Answer:
False.
Explanation:
Ancel and Keys are the two physiologists that determines the factor related to diet and its effect on the health of individual. According to them, the cardiovascular disease mainly occur due to the consumption of teh saturated fats.
The Ancel and keys studies the dietary pattern of Mediterranean. They performed the starvation experiment on the men and their relation with the diet and health. The factor wealth was not included in their discovery.
Thus, the answer is false.
Answer:
The correct answer is - false.
Explanation:
Ancel keys and Margret keys were two american physiologists that have worked on the effect of diet on the health of the people. They have developed.
Ancel and Margret keys have particularly showed that the saturated fats have effect on developing cardiovascular diseases. They discovered the Mediterranean diet is high in saturated cholesterol that developed various heart disease.
Thus, the correct answer is - false.
Humoral control of blood flow involves the effect of vasodilator and vasoconstrictor substances in the blood. Select the factor that has a powerful vasodilator effect on arterioles and increases capillary permeability.
Answer:
Histamine.
Explanation:
Histamine is the factor that increases the capillary permeability and has a vasodilator effect on arterioles. Histamine is generally in mast cells and in a type of white blood cells. It increases the permeability and vasodilates arterioles so that proteins and white blood cells that are in the blood can fight pathogens in a tissue.
While it is known for a role in balance and coordination, the _____ is also very important for certain types of learning and conditioning.
Answer:
Cerebellum.
Explanation:
It is a part of the brain that at the back of the skull.One of it' s major function is to regulate the motor functions as it receives information from the sensory system, the spinal cord,and various other parts of the brain.Fifty percent of the neurons found in the brain is found in Cerebellum and it also consists cortex covering white matter and it also contains ventricle filled with fluids.Like the cerebral cortex it is also divided into two hemisphere.The cerebellum is crucial not only for balance and coordination, but also for certain types of learning and conditioning, including classical conditioning and motor learning.
Explanation:The part of the brain in question is the cerebellum. Aside from its primary role in aiding balance and coordination, the cerebellum also plays an integral role in certain kinds of learning and conditioning. For example, classical conditioning which involves learning to associate one stimulus with another and motor learning, which involves learning to perform physical tasks, are both supported by the cerebellum.
It plays a crucial role in maintaining balance, fine-tuning muscle movements, and ensuring smooth and coordinated motor function throughout the body.
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it is your turn to give a presentation in class. your heart beings to pound and your palms become sweaty. these reactions are an example of______-
Answer:a stress response
During wind sprints for field hockey practice, Sarah noticed that her face felt very hot and looked red. Of the choices below, which would be considered the receptor(s) for thehomeostatic response to Sarah's running?A) Sarah's lungsB) Sarah's skeletal muscles and blood vesselsC) Sarah's cardiac muscleD) Sarah's brain
Answer:
Sarah's skeletal muscles and blood vessels.
Explanation:
Homeostasis may be defined as the process of maintaining the internal environment irrespective of the change in the external or internal environment of the body.
The receptors detect the changes in the environment. During running, the individual sweats and the flow of blood increase in the body. The receptors that might located to detect this change is located in the blood vessels and in the skeletal muscles.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Carlos is a pitcher in baseball. He experienced some nerve damage that has caused him to lose some muscle control in his pitching arm. The nerves that were damaged are likely to be neurons that use _____ to control movement in those muscles.
The correct answer would be, Axons.
Carlos is a pitcher in baseball. He experienced some nerve damage that has caused him to lose some muscle control in his pitching arm. The nerves that were damaged are likely to be neurons that use axons to control movement in those muscles.
Explanation:
Brain is a complex structure that consists of nervous system which contains neurons to bring out different activities of the body by sending electrical impulses through a nerve fiber, a projection of a nerve cell, or neurons, called as Axons.
Axons are contained in the Motor neurons and these motor neurons are the most largest neurons in the central nervous system. These motor neurons that contain axons are responsible for bodily movements. So when the pitching arm of Carlos is not working, it means his motor neurons and axons are damaged which are causing problems in the movement of the arm.
