Answer:the principal diagnosis is carcinoma.
Explanation:
This is because this types of cancer destroy the ability of the bone marrow to make healthy blood cells, this in turn results in anaemia.
The principal diagnosis referred to in this case is the malignant carcinoma of Tim's left lung. The anemia he is experiencing is secondary, associated with his primary condition, and was treated alongside the lung cancer. His condition may cause his immune system to be compromised, similar to the case of Benjamin.
Explanation:The principal diagnosis in this case is the malignant carcinoma of the left lung. The admission was prompted by anemia associated with the condition, but the anemia is secondary to the lung cancer. Carcinoma refers to a type of cancer that starts in cells that make up the skin or the tissue lining organs, such as the lungs. In this case, these malignant cells are present in the lung, hence the 'malignant carcinoma of the left lung', which is the primary disease being treated. Tim's anemia was also managed at the same time, as it is a critical symptom directly related to his lung cancer.
Similar to the case of Benjamin, anemia can be caused by various reasons such as overproduction of non-functional leukocytes or side-effects from chemotherapy. Benjamin's immune system was compromised due to his chronic myelogenous leukemia and chemotherapy, which limited his ability to fight off infections. This is something that may also affect Tim, considering his compromised state stemming from the carcinoma and the subsequent anemia.
Anemia, the condition linked to the primary diagnosis, is characterized by a deficiency in the number or quality of red blood cells in the body. Stem cells from bone marrow are crucial components in the process of generating new blood cells, hence, their importance in treating severe forms of anemia and some types of cancer.
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Only homologous characters are useful in constructing phylogenetic trees. True or False
Answer: True
Explanation:
The evolution and later reliance on our ______ system has been suggested as the reason why humans use pheromones less than other mammals as sexual cues.
Answer: Reproductive system
Explanation: the reproductive system in humans which is a complex system that consists of sex organs that work together for the purpose of reproduction. This system has taken over the use of pheromomes in human and some other mammals as sexual cues.
Humans use pheromones less than other mammals as sexual cues due to the evolution and reliance on our olfactory system. Though humans still respond to certain pheromones the prominence of our visual and auditory systems and the complexity of our behaviors have reduced our reliance on them. The role of pheromones in human interaction is a subject of ongoing research.
Explanation:The human sensory system referred to in the question is the olfactory system. Pheromones are a type of secreted chemical signal primarily used by many animal species to influence behavior, including attracting the opposite se issuing alarms, or marking food trails. In humans, however, the prominence of other sensory systems, particularly the visual and auditory systems, and the complexity of our behaviors reduce our reliance on pheromones.
Although humans are still thought to respond to certain pheromones, such as axillary steroids, our response is considered less significant compared to many other mammals. This is essentially due to our sophisticated olfactory system's evolution and our greater dependency on it. The less obvious role of pheromones in human-to-human communication continues to be a subject of scientific research.
In context, our evolution and increasing reliance on the olfactory system, which processes complex scents and aromas, has likely influenced humans to use pheromones less as sexual cues compared to other mammals. This shift towards olfaction and away from pheromone-based communication is a fascinating aspect of both biological and sociological studies of human interaction.
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In prophase I of meiosis, crossing over results in
Answer: More genetic variation and chromosomes with a combination of both maternal and parental DNA.
Explanation: Crossing over is the exchange of segments of DNA from non-homologous chromosomes (non from the same parent), and creates a combination of maternal and paternal DNA, which results in more combinations of alleles in offspring.
Which one of the following is NOT true? Enzymes are used up in chemical reactions. An enzyme's function depends on its three-dimensional shape. Enzymes emerge unchanged from the reactions they catalyze. Enzymes are very specific for certain substrates. An enzyme binds to its substrate at the enzyme's active site.
Answer:
Enzymes are used up in chemical reactions.
Explanation:
Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up or accelerate the rate of chemical reactions within a biological system. Enzymes regulate the rate of chemical reactions without being destroyed in the chemical reaction nor altered in the biological process. Specific molecules called substrate, bind to the active site of enzymes to produce molecules referred to as products. Enzymes are vital to life as they participate in so many biological process in body such as in digestion, DNA synthesis. The function of an enzyme is dependent on the three-dimensional structure of the enzyme.
An example of an enzyme is hexokinase, that converts glucose to glucose-6-phosphate.
The statement 'Enzymes are used up in chemical reactions' is not true.
