Answer: d) lightheadedness or unconscious episodes.
Explanation:
There are several ways the body responds to stress but one method used by psychologists to measure this response is Hans Selye's general adaptation syndrome. This occurs in 3 stages:
1. The alarm reaction. This occurs when the stressor is first presented resulting in the RELEASE OF HORMONES from the adrenal gland into the blood stream. The hormone in turn cause sympathetic nervous system activation and increase energy levels, INCREASE RESPIRATION, increase muscle tension, reduce sensitivity to pain, slow down the digestive system, and cause a RISE IN BLOOD PRESSURE.
2. The stage of resistance- this occurs till the stress is removed.
3. The stage of exhaustion
Answer: Option D ( lightheadness and unconscious episodes)
Explanation: When stressful situation is encountered by the body, the body system initiates some biological reactions which are symptomatic (being felt). The symptoms include:
1. Hormonal secretion: the body secrets counter-regulatory hormones (e.g epinephrine) to regulate the stress.
2. Increased heart beat and blood pressure due to constriction of vessels by stress.
3. Increased biochemical activities which will requires more intake of oxygen to breakdown glucose to produce energy (ATP) and heat is lost through sweat.
Researchers investigated the effect of urea on the three-dimensional structure of a certain enzyme. The researchers dissolved the enzyme in an aqueous buffer solution and added urea to the solution. The enzyme did not appear to have a secondary or tertiary structure. The researchers carefully removed the urea from the solution and determined that the enzyme had the original secondary and tertiary structure again.Based on the results of the experiment, which of the following statements best predicts the effect of urea on the enzyme’s function?1. Function will be disrupted by adding the urea and regained by removing the urea.2. Function will be disrupted by adding the urea, but it will not be regained by removing the urea.3. Function will be gained by adding the urea and disrupted by removing the urea.4. Function will be unaffected by the addition and removal of the urea.
Answer:
Function will be disrupted by adding the urea and regained by removing the urea.
Explanation:
The protein is one of the important biomolecule made of the polymers of the alpha amino acids that are linked together by peptide bonds. The protein works at their specific pH.
Denaturants disrupt the 3 dimensional structure of protein that affect their normal functioning. In the given experiment, the urea acts as denaturant and disrupt the protein structure. The removal of urea will reverse the denaturant condition and protein gain its function.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
Answer:
A. Function will be disrupted by adding the urea and regained by removing the urea.
Explanation:
Based on the information, adding the urea denatures the enzyme, which will disrupt the enzyme’s function by disrupting the active site. In contrast, removing the urea causes the enzyme to refold, which will restore the active site and the enzyme’s function.
I also got this question correct so I am sure.
When an infant is upset, a caregiver's soothing actions influence the infant's neurobiological regulation of emotions and lower the level of stress hormones.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Infants unlike children of higher age and adults carry emotional baggage and distress and are unable to come out of that without assistance of elders. Therefore, a care giver has to take care of fulfilling the emotional requirement of infants by adopting and using soothing strategies such as hugging, careful touch etc.
An infant has undeveloped and un-specialized anterior cingulate cortex which plays an essential role in acting as an interface between cognition and emotion. Therefore, soothing actions and strategies help an infant from dealing with his/her emotional distress.
Hence, the given statement is true
A 16 Y/O female was admitted to the pediatric ICU with exacerbation of her cystic fibrosis. On day 3, she was transferred to the medical pediatric unit. The pressure injury survey was conducted on day 4 of hospitalization and the survey team saw a Stage 2 pressure injury under the oxygen tubing over the top of her left ear. Review of her hospital admission assessment record revealed intact, very dry skin with poor turgor. The skin assessment documented on arrival to the medical pediatric unit noted a Stage 1 pressure injury at this site. For the pressure injury survey, this would be reported as:Please make a selection1. A Community Acquired Pressure Injury2. A Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury Only3. A Hospital Acquired and Unit Acquired Pressure Injury
Answer:
A Hospital Acquired and Unit Acquired Pressure Injury
Explanation:
On her hospital admission her skin was reported to be dry and intact with poor tugor, therefore, any pressure areas developed within the hospital stay including the transfer to the unit will then be considered a hospital and unit acquired pressure sore
A Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury Only would then be referring to a new pressure injury that developed after admission to the facility and not necessarily to a specific unit
If a closed container contains a mouse as well as enough food, water, and oxygen for the mouse to live for three weeks, how much will the container weigh 1 and 2 weeks later after the mouse has eaten, drunk, and exercised (respiration is CO2CO2 emission)?
