a survival benefit to the mottled skinned fishes. This is because a mottled background allows the mottled fishes to camouflage against it and escape predation . On the other hand light brown fishes will become more distinct and visible to the birds and will be hunted. So, soon the proportion of mottled fish in the lake will rise.

A nurse and a nursing student are discussing the plan of care for a patient with schizophrenia. The patient, who has been taking a high-potency FGA for 2 months, has become restless and constantly needs to be in motion. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further education?

a. "Anticholinergic medications may help control these symptoms."
b. "Because this may be an exacerbation of psychosis, the provider may increase the dose of the FGA."
c. "The provider may try a low-potency FGA instead of the high-potency FGA."
d. "This patient may need to take a benzodiazepine or a beta blocker."

Answers

Answer:

Because this may be an exacerbation of psychosis, the provider may increase the dose of the FGA.

Explanation:

Schizophrenia may be defined as the medical condition in which the individual is not able to understand the reality and  interpret the reality in the different ways.

FGA (First-generation antipsychotics) is the treatment used for the patients suffering from schizophrenia. This medication is quite reasonable and cheap. Even after the failure of FGA, the patient needs to go for the different treatment. The further increase of FGA doses might affect the individual health.

Thus, the correct answer is option (B).

________ sweat glands are widely distributed across the body surface, ________ glands are located wherever hair follicles exist, and ________ sweat glands are found only in a few areas.

Answers

Answer:

eccrine glands, sebaceous glands , apocrine glands

Explanation:

Eccrine sweat glands are located on all over the body and secret water and electrolyte to regulate body temperature and excretion of waste substances too.

Sebaceous glands are located at the place where hair is present except the palms of the hands and soles of the feet.

Apocrine glands are located in armpits, the groin, and around the nipples of the breast the sweat releases from the apocrine have some odor too.

PLZZZZZZ HELPPPPPPP ASAPPPP!!! 4

Answers

Answer:

The answer to your question is below

Explanation:

Question 14.- T pairs A     A pairs T         G pairs C    C pairs G

Original strand           TAC    TAA     GCA

New strand                ATG    ATT     CGT        (Third choice)

Question 15.-

Correct choices

a. Guanine base pairs with cytosine

c. Nucleotides with adenine, guanine, cytosine, or thymine are the monomers.

f. Thymine base pairs with adenine

During glycolysis, when glucose is catabolized to pyruvate, most of the energy of glucose is a. retained in the pyruvate. b. transferred directly to FADH2. c. transferred to ADP, forming ATP. d. stored in the ADP produced.

Answers

Answer:

a. retained in the pyruvate

Explanation:

Glycolysis is a cytoplasmic pathway that converts glucose into two pyruvate, releasing a modest amount of energy captured in two substrate-level phosphorylations and one oxidation reaction.

Following are the important enzymes in it :

HexokinasePhosphofructokinasePyruvate kinase

Aerobic glycolysis yields 2ATP/glucose plus 2NADH/glucose but most of the energy is retained in pyruvate which is then converted into Acetyl-CoA and enters the kreb's cycle.

Most of the energy of glucose is : ( A ) retained in the pyruvate

Glycolysis is a process ( cytoplasmic pathway ) through which glucose is converted into 2 pyruvate molecules and a little amount of energy generated during this process is released into the two-substrate level phosphorylations and an oxidation reaction.

Most of the energy is retained in the pyruvate during  aerobic glycolysis and 2ATP / glucose is produced as well.

Hence we can conclude that most of the energy of glucose is retained in the pyruvate.

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Since animals have nerve and muscle tissue and plants do not, which of the following events in earth’s history would be associated with adaptive radiation of many groups of animals, and not particularly that of plants?
A. increase in atmospheric O2
B. great increase in land mass area
C. changes in global ocean temperatures
D. meteorite impacts and volcanic eruptions
E. earthquake activity causing increased barrier formation

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is A) increase in atmospheric O2

Explanation:

The nerve cells and the muscle cells suggest that the the presence of oxygen in the atmosphere was an adaptive radiation which brought the existence of different animals. The conditions became favorable for different animals to survive on Earth only when the availability of oxygen improved in the atmosphere. As animal cells like the muscle cells require a constant supply of oxygen, we can hence say that increase in atmospheric oxygen was the adaptive radiation for supporting many group of animals.