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Dr. Levy's research showed that a dose of 200 mg of experimental Drug R had a minimal effect in reducing the symptoms of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). He then revised the study's hypothesis by increasing the dosage to 300 mg. In this context, reduction of GAD symptoms is the:
Answer:
In this context, the reduction of GAD symptoms is the dependent variable.
Explanation:
In this experiment, drug R dose is the independent variable and the reduction of GAD symptoms is the dependent variable. The increase in drug dose is negatively associated with decrease in GAD symptoms. At 200 mg Drug R dose had a minimal effect on GAD symptoms. However, increase in drug dose to 300 mg had a marked decrease in GAD symptoms making the independent and dependent variable inversely proportional.
In this case, the reduction of GAD symptoms is the dependent variable. It is the outcome of interest that Dr. Levy is studying the effects of different dosages of experimental Drug R on.
Explanation:In the given context, the reduction of GAD (generalized anxiety disorder) symptoms is considered as the dependent variable. In research, the dependent variable is the outcome that a researcher is trying to explain or predict, which in this case is the effect of dosage of Drug R on reducing GAD symptoms. The dosage of experimental Drug R is the independent variable as this is manipulated by Dr. Levy in his study. By increasing the dosage from 200 mg to 300 mg, Dr. Levy is testing if this change will have an improved effect on reducing GAD symptoms.
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A research study examined the intellectual growth of 20 premature children over a period of 18 years. This is best described as an example of ________.1. Naturalistic observation
2. A longitudinal study
3. A case study
4. A cross-sectional study
Answer: 2). A Longitudinal study
Explanation:
Longitudinal Study or research is a type of observational research (study) in which specific subjects (variables) are observed and data is gathered on them over a period of time. In this case, the subjects being observed are the premature children, the data collected on them are their intellectual growth and this research was carried out over the period of Eighteen (18) years.
a nurse is teaching a patient who is about to undergo allograft transplatation of the liver which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the post transplant medications?
Answer:
This question comes related to the following options:
a."Immunosuppressants help reduce the risk of postoperative infection."
b."I will need to have periodic laboratory work to assess for toxicity."
c."I will need to take immunosuppressants until all signs of organ rejection are gone."
d."These drugs will prevent organ rejection."
Allograft transplantation or Allotransplantation is a medical procedure to provide (in this case) an organ to a recipient from a donor who is not identical genetically speaking or with a different genotype, which requires very specific considerations when it comes to prevent toxicity or organ rejection, and this requires the patient's immunosuppressants levels to be periodically checked permanently to minimize risks.
Thereby the best answer would be b.)
Dr. Singh believes that a basic psychosocial conflict, which is resolved along a continuum from positive to negative, determines healthy or maladaptive outcomes at each stage of development. Dr. Singh’s beliefs are aligned with those of which theorist?
A) G. Stanley HallB) Sigmund FreudC) Erik EriksonD) B. F. Skinner
Dr. Singh's beliefs that a basic psychosocial conflict determines outcomes at each stage of development align with those of Erik Erikson. Erikson's psychosocial theory of development emphasizes the social nature of our development and the resolution of stage-specific conflicts throughout the lifespan.
Explanation:Dr. Singh's beliefs align closely with those of Erik Erikson, a theorist known for his psychosocial theory of development. Unlike Sigmund Freud, who believed personality is mostly developed in early childhood focusing on psychosexual stages, Erikson proposed that personality development continues throughout the lifespan, emphasizing the social nature of our development. Erikson identified eight stages of development, each characterized by a distinct conflict or task that contributes to a healthy or maladaptive outcome, depending on how well the conflict is resolved.
Erik Erikson was the theorist aligned with the belief that a basic psychosocial conflict determines healthy or maladaptive outcomes at each stage of development. Erikson's psychosocial theory emphasizes social relationships and the resolution of developmental tasks at different stages of life. He identified eight stages, each with a unique conflict or task that contributes to personality development.
Erikson's theory underscores the importance of social relationships and the resolution of conflicts across the entire lifespan, with each stage offering a unique developmental task crucial for the individual's growth. This approach marks a significant departure from Freud's, placing a greater emphasis on psychosocial rather than psychosexual aspects of development.
The eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome outbreak resembled an illness with similar symptoms that affected some 20,000 people in Spain as a result of what household item being contaminated?