Answer:
The life process may be defined as the different process that are important for the sustenance of life. The most important life process are nutrition, respiration, excretion and transportation.
If the mouse is placed in the closed sealed container then the weight will remain before and after the experiment of 1 or 2 week. This is because the life process metabolic reactions will use and conserve all the atoms involved in the life process. These atoms can exist in the liquid, solid and gas forms but present inside the container.
when does the paramecium pump out more water, when there is a high salt concentration or when there is a low salt concentration surrounding the paramecium?
Answer:
The correct answer is- when there is a low salt concentration
Explanation:
Water moves through osmosis which means water moves from an area having low solute concentration to an area having high solute concentration through a semipermeable membrane.
So in a hypotonic solution, the concentration of solute in the environment surrounding the paramecium will be low than in paramecium which allows water to move inside paramecium.
The more the water moves in the paramecium the more water will be pumped by the contractile vacuole present in the paramecium. Therefore the correct answer is- when there is a low salt concentration.
The paramecium pumps out more water when there is a low salt concentration surrounding it.
Explanation:The paramecium pumps out more water when there is a low salt concentration surrounding it. This is because paramecium is a freshwater organism and has a higher concentration of solutes inside its body compared to its external environment. To maintain osmotic balance, paramecium expels water when the external salt concentration is low. In contrast, when the salt concentration is high outside the paramecium, water tends to move out of the organism. As a result, the paramecium does not need to actively pump out water because the external environment already aids in reaching osmotic balance.
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In pea plants, T is the allele for tall plants, while t is the allele for dwarf plants. If you have a tall plant, demonstrate with a test cross how it could be determined if the plant is homozygous tall or heterozygous tall?
Answer:
Explanation:since T- represent tallness
t-dwarf plant
TT- means the plant is homozygous tall i.e the allele T is the same 100% talk
Tt- means the plant is heterozygote tall which implied that though this plant express tallness its still have gene for shortness hidden in its cell and if crossed with a plant that is dwarf some of the offspring will be dwarf.
From the test cross all the gametes are heterozyote - Tt Tt Tt Tt
Women who use birth control pills are more likely to develop pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), iron-deficiency anemia, and osteoporosis than women who use other forms of contraception. True or false?
Answer:
False. Women who use birth control pills are not most likely to develop PID, anemia and osteoprosis.
Explanation:
Birth control pills are basically used to prevent pregnancy. Birth control pills work by preventing ovulation. No egg is produced, so there is nothing for the sperm to fertilize. Hence, pregnancy cannot occur.
Major side effects of birth control pills are
1)intermenstrual spotting
2)nausea
3)breast tenderness
4)headaches and migraine
5)weight gain
6) mood changes
7)missed periods
8)decreased libido
9)vaginal discharge
The claim that women using birth control pills are more likely to develop PID, iron-deficiency anemia, and osteoporosis than those using other forms of contraception is false. PID is mostly caused by untreated STIs, not contraceptive use, and there is no straightforward link between birth control pills and anemia or osteoporosis.
Explanation:The statement is false. Women who use birth control pills do face certain health risks, but the claim that they are more likely to develop Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID), iron-deficiency anemia, and osteoporosis than women using other forms of contraception is not entirely accurate. While birth control pills can be associated with health risks such as blood clots, particularly with the combined pill which contains both estrogen and progesterone, this does not directly correlate with an increased risk of PID. PID is primarily caused by untreated sexually transmitted infections (STIs), not the use of birth control pills. Additionally, the pills do not directly cause iron-deficiency anemia or osteoporosis. The pills may impact menstrual flow and, therefore, iron levels, but any association with anemia is not straightforward. Similarly, there is no clear evidence that birth control pills increase the risk of developing osteoporosis; in fact, the estrogen in combined pills may have a protective effect on bone density.