Explanation:Enzymes are not used up in chemical reactions. Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions by reducing the energy of activation. They are not consumed or used up in the chemical reactions they catalyze. Instead, they emerge unchanged and can catalyze the same reaction many times over.
For example, an enzyme called catalase can catalyze the breakdown of millions of hydrogen peroxide molecules into water and oxygen every second. The other statements in your question are indeed correct.
An enzyme's function does depend on its three-dimensional shape, as this shape determines the enzyme's active site where it binds to its substrate. Enzymes are very specific for certain substrates in similar way a lock fits a specific key. Enzymes bind to their substrates at the enzyme's active site.
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The sliding filament model of contraction involves ________.
Answer:
The sliding filament model of contraction involves actin and myosin sliding past each other and partially overlapping
Explanation:
Sliding filament model states that during muscle contraction the myofilaments myosin and actin slide towards each other and overlap. This shortens the sarcomere and the entire muscle/ Muscle cells are shocked by nerve impulses from motor neurons.
The force behind the muscle contraction is the ratchet movement of the tiny myosin heads toward the centre of thei sarcomere. This ratchet movement occurs many times during muscle contraction.
Points of the sliding filament theory will be as follows :
A bands (contains actin) : Moves close together and do not shorten.I Bands (Distance between A bands of successive sarcomeres) : Decreases in length.H bands (myosin only) : Shortens during contraction.Actin and myosin filament interactions inside muscle fibers are a component of the sliding filament model of contraction.
Thus, actin filaments slip past myosin filaments after myosin heads connect to them and go through a series of conformational changes. This causes muscle contraction. Sarcomeres, the fundamental contractile units of muscle fibers, shorten as a result of this sliding movement, which causes muscular contraction.
The energy needed for the myosin heads to separate from actin and restart for the following cycle of binding and sliding is provided by ATP. The sliding filament model offers a fundamental knowledge of molecular mechanisms underlying muscle contraction.
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In a culture grown in a chemostat (continuous culture), the best way to increase the yield of bacteria (numbers of cells per mL) would be to __________. View Available Hint(s) In a culture grown in a chemostat (continuous culture), the best way to increase the yield of bacteria (numbers of cells per mL) would be to __________. increase the growth rate increase the dilution rate (rate of addition of medium) increase the temperature increase the concentration of nutrients in the medium
Answer:
In a culture grown in a chemostat (continuous culture), the best way to increase the yield of bacteria (numbers of cells per mL) would be to increase the concentration of nutrients in the medium
Explanation:
A Continuous culture is to keep a culture growing indefinitely. This can be done if :
Fresh nutrients are continually suppliedAccumulated cells and waste products are removed at the same rateConditions such as temprature and pH are kept at their optimum values.The best way to increase the yield of bacteria (numbers of cells per mL) would be to increase the nutrients concentration in the medium.
What evolutionary events might have led to the presence of two genomic clones in pigs, and the discrepancies in their length compared to the cDNA probe? How is this representative of a general type of occurrence in molecular genetic evolution?
Answer:
Gene duplication
Explanation:
Gene duplication is an evolutionary process that includes different phenomena such as, among others, unequal crossover, chromosome rearrangement, chromosome duplication, etc. These duplicated genes are redundant in function and therefore they may accumulate mutations such as insertions or deletions at higher rates compared to single-copy DNA sequences, thereby producing homologous genomic fragments with different lengths
Answer:
They was likely a gene duplication
Explanation:
Evolutionary divergence tends to follow gene duplications, as variations in genes or mutation in one gene are no longer taken against as strongly so the individual gets a copy of a functional gene.
During crossing over:__________. 1. Chromosomes become chromatin. 2. Chromatids exchange segments of genetic material 3. Chromosomes switch poles. 4. Chromatin becomes chromosomes. 5. Mitosis becomes meiosis.
Answer:
2
Explanation:
chromatids exchange segments of genetic material. aka sister chromatids I believe
Which proteins is used as a chemical defense at body surfaces?
Answer: Antimicrobial proteins.
Explanation:
Antimicrobial proteins are the type of proteins produced by the keratinocytes on the body surfaces. These proteins acts as the barrier and kills the microorganism which is trying to enter the body.
These are larger proteins containing more than 100 amino acids. They are often lytic in nature.
The cell membrane of the microbes is disrupted by the action of these amino acids or proteins on them.