Answer:
Cooking Oil (rapeseed oil)
Explanation:
The eosinophilia-myalgia syndrome (EMS) is a condition of health which resulted in an increased amount of the eosinophil and muscle pain called myalgia.
The symptoms resembled with the symptoms of a disease which outbreak in Spain in 1981 which affected about 20,000 people called toxic oil syndrome.
The toxic oil syndrome was caused because of the intake of the denatured rapeseed soil which was not meant to be consumed usually but made to be consumed by adding aniline to the oil. Consumption of rapeseed oil with aniline caused intoxication and other symptoms like increased eosinophils.
Thus, Cooking Oil (rapeseed oil) is the correct answer.
Which characteristics must be identified in the child’s behavior before central nervous system stimulants are indicated? Select all that apply.
__ Lack of ability to control impulses
__ Symptoms lasting at least 6 months
__ Short attention span for the child's age
Answer:
The complete question would be A 6-year-old patient is being evaluated for attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Which characteristics must be identified in the child's behavior before the central nervous system stimulants are indicated? Select all that apply.
All the options apply.
Explanation:
A child with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder has short attention spam, one of the reasons for this is due to the lack of control over impulses. They act according to these impulses and do not care for the consequences. The symptoms can last a minimum of six months or more.
After teaching a woman who has had an evacuation for gestational trophoblastic disease (hydatidiform mole or molar pregnancy) about her condition, which statement indicates that the nurse's teaching was successful
Answer:
The options for this question are:
A. "I will be sure to avoid getting pregnant for at least 1 year."
B. "My intake of iron will have to be closely monitored for 6 months."
C. "My blood pressure will continue to be increased for about 6 more months."
D. "I won't use my birth control pills for at least a year or two."
The correct answer is A. "I will be sure to avoid getting pregnant for at least 1 year."
Explanation:
She needs to have follow-ups for 1 year to see that there isn't any trophoblastic tissue that can grow and harm her. To check this, her hCG levels will be measured for a year, pregnancy modifies the levels of this hormone, so it is important to avoid getting pregnant for a year.
The woman understands the nurse's teaching if she acknowledges the need for regular hCG monitoring post-evacuation, the importance of avoiding pregnancy for a certain period, and recognizes the differences between normal implantation processes and gestational trophoblastic disease.
Explanation:A successful indication that the nurse's teaching was understood by the woman who experienced a molar pregnancy would be her acknowledgment and understanding of the importance of careful monitoring following the evacuation procedure. For instance, she should be aware that her human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) levels will need to be checked regularly since persistently high levels can indicate the need for further treatment. She should also recognize the need to avoid pregnancy for a recommended time to ensure complete recovery and monitoring for any signs of gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) recurrence.
Additionally, her understanding should include knowledge about the process of implantation and its importance in establishing a normal pregnancy, distinguishing it from the abnormal growth patterns seen in hydatidiform moles. Recognizing the normal signs of a successful pregnancy, such as positive at-home urine pregnancy tests due to appropriate levels of hCG, contrasts with the abnormal situation previously experienced.
A client has a disorder that is known to affect the structure and function of the transcription factors. What is the most likely implication of this client's health status?
An activity that takes place during the early phases of pathogenesis and includes activities that limit the progression of disease is_______.
Answer: secondary prevention of disease
Explanation: avoiding diseases before they begin at the secondary level includes all measures, activities, that are carried out by oneself or a health professional that leads to early detection, diagnosis and prevention of disease to avert more serious problems.
Cipro-floxacin (Cipro) is a quinolone, which acts by inhibiting DNA gyrase. Which of the following statements about cipro-floxacin is true?A) It should not be used in children.B) Ciprofloxacin is teratogenic and is not approved for pregnant women or children. C) Antacids and other agents that contain divalent minerals can prevent cipro-floxacin from being absorbed.D) First generation quinolones have little efficacy against the gram-positive organisms that cause community-acquired pneumonia.
Answer:B). Ciprofloxacin is teratogenic and is not approved for pregnant women of children.
Explanation: This is because Ciprofloxacin is a Class C drug, I.e Animal reproduction studies have shown an adverse effect on the fetus but potential benefits may warrant use of the drug in pregnant women despite potential risks.