A cell whose cytoplasm has a concentration of 0.02 mo lar glucose is placed in a test tube of water containing 0.02 molar glucose. Assuming that glucose is not actively transported into the cell 26) . which of the following terms describes the tonicity of the external solution relative to the cytoplasm of the cell? A) hypertonic B) turgid C) isotonic D) flaccid E) hypotonic
Answer:
The correct answer is C) isotonic
Explanation:
In an isotonic condition, the osmotic pressure between two solutions which is separated by a semipermeable membrane remains the same. So as osmotic pressure remain the same in isotonic solution the net movement of any solute inside the cell is zero.
So here the concentration of glucose in the cytoplasm is 0.02 molar and in the tube of water which contains the cell is also 0.02. So the concentration is equal and glucose is not flowing actively therefore it will considered as an isotonic solution. So the correct answer is C.
The tonicity of the external solution relative to the cytoplasm of the cell is isotonic.
Explanation:The tonicity of the external solution relative to the cytoplasm of the cell can be determined by comparing the concentration of solute in the external solution to that in the cytoplasm. In this case, both the external solution and the cytoplasm have a concentration of 0.02 molar glucose, so the tonicity is isotonic. This means that the concentration of solute is equal inside and outside the cell, resulting in no net movement of water.
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One way scientists hope to use the recent knowledge gained about noncoding RNAs lies with the possibilities for their use in medicine. Of the following scenarios for future research, which would you expect to gain most from RNAs? A) exploring a way to turn on the expression of pseudogenes B) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal recessive disease C) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal dominant disease D) creating knock-out organisms that can be useful for pharmaceutical drug design E) looking for a way to prevent viral DNA from causing infection in humans
Answer:
C) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal dominant disease
Explanation:
siRNAs are the small interfering RNAs that do not serve as a template during the process of protein synthesis. These RNA molecules are double-stranded and have about 23 nucleotides in total. siRNAs control the expression of genes that selectively inhibiting the mRNAs. They control gene expression at the post-transcriptional level by selectively cleaving mRNA molecules that have the nucleotide sequences complementary to the siRNA.
The siRNA molecules can be used to selectively inhibit the expression of the allele for an autosomal dominant disorder. This selective inactivation of the allele associated with the disease would help to control the corresponding genetic disorder.
In order to aspirate sample, you would: 1. Press the pushbutton to the second stop 2. Hold the pipetter vertically and immerse the tip into the sample 3. Release the pushbutton slowly and smoothly to aspirate the sample 4. Wait one second and then withdraw the tip from the sample.
True or false?
Answer: FALSE
Explanation: THE FIRST STEP IS INCORRECT AND SHOULD BE
1. press the pushbutton to the first positive stop
THE REST OF THE STEPS ARE CORRECT
Suppose that in 2008, 859 comma 200 citizens died of a certain disease. Assuming the population of the country is 213 million, what was the mortality rate in units of deaths per 100,000 people?
Answer:
First, we have to divide the number of dead citizens by the number of the total population.
859,200/213 million
= 0.00403380281
Then, we multiply the result by 100,000 to obtain the mortality rate.
0.00403380281 x 100,000
= 403.380281.
This means that the mortality rate of citizens killed by this certain disease in 2008 is of 403,38.
Name a degenerative joint disease in which the body’s immune system mistakenly attacks its own tissue in the joint or organs.
Answer: Rheumatoid Arthritis
Explanation:
In patients suffering from rheumatoid arthritis, accumulation of urates occur in the joints due to the deficiency of a vital enzyme, as a result the immune system produces antibodies that attack these joints or organs where urates are found.
This eventually leads to inflammation & degeneration of the joints, characterized by painful swelling and stiffness
Anaphylactic shock is an immediate allergic response. Why is anaphylactic shock a medical emergency?
Answer:
Severe allergic response causes fluid loss from the blood, breathing difficulty and therefore, is life threatening.