Eukaryotes have their DNA arranged in numerous double-stranded, linear DNA molecules bound with proteins; these structures are called ___________

Answers

Answer:

In eukaryotes, the genome comprises several double-stranded, linear DNA molecules bound with proteins to form complexes called chromosomes

The apoplast in plant tissues consists of:________. a. cell walls, extracellular spaces, and vessel elements b. cell walls, extracellular spaces, and plasmodesmata c. vessel elements, plasmodesmata, and extracellular spaces d. cell walls, plasma membrane, and cytosol

Answers

The apoplast in plant tissues consists of cell walls, extracellular spaces, and vessel elements

Explanation:

In plant cells, apoplasts refer to the extracellular space present outside the plasma membrane. These are formed by continuous cell walls arranged adjacent to each other.

The main function of apoplasts is transportation of water and other solutes between tissues and organs by free diffusion of molecules via the plasma membrane.

This pathway called the apoplastic pathway constituted by its vessel elements, cell walls, and extracellular space aids in passive absorption by roots

The apoplast in plant tissues consists of cell walls, extracellular spaces, and vessel elements, option a is correct.

The apoplast in plant tissues is composed of cell walls, extracellular spaces, and vessel elements, enabling the transport of substances like water and minerals. The apoplast allows for the transport of water and minerals through cell walls, the xylem, and the intercellular space between cells. Plasmodesmata, on the other hand, are channels that pass between cell walls of adjacent plant cells, connecting their cytoplasm and enabling the transport of materials from cell to cell within the symplast.

If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, ________. A) threshold is reached more quickly and heart rate would increase B) potassium channels compensate and no change in heart rate would occur C) heart rate would decrease, but blood pressure would rise due to the excess sodium present D) tetanic contraction would occur due to the short absolute refractory period of cardiac muscle

Answers

Answer:

A,

Explanation

Increase membrane permeability  to rapid  sodium influx  leads   to  fast depolarization.With continuous rapid opening now ,  threshold  will be reached onetime.

Hence  fast  propagation of action potential occurs . since reploarization and refractive period now shortened, due to increase  rate of depolarization .Rapid action potential will be propagated and transmitted in  the  cardiac cells. Leading contraction rapid  systolic  contraction.

Increase in sodium  ion concentration in the cardiac cells  leads to retention of fluids( the high solute potential draws water in from surrounding tissues and plasma by osmosis) in the  cardiac muscles cells. This leads to increase in blood pressure, and the  increasing after load leads to rapid heart rate.

Final answer:

If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, the threshold would be reached more quickly and the heart rate would increase. Option A

Explanation:

If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, threshold is reached more quickly and heart rate would increase.

The membrane potential of pacemaker cells increases as sodium ions diffuse through the always-open sodium ion channels, causing the electrical potential to rise.

This prepotential depolarization mechanism accounts for the auto rhythmic property of cardiac muscle. By increasing the rate of sodium influx, the membrane potential would reach the threshold more rapidly, leading to a faster heart rate.

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The enzyme phosphofructokinase catalyzes the conversion of fructose-6-phosphate and adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate and adenosine diphosphate (ADP). Adenosine monophosphate (AMP) activates the enzyme phosphofructokinase (PFK) by binding at a site distinct from the substrate-binding site. This is an example of:__________.

Answers

Answer: This is an example of allosteric regulation or modulation.

Explanation: Allostery is a process by which a ligand binds to a site on the enzyme that is different from the substrate binding site. This site is different from the active site and it is called allosteric site. Allostery can be positive or negative. If the binding of the ligand to the allosteric site of the enzyme activates the binding of the substrate to the active site of the enzyme, it is known as positive allostery but if the binding of a ligand to the allosteric site of the enzyme inhibits the binding of the substrate to the enzyme active site, it is known as negative allostery or allosteric inhibition. The binding of ADP to the allosteric site of phosphofructokinase (PKF) activates the enzyme, it is therefore a positive allostery.

In which animals are the blood and the interstitial fluid considered to be the same body fluid?

Answers

Answer:

In insects such as cockroach, grasshopper

Explanation:

Insects such as grasshopper has open circulatory, in them the body fluid is the hemolymph. The hemolymph does contain any respiratory pigment. It bathes the organs directly as it is pumped between open spaces in the body.

Thus, in insects, the blood and the interstitial fluid considered to be the same body fluid?

Interestingly, even though hemophilia in the royal families began in England, they were actually the only one of these four families to NOT be affected by it. If Alice's daughter Alix had accepted a marriage proposal from George V, this may have changed history greatly. If we were to rewrite history, pairing Alix and George V together, what is the probability any of their offspring would have hemophilia?