It means that unless under certain circumstances where the potential benefits have been weighed to be more than the potential risks, the drug should not be used for pregnant women.
It has also been reported to be passed to the child from the mother during breastfeeding and may cause serious adverse risk including articular damage.
Ciprofloxacin is only approved for use in children for only two indications due to the risk of permanent injury to the musculoskeletal system. These two indications are:
• inhalational anthrax
• Complicated urinary tract infections.
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Those diagnosed with an intellectual disability score approximately 70 or below on an intelligence test and also demonstrate a limitation in_______.
Answer:
This question is comes related to the following options:
A. intrinsic motivation.
B. hybrid vigor.
C. physical health.
D. adaptive behavior
Intelligence tests are designed to calculate or assess various mental functions, including comprehension, reasoning, judgment, social skills, independence amid others; people with such low rate scores usually have a hard time living by themselves in society, they lack social competence, which is also known as "Adaptive Behavior".
Thereby the answer is D).
Describe at least four ways an epidemiologist could have helped in handling and analyzing the outbreak of hemorrhagic fever in Africa. How do epidemiologists play a role in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of chronic illnesses, such as cancer or heart disease?
Final answer:
Epidemiologists could have helped in handling and analyzing the outbreak of hemorrhagic fever in Africa by identifying the mode of transmission, conducting rapid investigations, developing public health policies, and collaborating with historians and other experts. They also play a significant role in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of chronic illnesses such as cancer or heart disease by gathering data and developing strategies.
Explanation:
An epidemiologist could have helped in handling and analyzing the outbreak of hemorrhagic fever in Africa in the following ways:
Identifying the mode of transmission: Epidemiologists track the spread of a disease and collect data to determine how it is transmitted. By identifying the mode of transmission of hemorrhagic fever, they can develop strategies to prevent its spread.Conducting rapid investigations: Epidemiologists conduct thorough investigations during outbreaks to gather information and recommend immediate control measures. In the case of hemorrhagic fever, they would have fast-tracked the investigation to contain the outbreak.Developing public health policies: Based on the data collected, epidemiologists can design and implement public health policies to reduce the incidence of the disease. They could have developed specific policies to address the hemorrhagic fever outbreak in Africa.Collaborating with historians and other experts: Epidemiologists often work with historians and other experts to understand the geographical and historical context of a disease. This collaboration helps in analyzing the outbreak and developing effective control measures.Epidemiologists play a crucial role in the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of chronic illnesses such as cancer or heart disease. They gather data on the frequency and risk factors associated with these diseases in populations. This information is used to develop strategies for prevention, early diagnosis, and effective treatment.
Combat veterans may be diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). You wonder about the best way to treat PTSD. This is an example of getting research ideas from ____.
Explanation:
practical problems
The health care provider has given and signed an order for a specific client for zolpidem, 10 mg by mouth once daily at hour of sleep, and recorded the specific date and time of the order. What is the appropriate nursing action?
Answer:
Administer the drug.
Explanation:
The nurse is expected to administer the drug through the mouth and it should be as stated by the health care provider which is 10 mg daily at hour of sleep. The nurse is also expected to ensure that the patient takes the medication. This is necessary in order to ensure compliance and prevent further deterioration of the patient's condition.
Delilah is overweight. She likes to eat cookies and other sugary snacks, and often eats an entire package at one sitting. She is upset by this because she knows how important weight is to health, but she does not engage in any compensatory behaviors. Which of the following would be a likely diagnosis?
Answer:
Binge eating disorder
Explanation:
Binge eating disorder is the a type of eating disorder that is characterized by the individual’s uncontrolled appetite resulting in the frequent consumption of huge quantity of food.
People who suffer from binge eating disorder often have the habit of overeating. They are usually overweight and would often feel helpless controlling their appetite even though they may not be happy with such behavior. They also do not involve in compensatory behaviors like vomiting, exercising or the use of laxative to loss the extra calorie consumed.
A client in active labor is admitted with pree-clampsia. Which assessment finding is most significant in planning this client's care? A. Patellar reflex 4+. B. Four-hour urine output 240 ml. C. Blood pressure 158/80.D. Respiration 12/minute.