Explanation:
The anaphylactic shock results from the type I allergic reactions during which the presence of an allergen triggers a severe response. It occurs since IgE antibodies are already present in the body. There is a release of histamine and other vasodilators. Vasodilation and increased permeability of the blood capillaries result in the loss of fluid from the blood. Constriction of airways of the lungs causes difficulty in breathing and weakens the heartbeat. Therefore, severe fluid loss from blood and constricted airways make it life-threatening.
Answer:
You will lose blood, and not be able to lead, which could result in death.
If a healthy 6-year-old child (who does not have evidence of immunity to varicella) was exposed to a confirmed case of varicella 2 days ago, the correct action to take is:
a) Advise the parents that the child will likely develop varicella.
b) Administer antiviral medication (or refer the child to a health care provider who can administer antiviral medication).
c) Administer VZIG (or refer the child to a health care provider who can VZIG).
d) Administer varicella vaccine.
Administer varicella vaccine to the health 6-year old child (who does not have evidence of immunity to varicella) was exposed to a confirmed case of varicella 2 days ago.
Explanation:
It is seen that if a child receives varicella vaccine between 3 to 5 days of exposure, he is safe as disease will not appear in him and would be saved for future infections.
Varicella vaccine is given for prevention against small pox. It is expected once immunised with varicella body will produce antibodies for a span of twenty years or more.
Animal cells are surrounded by a(n) ________________, whereas plant cells are also surrounded by a(n) ________________ .
a) nuclear membrane; endomembrane
b) endomembrane; cell wall plasma
c) membrane; cell wall plasma
d) membrane; endomembrane
Answer:
The correct answer is c) plasma membrane; cell wall
Explanation:
Animal and plant cell is eukaryotic cells which means they both contain membrane-bound nucleus and other membrane-bound organelle. There are some difference in plant cell and animal cell.
The main difference is that the animal cell is surrounded by a cell membrane and it lacks a cell wall but plant cell is surrounded by a cell wall which is made up of cellulose. Cell membrane is present beneath the cell wall in plant cells.
Cell wall helps in protecting the plant cell from bursting in a hypotonic environment. Therefore the correct answer is c.
Animal cells are encased by a membrane which regulates interactions with the environment, while plant cells also possess a cell wall for extra protection and structure.
Explanation:Animal cells are surrounded by a(n) membrane, whereas plant cells are also surrounded by a(n) cell wall. The membrane, or cell membrane, is a thin layer that separates the cell from its external environment, regulating the movement of substances in and out of the cell. It's present in both animal and plant cells. However, plant cells have an additional layer known as the cell wall, which provides extra protection and structural support to the cell that animal cells lack.
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A group of students is reviewing material about endocrine system function. The students demonstrate an understanding of the information when they identify which of the following is secreted by the adrenal medulla?
a. Glucocorticoids
b. Mineralocorticoids
c. Glucagon
d. Epinephrine
Answer:
d. Epinephrine
Explanation:
The adrenal glands which are located at the top of each kidney are made up of two parts: the cortex and the medulla.
The adrenal cortex is the outer part of the adrenal gland, while the inner part is the adrenal medulla.
The adrenal medulla has tissues that are composed of popstganglionic sympathetic nervous system neurons which are involved in stimulating the medulla to secrete the epinephrine and norepinephrine hormones.
Epinephrine functions to increase cardiac output and increase level of glucose in the blood when the body is exposed to threat or stress.
You notice that over the past month, many students on campus have started wearing a new style of school sweatshirt. You think to yourself that perhaps the bookstore has recently started selling this new sweatshirt style. This prediction is an example of A) an experimental question. B) a type of observation. C) a hypothesis. D) an experiment. E) a type of control.
Answer:
C) a hypothesis.
Explanation:
Option A is incorrect because a thought or a prediction is not equivalent to an experimental question.
Option B is incorrect because observation has to do with taking notes of happenings in the environment.
Option D is incorrect because the prediction is not a form of experiment.
Option E is not correct because controls are only useful during experiments.
The correct option is C.
Hypothesis is a tentative statement, a guess or a prediction that has not been tested by any experiment.