When considering the initiation of transcription, one often finds consensus sequences located in the region of the DNA where RNA polymerase(s) bind. Which are common consensus sequences in E. coli?
a. any trinucleolide repeat
b. satellie DNAs
c. TTTTAAAA
d. GGTTC
e. TATAAT
Answer:
e. TATAAT
Explanation:
Transcription is the process by which mRNA is produced from DNA and starts by the binding of RNA polymerase on DNA. RNA polymerase binds to specific binding sites on DNA determined by promoters and in E. coli three sequence elements are found in promoters.
The consensus sequence TATAAT are present in the pribnow box in E. coli and about ten base pairs upstream from the transcription starting site. That is why it is also called as -10 sequence. It is considered as idealized consensus sequence. The pribnow box with the sequence of six nucleotides (TATAAT) is most common transcription initiation factor in most bacteria like E. coli. The most commonly occurring bases from different promoters analyzed are showed by it.
For sub-freezing temperatures, the saturation vapor pressure just above a liquid water surface is ____ the saturation vapor pressure above an ice surface.
Explanation:
Greater than Is Right Answer.Freezing precipitation is essentially rains that falls through a shallow layer of cold temperatures at or underneath 0 degrees Celsius (32 degrees F) close to the surface. Numerous individuals can drive in the rains and day off, when the streets become cold, it is practically difficult to drive. Freezing happens when the particles of a fluid get so cold that they hinder enough to snare onto one another, framing a strong precious stone. Pure water, this occurs at 32 degrees Fahrenheit, and not at all like most different solids, ice grows and is in reality less thick than water.When a virus infects a bacterial cell, often new viruses are assembled and released when the host bacterial cell is lysed. If these new viruses go on to infect new bacterial cells, the new host cells may not be lysed. What is the most plausible explanation for this?A) The bacterial cell must be resistant to infection by the virus.
B) The virus carries genes that confer resistance to the host bacterial cell.
C) The host bacterium couples the viral infection with transformation.
D) The virus has entered the genome of the bacterial cell and is in the lysogenic stage.
Answer:
D) The virus has entered the genome of the bacterial cell and is in the lysogenic stage.
Explanation:
Virus have two reproductive cycle lytic and lysogenic cycles. In the lytic cycle, the viral genome is expressed using the host molecular machinery and make capsid proteins. These capsid proteins surround the viral genome and make new phages which lyse the host cell and gets released.
After the release, they enter their genome in other host and that genome first incorporates in the host genome and replicates with the host genome. This cycle is called the lysogenic cycle and in this cycle lysis of cell does take place because no new phages are produced in it.
Final answer:
The virus entering the bacterial cell's genome in the lysogenic stage explains why new viruses may not lyse new host cells after the initial lysis.
Explanation:
The most plausible explanation for new viruses not lysing new host bacterial cells after initial lysis is D) The virus has entered the genome of the bacterial cell and is in the lysogenic stage. In the lysogenic cycle, the virus incorporates its DNA into the host cell's genome, forming a prophage and establishing a stable relationship with the host without causing immediate lysis. This allows the host cell to continue normal functions until conditions induce the virus to enter the lytic cycle.
Erythropoietin is a hormone that stimulates production of red blood cells (RBCs) in bone marrow. This hormone is secreted by which secondary endocrine organ?
Answer:
Kidneys.
Explanation:
Erythropoietin is a hormone that is produced by the kidney and stimulates the production of red blood cells (RBCs) in the bone marrow. Erythropoietin stimulates the bone marrow to generate more RBC's.
By nature, Erythropoietin is a protein with having attached sugar. It is known as the glycoproteins that help in the stimulation for the specific types of RBC's growth in the bone marrow.
The threshold on a dose-response curve is the:_______.
a. point at which the dose of the drug causes maximal response.
b. lowest dose at which there is an observable effect of the drug.
c. safe effective dose of the drug.
d. therapeutic index of the drug.
Explanation:
In toxicology, the dose - response relationship is an important concept.With changes in health and body functions, it correlates exposure.Severe response is seen when the dose is higher.The dose response relationship is based on cell studies, human clinical, and observed data of experimenatl animal.The visual representation of the population's response rate to a range of doses of a substance is a Dose Response curve.
The threshold on a dose-response curve is the lowest dose at which there is an observable effect of a drug. It reflects the minimal amount of a drug needed to produce a significant response in the organism. Understanding this is important for determining adequate drug dosages.