Answer:
A. Patellar reflex 4+
Explanation:
Pree-clampsia in pregnant women shows some few symptoms which include; high blood pressure, protein in urine, swelling in legs and hands. Pree-clampsia is can be caused by poor nutrition or high amout of body fat, this high amount of blood fat can increase cholesterol which blocks the blood flow into the uterus. Now, a client in active labor who is admitted with pree-clampsia may increase the chances of long-term problems for both mom and baby in the labor process. The best assessment finding that is most significant in planning this child's care is Patellar reflex 4+.
This is because Patellar reflex 4+ test the L4 segment of the spinal cord.
The patella located at the knee region is being strike with a reflex hammer to stretch the muscle fibers in the quadriceps muscles. The effect of this activity give a signal to the spinal cord and synapses. Afterwards, motor neurons conduct an efferent impulse and relay the message back to the quadriceps muscle, thereby igniting contraction. This contraction can assist the client in active labor when planning for the client's suitable care.
The most significant finding for a client in active labor with preeclampsia for planning care is a Patellar reflex of 4+, indicating severe hyperreflexia which may require urgent intervention.
Explanation:The question is regarding the assessment of a client in active labor with preeclampsia and what finding is most significant in planning the client's care. Among the presented options, Patellar reflex 4+ (A), is the most significant. Preeclampsia can lead to hyperreflexia, and a patellar reflex of 4+ indicates severe hyperreflexia, which can be a precursor to eclampsia, a severe complication that can manifest as seizures. Options B (Four-hour urine output 240 ml), C (Blood pressure 158/80), and D (Respiration 12/minute) also require monitoring, but the exaggerated reflexes are a more immediate concern that may require urgent intervention.
Which of the following joint movements from the anatomical position has an average range of motion of 0 degrees in healthy adults?
A. Lumbar rotation.B. Elbow extension.C. Subtalar inversion.D. Hip extension.
Answer:
The correct option is B: Elbow extension
Explanation:
The elbow is a very complex joint in the human body and it comprises of the proximal radioulnar, the humeroradial, and the humeroulnar; three entirely different articulations. The elbow is most times subjected to a great deal of weighty loads and thus must have the potential perform certain functions. The elbow's range of motion start approximately at 0 degrees of extension and 140 degrees of flexion in healthy adults.
Amanda's menstrual period is two weeks late. She has been feeling tired and has had bouts of nausea in the morning. What classification of pregnancy symptoms is Amanda experiencing?
Answer: Presumptive
Explanation:
Presumptive signs of pregnancy refers to those signs and symptoms experienced by the patient and impels her to seek the counsel of a physician or make an appointment with a physician. The signs and symptoms are mostly not proof of pregnancy. Some signs include; Cessation of menstruation (Amenorrhea), Nausea and vomiting (morning sickness) Etc.
A 68 Y/O male was admitted to the ICU after a coronary artery bypass procedure. He was unstable with several episodes of hypotension for 3 days and then began to improve and stabilize. The pressure injury survey was conducted on day 6 of hospitalization and the survey team saw a Stage 2 pressure injury over his coccyx.
Review of his hospital admission assessment record revealed his skin was warm, dry, and intact.
For the pressure injury survey, this would be reported as:
a. Community Acquired Pressure Injury
b. Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury Only
c. Hospital Acquired and Unit Acquired Pressure Injury
Answer:
c. Hospital Acquired and Unit Acquired Pressure Injury
Explanation:
The pressure injury was not observed during the documentation of hospital admission record. This pressure injury was developed after hospital admission and is thus a hospital acquired pressure injury. Moreover, he was admitted into the ICU where the pressure injury survey was conducted. Therefore, this injury will also be reported as unit acquired pressure injury.
Final answer:
The pressure injury found on the patient in the ICU is a Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury only, as it occurred post-admission and was not present at the time of hospital admission.
Explanation:
The pressure injury observed on the 68-year-old male patient at the intensive care unit (ICU) after a coronary artery bypass procedure, and identified on day 6 of hospitalization is a Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury. Since the patient's skin was documented as warm, dry, and intact upon admission, and the pressure injury was noticed after several days in the hospital, it indicates that the injury occurred during the patient's hospital stay. Therefore, the correct notation for this injury in the pressure injury survey would be b. Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury Only.