The role of central nervous system activity for the experience of pain is best highlighted by:_______.
a) prosopagnosia.
b) phantom limb sensations.
c) frequency theory.
d) perceptual adaptation.
e) the opponent-process theory.
Answer:
b) phantom limb sensations.
Explanation:
This is the experience of sensation and pain from limbs that no longer exist.It is a psychological problem which originated in the brain and spinal cord of Amputees.
The sensations disappeared naturally 2-years later.
The central nervous system's role in the experience of pain is emphasized by phantom limb sensations (Option B), where pain is perceived despite the absence of the limb, due to activity within the brain's neural circuitry. The propagation of signals along axon potentials and their processing in the brain highlights how pain perception can involve central mechanisms.
Explanation:The role of central nervous system activity for the experience of pain is best highlighted by phantom limb sensations. Phantom limb sensations are a phenomenon where individuals who have lost a limb still feel sensations, such as pain as if the limb were still present. This highlights the central nervous system's role in pain perception because the pain is derived not from the peripheral site of the amputated limb, but from the neural circuitry within the central nervous system itself.
Pain is a complex process that starts with nociception at sensory receptors and doesn't become the conscious perception of pain until it is communicated to the brain. Pain signals are transmitted by nociceptive pathways to different areas within the brain such as the thalamus and the somatosensory cortex for final processing. Perception of pain can be delayed due to the time taken for these signals to be propagated along the axon potential and reach the cerebral cortex. Various pathways indicate that pain can emerge even in the absence of actual physical stimuli, as seen in neuropathic pain or as a result of the central nervous system's activity, as is the case in phantom limb sensations.
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A client was admitted for treatment of the symptoms of bipolar disorder after failing to comply with community treatment and continuing to expose their sexual partners to a sexually transmitted form of hepatitis. The court appointed a guardian because this client was not able to understand the consequences of the decisions being made. What term describes the status of this client?
Answer:
Legally incompetent
Explanation:
A client is said to be legally incompetent if the client is unable to understand the consequences of the decisions.When a client is legally incompetent then a guardian is appointed for the client. Legally incompetent can arise due to not being fit physically or mentally to take decisions and stand trials. In the given case, the client has bipolar disorder and thus, he is mentally considered to be unfit to take his own decisions or stand trials and this is the reason that the client is considered to be legally incompetent and the court has appointed a guardian for the client.The term describing the status of a client with bipolar disorder who was hospitalized involuntarily after failing to follow community treatment is 'involuntary hospitalization'. This is often the case when an individual's behaviors are a threat to themselves or others, and they are unable to comprehend the ramifications of their actions.
The term describes the status of a client who was admitted for treatment of the symptoms of bipolar disorder after failing to comply with community treatment and exposing their sexual partners to a sexually transmitted form of hepatitis, and for whom the court appointed a guardian due to their inability to understand the consequences of their decisions, is involuntary hospitalization. This status is often necessary when an individual exhibits behaviors that are antisocial, illegal, or physically threatening to themselves or others, such as during severe manic episodes associated with bipolar disorder. During such episodes, individuals might not recognize their illness or the need for treatment, leading to dangerous situations that warrant legal or medical intervention to protect both the individual and the community.
Bipolar disorder is a psychological disorder characterized by significant mood swings, including periods of mania or euphoria and depression, with intervals of near-normal mood in between. Without appropriate management and compliance with treatment, individuals with bipolar disorder may experience rapid cycling between these mood states, increasing the likelihood of engaging in risky behaviors and ultimately requiring more drastic measures like involuntary hospitalization.
Based on the model presented, which of the following statements expresses the proper relationship between osmolarity, ADH release, and urine production
Question: Based on the model presented, which of the following statements expresses the proper relationship between osmolarity, ADH release, and urine production?
(A) As tissue osmolarity rises, more ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted as urine.
(B) As tissue osmolarity rises, less ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted as urine.
(C) As tissue osmolarity rises, more ADH is released, causing more water to be excreted as urine.
(D) As tissue osmolarity rises, less ADH is released, causing more water to be excreted as urine.