Explanation:The threshold on a dose-response curve is understood to be the lowest dose at which there is an observable effect of a drug. This means, it is the minimal concentration or amount of a drug required to produce a significant response in the organism. From a biomedical perspective, understanding this threshold is critical as it helps in the determination of the ideal dosage for a drug that will maximize therapeutic benefits while minimizing adverse effects.
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Above a certain substrate concentration, the rate of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction drops as the enzymes become saturated. Which of the following would lead to a faster conversion of substrate into product under these saturated conditions?
a. an increase in concentration of enzyme
b. decreasing the temperature
c. increasing the substrate concentration
d. add a noncompetitive inhibito
An increase in the concentration of enzyme leads to faster conversion of substrate into the product under these saturated conditions. Thus, the correct option is A.
What is Enzyme?An Enzyme may be defined as the substance in living organisms that act as a catalyst and catalyzes specific biochemical reactions.
An increase in the concentration of enzyme leads to the reduction in the activation energy of the reaction, which as a result leads to faster conversion of substrate into product.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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The ____________ is considered the autonomic control center of the body due to its regulation of hormone secretion, thermoregulation, food and water intake, and circadian rhythms.
Answer:
hypothalamus
Explanation:
The hypothalamus is a very vital part of the brain, which is situated at the base of the brain, and it is connected to the pituitary gland by nervous and chemical pathways. The hypothalamus is responsible for the stimulation of the release of several hormones of the body as well as regulates the activities most autonomic nervous system. Functions such as circadian rhythms, body temperature, behavior, release of hormones, homeostasis are controlled by the hypothalamus.
The reason the hypodermis acts as a shock absorber is that
Answer:
The major part of hypodermis contain fat or adipose tissue that acts as shock absorber.
Explanation:
Hypodermis is a fatty layer of skin that is nearer to the muscle and contain fat and collagen cells.This layer acts as both shock absorber and protects the inner organ.
It also helps to store fats which provides energy to the body.
Hypodermis is known as the store house of lipids and contain adipose tissue containing fat storing cells.
This stored fat acts as energy reservoir,prevents loss of heat and also acts as cushion that protect the underlying layer thus it acts a shock absorber.
What is an effect of complement activation?
Explanation:
compliment activation is the lysis,(destruction) of bacterial, viral, fungal, through the membrane attack complexes.
Organisms inherit specific traits and characteristics from their parents. Albinism is an inherited disorder that occurs when an organism is unable to produce or distribute melanin. Melanin is a substance in the body that helps determine skin color, hair color, and eye color. Which is the basic unit of heredity that carries the trait of albinism from parent to offspring?A. base pairs
B. genes
C. proteins
D. codons
Answer: B. Genes
I hope that this helps you !
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Edge2020
The hypothalamus is the part of the brain that regulates __________. A. hunger B. food preference C. achievement motivation D. the need for acceptance Please select the best answer from the choices provided
Explanation:
It has many functions including control of hunger, thirst, body temperature, sleep, parenting behaviors, and circadian rhythms. It is an incredibly intricate piece of the mind containing numerous locales with profoundly specific capacities. When an animal is not hungry, and it needs food are satisfied, it is called satiety.The hypothalamus plays a super-sized role by making decisions about what actions need to be taken by various endocrine glands throughout the body. Its primary purpose is to make sure that the body stays in a continual state of balance, known as homeostasis. There is a satiety center responsible for hunger. Hence, the right answer is option A "hunger"
Answer: The answer is a. hunger.
Explanation:
Hypothalamus is a ventral part of diencephalon. It has many functions including control of hunger, thirst, body temperature, sleep, parenting behaviors, and circadian rhythms.
When an animal is not hungry, and it needs for food are satisfied, is called satiety. There is satiety center responsible for hunger. The center is located in hypothalamus.
Of the three louse vectored pathogens here, which is or are unable to invade the insects gut and penetrate into its body cavity to grow and reproduce?
Explanation:
The body louse , Pediculus humanus corporis, is the vector of three human pathogens such as the operator of pandemic typhus and Borrelia recurrentis and Rickettsia prowazekii,The specialist of backsliding fever and Bartonella quintana, the operator of channel fever, bacillary angiomatosis, endocarditis, incessant bacteremia, and constant lymphadenopathy.Mite borne ailments can be related with high rate of illness and demise, particularly scourge typhus and backsliding fever, which can be lethal in up to 40% of patients. The ailments are for the most part common in individuals living in neediness and packed conditions, for instance, vagrants and those associated with war circumstances.It is necessary for the immune system to clearly distinguish foreign cells and proteins from those made by the body.