Answers

Answer:

Alice's daughter Alix =X X*   George V= XY Progeny  are;XX, XY, X*X, X*Y 50 % males would be  infected 50% male normal50% female normal, 50 female carrier.

Explanation:

Hemophilia is an inherited disease and it follows  an X-linked recessive pattern. The genes for hemophilia disease are located on the X chromosome. In males one mutated copy of the chromosome X  is sufficient to cause the condition, because male contain only one gene. Female  contain XX chromosome, so both the chromosome must have mutated for causing this disease.

According to  study of  Queen Victoria (1891-1901) of England, Alice's daughter Alix was X linked carrier and George V was normal male,

so if they got married, their children would be  

parents genotype  X X*   XY

progeny  

XX, XY, X*X, X*Y

50% males would be  infected

50% male normal

50% female normal,

50 female carrier.

The correct probability that any of the offspring of Alix and George V would have hemophilia is [tex]$\frac{1}{2}$[/tex].

Hemophilia is an X-linked recessive disorder. This means that the gene for hemophilia is located on the X chromosome, and a male will have hemophilia if he inherits a single copy of the hemophilia allele (since males have only one X chromosome), while a female will have hemophilia only if she inherits two copies of the hemophilia allele (one from each parent).

Queen Victoria was a carrier of hemophilia, and she passed the gene to some of her descendants. If Alix, who was a carrier (as her mother Alice was a daughter of Queen Victoria), had married George V, their children's chances of inheriting hemophilia would depend on the sex of the child:

- Male offspring (XY) have a 50% chance of inheriting the hemophilia gene from their mother (since they inherit their single X chromosome from their mother). Therefore, male offspring have a 50% chance of having hemophilia.

- Female offspring (XX) have a 50% chance of inheriting the hemophilia gene from their mother. However, they would only have hemophilia if they also inherited a hemophilia gene from their father, which is not mentioned in the question. Assuming George V was not a carrier, the female offspring would not have hemophilia but would have a 50% chance of being carriers.

Dimitri has been married before and has two biological children. He has just married Natasha, who has also been married before and has a biological son. Their family is an example of a _____ family.

Answers

This is an example of a blended family

Foods contain ________, compounds that confer color, taste, and other characteristics of foods. Foods that have been around a long time, such as , vegetables, fruit, and meats, are _________ foods, while _________ are foods that may have been subjected to milling, texture alterations, or cooking. Rice, Potatoes, or corn are _________ that provide a foundations for a healthful diet.

Answers

Answer:

Phytochemical, Whole Foods, Processed foods, Staple foods

Explanation:

Phytochemical are compounds that confer color, taste, and other characteristics of foods, are produced by plants through primary or secondary metabolism.

Whole Foods :Foods that have been around a long time, such as , vegetables, fruit, and meats, are Whole Food foods.

Processed foods:  are those food that has been cooked, canned, or changed in nutritional composition and other characteristics  with  preserving or preparing in lots of different ways.

Staple foods :that provide a foundations for a healthful diet.

example: Rice, Potatoes, or corn.

Final answer:

Foods contain vitamins, minerals, and fiber. Whole foods are natural and unprocessed, while processed foods have undergone alterations. Rice, potatoes, and corn are staple foods for a healthful diet.

Explanation:

Foods contain vitamins, minerals, and fiber, which are compounds that confer color, taste, and other characteristics of foods. Foods that have been around a long time, such as vegetables, fruit, and meats, are whole foods, while processed foods are foods that may have been subjected to milling, texture alterations, or cooking. Rice, potatoes, or corn are staple foods that provide a foundation for a healthful diet.

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Inputs and outputs of the light reactions

From the following choices, identify those that are the inputs and outputs of the light reactions. (Recall that inputs to chemical reactions are modified over the course of the reaction as they are converted into products. In other words, if something is required for a reaction to occur, and it does not remain in its original form when the reaction is complete, it is an input.)

Drag each item to the appropriate bin. If the item is not an input to or an output from the light reactions, drag it to the "not input or output" bin.
Input: NADP+, ADP, water, light

Output: ATP, NADPH, O2

Not input or output: CO2, G3P, glucose

Answers

Answer:

Input: NADP+, ADP, water, light

Output: ATP, NADPH, O2

Not input or output: CO2, G3P, glucose

Explanation:

Photosynthetic process is a unique process undergone by autotrophs like plants in their Chloroplast. It involves two major stages viz: light stage and light-independent stage. The light stage is the stage that requires energy from sunlight in order to occur. It occurs when photons of light (input) from the sun strikes Chlorophyll pigments in the Chloroplast. This ignites the Chlorophyll molecule and makes it excited. The excited state of the chlorophyll molecule releases electrons that split water molecules (input) in a process called PHOTOLYSIS OF WATER, into hydrogen ions, electrons and oxygen.