Answer:
As tissue osmolarity rises, more ADH is released, causing less water to be excreted as urine.
Explanation:
ADH is the hormone that triggers the formation of concentrated urine by stimulating the absorption of water from the filtrate in the kidneys. As the solute concentration (osmolarity) in the blood raises, the more of the ADH is released into the blood. ADH triggers reabsorption of water in collecting duct and distal tubules and thereby, reduces the water loss in urine. Increased reabsorption of water restores the osmolarity, blood volume, and blood pressure.
Explain how heredity plays a role in the traits we receive from our parents.
Heredity involves the transmission of genetic traits from parents to offspring, determined by a combination of dominant and recessive alleles. Heritability considers both genetic and environmental factors, recognizing a reciprocal interaction between them. Gregor Mendel's foundational work established modern understanding of genetic inheritance patterns.
Understanding Heredity in Human Traits:
Heredity plays a crucial role in the transmission of traits from parents to their offspring. This process is governed by genetics, which is the scientific study of heredity. Children receive 50% of their genes from the mother's egg cell and the remaining 50% from the father's sperm cell, resulting in a unique combination of genetic information called a genotype. These genes are composed of dominant and recessive alleles, which contribute to the offspring's physical and psychological traits. For example, eye color, height, and certain personality traits are directly influenced by the combination of genes inherited from both parents.
Moreover, the concept of heritability explains the variation in individual characteristics, which is determined by the interaction between genetic and environmental factors. Instead of a black-and-white division between nature and nurture, it is now recognized that there is a reciprocal interaction between an individual's genes and their environment. Research supports the idea that many traits, including personality characteristics and political attitudes, have a genetic component, but are also shaped by environmental influences.
The foundation of modern genetics can be attributed to Gregor Mendel, who through his work with garden peas, laid down the patterns of inheritance that form the basis of our understanding of heredity today. In summary, while the genetic traits we inherit from our parents set the framework for who we are, our environment plays a significant role in shaping how these traits are expressed and developed throughout our lives.
Place the steps involved in the process of bacterial transformation in the correct order. Drag the labels to the appropriate locations in this flowchart. Not all labels will be used. A. Donor cell forms a Donor cell lyses, Transformed DNA pairs with One strand of the Donor cell DNA Transformed D pilus through releasing pieces which DNA can be transferred. B. Recipient cell homologous binds to a receptor site on the recipient cell. C. Recombines with the recipient cell chromosome. D. Its chromosomedonor cell DNA is region on the recipient cell degraded into the environment. degraded
The steps involved in the process of bacterial transformation are: the donor cell forms a pilus, the donor cell lyses and releases DNA, the transformed DNA pairs with recipient cell DNA, and the transformed DNA recombines with the recipient cell chromosome.
Explanation:The donor cell forms a pilus and brings the donor and recipient cells into contact.The donor cell lyses and releases pieces of DNA into the environment.The transformed DNA pairs with one strand of the recipient cell DNA.The transformed DNA recombines with the recipient cell chromosome.Why does the electrical impulse that simulates heart contraction first travel down to the bottom of the heart, and then stimulates contraction from the bottom of the ventricles upwards?
Answer:
This happens to squeeze out blood completely, else the heart may not function properly
Explanation:
The electrical impulses are carried by bundle of His and send to the bottom of the heart via purkyne fibers. This happens in order to spread the impulse from the atrio-ventricular node to the sides of the ventricles. Now in the next round of impulse causes the ventricles to contract and squeeze out all the blood from the ventricles. If this does not happen then the heart will not be able to perform to its full capacity. Atria may also not release its entire blood into the ventricles.
When Avery and his colleagues had obtained the transforming factor from the IIIS virulent cells, they treated the fraction with proteases, ribonuclease, and deoxyribonuclease, followed by the assay for retention or loss of transforming ability.
What was the purpose of these experiments?
Answer:
to find out the exact molecular species of the transforming principle
Explanation:
As demonstrated by Avery and his colleagues, their aim and purpose is to find out an determine the exact molecular species of the transforming principle.