(a) Explain why this is the case:
Answer: It is necessary for the immune system to clearly distinguish foreign cells and proteins from those made by the body so that the immune system will be able to fight foreign cells and proteins and eliminate them from the body.
Explanation: The ability of the immune system to clearly distinguish foreign cells and proteins from those made by the body helps the body to identify pathogens that invade the body and trigger appropriate immune response to eliminate the foreign cells and proteins.
When the immune system of the body fails to distinguish foreign cells and proteins from those made by the body, the body launches an attack against its cells, that is the immune system triggers an autoimmune response in which attacks are launched against the cells of the body and destroy them. This condition in which the immune system recognizes the cells of the body as non-self and launches an attack against them is known as autoimmunity. Autoimmunity is the major cause of most degenerative diseases such as type I diabetes mellitus.
A nurse provides teaching for a 25-year-old patient who will receive mitoxantrone [Novantrone] for worsening relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching?
a. "I may experience cardiac side effects several years after receiving this drug."
b. "I should report fever, chills, cough, and hoarseness immediately."
c. "I will need an infusion of this medication once weekly."
d. "I will need a liver function test and a pregnancy test before each dose."
Answer:
The correct answer is C- I will need an infusion of this medication once weekly.
Explanation:
Mitoxantrone is a anti cancer drug which is given to stop the growth and spread of cancer. It is infused in patients very slowly taking up to three to five minutes and administered once in every three months for 2 to 3 three years.
Liver functioning Tests and a pregnancy test should be done before each infusion.
You ingest 20 cells of Salmonella. This bacterium has a doubling time of 30 minutes. After 4 hours, how many of these bacteria would be present in the body (assuming no immune system responses or other biological activities affect its growth)?
Answer:
You ingest 20 cells of Salmonella. This bacterium has a doubling time of 30 minutes. After 4 hours, how many of these bacteria would be present in the body (assuming no immune system responses or other biological activities affect its growth)?
240 cells of salmonella
Explanation:
20 cells of salmonella
in 30 mins = 40 salmonella
60 minutes= 60 salmonella
120 minutes= 120 salmonella
240 minutes (4hours)= 240 salmonella
What is the kinetic energy of a roller coaster car that has a mass of 482kg that is descending feom the highest peak of the coaster which is known to be 75m tall and has a velocity of 37.9 m/s? The gravitational acceleration is 9.81 m/s^2. Must show all work, correct sig figs, and include correct units.
Answer: 346174.8 joules
Explanation:
Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a moving object. It is measured in joules.
Kinetic energy = 1/2 x Mass x Velocity^2
Since mass of rollercoaster = 482kg
velocity = 37.9 m/s
Then, K.E = 1/2 x 482kg x (37.9 m/s)^2
= 0.5 x 692349.62
= 346174.81 joules
Thus, the kinetic energy of the descending rollercoaster is 346174.8 joules
A weight reduction regimen calls for a daily intake of 1400 kilocalories and 30 grams of fat. Approximately ______% of the total energy is provided by fat.
Answer:
19%
Explanation:
It is known that a gram of fat contains 9 calories
Now; in 30 grams of fat; the number of calories will be: 30 × 9 =270 calories
The _____ percentage of the total energy from 1400 kcalories can now be determined as:
= [tex]\frac{270}{1400}[/tex]
= 0.19
= 19%
∴ Approximately 19% of the total energy is provided by fat.
Generation of proton gradients across membranes occurs during
Answer:Respiration and photosynthesis
Explanation:
The proton gradient is formed by the electron transport chain and this is across the inner mitochondria membrane that enables ATP synthesis through chemiosmosis.
Oxygen is needed in the cell for oxidative phosphorylation and it is of 2 component this include the electron transport chain and chemiosmiosis.
Electron transport chain- Electron are transport from one molecule to another.
Chemiosmosis- The energy is stored and then used to make ATP.
Proton gradients across membranes are generated during chemiosmosis, a process that is part of energy production in cells. This process involves the movement of hydrogen ions across a mitochondrial membrane to create concentration and electrical gradients known as the proton motive force, critical for ATP production.