The hydrogen ions is accepted by the NADP+ (input) molecule and reduces it to NADPH (output). Also, the electron generated creates a proton pump in the thylakoid membrane that powers the phosphorylation of ADP (input) into ATP (output). During the light reaction, specifically, PHOTOLYSIS OF WATER, oxygen gas (output) is given off.

Note that C02, G3P and glucose are neither inputs nor outputs of the light stage. They are rather involved in the next stage of the photosynthetic process, which is light-independent stage or Calvin Cycle.

NADP+, ADP, water, and light all serve as inputs to the light reactions. The light processes produce ATP, NADPH, and oxygen as byproducts. CO2, G3P, and glucose are not input or output in the light processes.

Thus, NADP+, ADP, water, and light are the ingredients for the light reactions. Water serves as an electron source, NADP+ serves as an electron acceptor, ADP is a necessary step in the production of ATP, and light powers the processes.

Chemical energy in the form of ATP, high-energy electron carrier NADPH, and oxygen, a consequence of water splitting, are all products of the light processes. The ensuing dark processes, such the Calvin cycle, which uses ATP and NADPH to turn carbon dioxide (CO2) into glucose, depend on these outputs.

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Match the definitions with their vocabulary terms. Not all terms will be used. a. ______process in which organisms with extreme expressions of a trait are removed.b. ______process in which shift of a population toward an extreme version of a beneficial trait.c. ______process in which individuals with average traits are removed, creating two populations with extreme traits

Answers

Answer:

1. Stabilizing selection

2. Directional selection

3. Disruptive selection

Explanation:

Natural selection is a process that is considered the mechanism of evolution. The natural selection selects the species in one of the three ways: directional, stabilizing and disruptive selection.

1. Stabilizing selection- occurs when nature favors the average phenotype of the species and the extreme phenotype of the traits is not favored.

2. Directional selection-takes place when one of the extreme traits of a population of a species favored the most and the allele frequency sifts to that direction.

3. Disruptive selection-occurs when both the extreme traits are favored by nature and the population evolves into two separate populations.

Why is the archaea domain closer to eukarya than bacteria?

Answers

Answer:

Archaea domain is closer to eukarya than bacteria because genetically they are more similar to Eukarya than Bacteria.

Explanation:

Options for this question are:

They both lack a nucleus and contain  cytoplasm. The unique functional adaptations of Archaea are more similar to Eukarya adaptations.   They both evolved in the same geological time period. Genetically, the Archaea are more similar to Eukarya than Bacteria. They both have membrane-bound organelles. Archaea is not closer to Eukarya because it contains prokaryotic cells just like Bacteria.

Archaea are unicellular prokaryotic organisms, which share many characteristics with bacteria, however, the existence of metabolic functions and genes similar to eukaryotic organisms suggest that there is a genetic link between the two. Even the enzymes responsible for genetic processing, such as transcriptases and translation enzymes, are similar to those in eukaryotic cells.

The theory that establishes the relationship between Archaea and Eukaryotic suggests the existence of a common ancestor, whose later evolution allowed an Archaea to join a protobacteria to form a eukaryotic cell, and hence their genetic relationship.

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Jerry enters a hospital blood lab and notices a metal canister with the symbol above printed on all four sides. The symbol is MOST LIKELY a ______ caution sign.\

Answers

Answer:

caution sign seems the most reasonable.

Explanation:

Final answer:

The caution sign Jerry notices in the hospital blood lab indicates the presence of radioactive materials, used in nuclear medicine but requiring careful handling.

Explanation:

The symbol that Jerry notices most likely indicates the presence of radioactive materials, which are commonly used in the nuclear medicine department of hospitals. This symbol serves as a caution sign to alert individuals that specific safety precautions are necessary when around these substances. Radioactive materials hold importance in diagnosing and treating many diseases; however, they can be hazardous if not handled appropriately. Only those with special training should handle these materials, as they can be dangerous, but they should be respected rather than feared.

This symbol indicates the presence of radioactive materials that require special safety precautions for handling.

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