Hospitals must take preventive measures such as regularly turning patients who are at risk for bedsores, and addressing any skin injuries as soon as they are noted, to reduce the occurrence of pressure injuries in patients, especially those who are immobile for long periods.
A newly admitted client describes symptoms of dizziness and feeling faint on standing. The client has a history of type 2 diabetes, coronary artery disease, and bipolar disorder. Which medications may be contributing to the client's symptoms?
Answer:
Metoprolol
olanzapine
Explanation:
Metropolol is a generic drug used in the treatment and prevention of heart attacks. It is a beta-blocker and thus are used in the treatment of coronary artery disease. They are also used as a combination therapy and can be combined with with olanzapine, a drug used in the treatment of certain mental conditions such as bipolar disorders and schizophrenia. The side effects of these drugs include; low blood pressure while standing, thus leading to dizziness, drowsiness, weakness, tiredness to mention but a few.
Scott, age 24, has withdrawn from most social contact and stopped dressing appropriately. When you speak with him, his conversation tends to make no sense. Of the following options, Scott is most likely to be diagnosed with ________.A. generalized anxiety disorder.B. a specific phobia.C. schizophrenia.D. an addiction.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Scott is most likely to be diagnosed with generalized anxiety. It lasts for longer than six months. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is Generalized anxiety?Generalized anxiety disorder is a mental condition of excessive worry about the everyday issues and situations which one face. It lasts for longer than six months. In addition to feeling worried a person may also feel restlessness, fatigue, trouble in concentration, irritability, increased muscle tension, and trouble in sleeping.
The two main treatments for generalized anxiety disorder include psychotherapy and medications. A person may benefit most from a combination of the two treatments. It may take some trial and error method to discover which of the treatments works best for a person.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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The minimum intensity of physical stimulation required to produce any sensation at all in a person is the just noticeable threshold. True or False
The just noticeable threshold is the minimum intensity of physical stimulation required to produce any sensation in a person.
Explanation:The statement is True. The just noticeable threshold refers to the minimum intensity of physical stimulation required to produce any sensation in a person. This threshold varies for each sense. For example, in vision, the threshold is the minimum amount of light needed to perceive a visual stimulus. In hearing, it is the minimum sound intensity required to detect a sound.
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___________ term that is synonymous with foreign animal disease, it describes a disease that is not currently found in the country but found in other places in the world
Answer: Exotic disease
Explanation: Exotic disease is a term used to describe infectious disease which are currently absent in a particular country but present in some other countries in the world. An exotic disease could result either due to the fact that such disease has never surfaced in the country or it has been completely eradicated through through quarantine or any other eradication scheme.
For Instance, pseudorabies is an exotic disease in Denmark because it has been eradicated in the country, while it isn't in Ireland.
Nurses in acute care settings must work with other health care team members to maintain quality care while facing pressures to care for patients who are hospitalized for shorter periods of time than in the past. To ensure positive health outcomes when patients return to their homes, what action should the nurse prioritize?
Answer: A nurse on a postsurgical unit is providing care based on a clinical pathway. When performing assessments and interventions with the aid of a pathway, the nurse should prioritize what goal? A) Helping the patient to achieve specific outcomes B) Balancing risks and benefits of interventions C) Documenting the patient's response to therapy D) Staying accountable to the interdisciplinary team Ans: A Feedback:Pathways are an EBP tool that is used primarily to move patients toward predetermined outcomes. Documentation, accountability, and balancing risks and benefits are appropriate, but helping the patient achieve outcomes is paramount
Explanation:
The client explains to her new provider that she receives periodic phlebotomies to decrease her red blood cell mass. The provider believes the client may have:________.
Answer:
Polycythemia vera
Explanation:
A absolute increase in total red blood cell mass is characterized by primary polycythemia, or polycythemia vera. Treatment aim is to reduce the viscosity of the blood. That can be done by removing blood by periodic phlebotomy to reduce the volume of red blood cells. Transfusions are used to treat sickle cells and beta-thalassemias. Megaloblastic anemias, caused by deficiencies in vitamin B12 and folic acid, are treated by replacing those nutrients.