Explanation:The generation of proton gradients across membranes primarily occurs during a process known as chemiosmosis. This process is involved in the production of adenosine triphosphate (ATP), an energy-carrying molecule, in cellular metabolism. In chemiosmosis, free energy is extracted from a series of redox reactions and used to pump hydrogen ions, or protons, across a mitochondrial membrane.
The movement of the hydrogen ions from the matrix into the intermembrane space creates an uneven distribution across the membrane, thus establishing concentration and electrical gradients. This is the result of the hydrogen ions' positive charge and their aggregation on one side of the membrane. This electrochemical gradient, often referred to as the proton motive force (PMF), is integral for the creation of ATP.
So, in essence, the generation of proton gradients across membranes is a key part of energy production and transfer within cells, particularly during the chemiosmosis process within mitochondria.
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What is the role of the lymphatic system in the innate immune defense
Answer:
The lymphatic system carries out the body's immune responses by producing and distributing cells, such as lymphocytes and macrophages, that combat disease. Lymph vessels, or lymphatics, drain fluid from all parts of the body and return it to the heart.
Explanation:
The lymphatic system is vital for innate immune defense by producing, maturing, and circulating lymphocytes, and filtering pathogens from lymph fluid.
The Role of the Lymphatic System in Innate Immune Defense
The lymphatic system plays a crucial role in the body's innate immune defense. It consists of a network of vessels, ducts, and organs that manage the fluid levels in body tissues and filter out pathogens. One of the primary functions of the lymphatic system is the production, maturation, and circulation of lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell that is vital for immune responses.There are several key features of the lymphatic system related to the immune response:Production of Lymphocytes: Lymphocytes are produced and matured primarily in the bone marrow and thymus.Filtration: Lymph nodes filter pathogens from the lymph fluid before it is returned to the bloodstream, providing an essential checkpoint for immune monitoring.Secondary Lymphoid Organs: These include structures such as the lymph nodes and spleen, where mature lymphocytes congregate to detect and respond to foreign invaders.Transport of Immune Cells: The lymphatic system transports immune cells throughout the body to intercept pathogens and mobilize an appropriate immune response.Although lymphocytes are primarily associated with the adaptive immune system (specific defense), the lymphatic system also supports the innate immune response by filtering pathogens and by aiding in the initial activation of immune cells. This helps ensure a rapid response to infections, preventing pathogens from spreading throughout the body.Overall, the lymphatic system is indispensable for both innate and adaptive immunity, providing both immediate and long-lasting defense mechanisms in the body.The domestic dog, Canis lupus familiaris, has 39 pairs of chromosomes in each of its diploid somatic (body) cells. Therefore, the haploid sperm cells of a male dog created via meiosis will each contain ________ chromosomes.
Answer:39 chromosomes
Explanation; meiosis is a form of nuclear division that produces gametes with half the number of chromosomes in the parent cell.it involves two successive divisions to produce four daughter cells.meiosis occurs only in reproductive cells.
In this case,the dog has 39 pairs of chromosomes,which is 78 chromosomes.it would undergo meiotic division to produce the half number of chromosomes,which is 39 chromosomes.this 39 haploid chromosomes are contained in the sperm cells or in the egg cells.
When the egg and sperm fuses,the diploid number of chromosomes is restored.
The haploid sperm cells of a male dog created via meiosis will each contain 39 chromosomes.
What is meiosis?It is a form of nuclear division that generated gametes with half the number of chromosomes in the parent cell. It includes two successive divisions to generate four daughter cells. Meiosis arises only when there should be reproductive cells. Since there is 39 pairs of chromosomes so meiosis also contains 39 chromosomes.
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A 35 year-old man presents with a testicular mass. Beta-HCG and Alpha-Feto Protein blood levels are normal. A radical orchiectomy is performed. Grossly the mass is tan-white and nodular without hemorrhage. Microscopically it is composed of large cells with clear cytoplasm, visible cell membrane, fibrous septa and lymphocytes. What is your diagnosis?
Answer: Classic seminoma
Explanation:
The classic seminoma can be defined as the germ cell tumor of the testicles or mediastinum. It is a type of malignant neoplasm and is treated and curable stage of the cancer.
It has a survival rate of more than 95 % if it is detected during the early stages of diagnosis.
It originates in the germinal epithelium of the semniferous tubules. In this case the fertility of the person is not affected and sexual function also remains intact.