In the quest to find out, they obtained IIIS virulent cells and treated the fraction with proteases, ribonuclease and deoxyribonulease.
The purpose of these treatment was to hydrolyze peptide bonds of proteins, cleave RNA and catalyzes the hydrolytic cleavage of phosphodiester linkages in the DNA backbone of the virus cell, thus degrading the DNA in the virus cell respectively.
This process was followed by assay for retention or loss of transforming ability. We can see that it is glaring that the purpose of these experiment was to find out the exact molecular species of the transforming principle.
In _______ balance, the two sides of a composition on either side of an imaginary vertical dividing line correspond to one another in size, shape, and placement of form.Selected Answer:a. symmetrica lCorrect Answer:a. symmetrical
Answer:
Symmetrical balance.
Explanation: Anatomically, equal distribution of body organs and parts within an organisms to give proportions of shapes, sizes, and forms of the divided sides or halves is called body symmetry
Asymmetrical balance has two sides with each side's size, shape and placement form different from one another, (not match) but yet well balanced.
Therefore the correct option is Symmetrical balance, just like mirror image in which the two side are exactly matched and balanced.
Therefore, if an imaginary line is vertically drawn through the center of composition of the object then the forms on each side of the axis produced should be proportionate to one another in size, shape and placement.They may be view as mirror image of one another but not with 100% perfect similarity.
In ideal cases to get a perfect symmetrically balanced composition, centering is the method usually used.However, most center design may produce flat shape which may be not give good symmetry.
The plant cell wall
A. is found just inside the plasma membrane.B. is a protective structure made of cellulose fibrils.C. regulates the composition of the cytoplasm.D. makes food by converting light energy to chemical energy.E. is very similar to the animal cell wall.
B. is a protective structure made of cellulose fibrils
Mark as BrainliestOne of your brother's friends, Dylan, is unusually short with a stocky build; has a flat face, a large tongue, and an extra fold of skin on his eyelids; and suffers from cognitive deficits, hearing impairments, and a heart defect. Dylan likely has __________.
Answer:
Dylan likely has Down Syndrome / 21 Trisomy Syndrome.
Explanation:
Down Syndrome is a genetic disorder in which the person has an extra copy of chromosome 21, this is why the disorder is known as Trisomy 21. This extra copy changes how the body and the brain develope, which can cause mental and physical problems.
Children with this disorder usually have a low intellectual level, the most frequent cause of identifying mental delay of genetic origin.
Some of the characteristics of these children are slight diminution in the skull size, almond-shaped eyes, a short neck, small ears, a small mouth, a large tongue tends to get out of the mouth, narrow auditive conduct, tiny hands, and feet, weak muscular tone, and they are usually short in height.
There are also some medical problems such as hearing loss, apnea, ear infections, ocular problems, heart defects, intestinal malformations, hypothyroidism, hip dislocation, anemia, among others.
You memorize a series of numbers by grouping them into sets of three and thinking of these sets as area codes. This is an example of:
Answer:
The correct answer is chunking.
Explanation:
Chunking is a term signifying the procedure of taking single pieces of information or chunks and aligning them into bigger units. By aligning each piece into a large whole, one can better the amount of data one can remember.
Generally, the most common illustration of chunking takes place in phone numbers. By distinguishing dissimilar single elements into bigger blocks, information becomes easier to recall and retain.
If you found a singled-celled organism with a nucleus, circular chromosomes, and the ability to live in extremely salty habitats, you would classify it as a member of the Eukarya. True or false?
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Carl Woese suggested the classification system in which he divided the organisms into three domains: Archaebacteria, Eubacteria and the Eukaryotes.
In this domain, the domain archaebacteria are the domain which comprises of the organisms which share features of the other two domains.
In the given question, the provided characteristic features like the circular chromosome is a feature of the prokaryote, the habitat is extremely salty which is a characteristic feature of the archaebacteria but the presence of nucleus is a characteristic feature of the eukarya but the prokaryotes do not possess a well-defined nucleus but they possess nucleus like envelope.
Since the eukaryotes do not possess circular chromosomes therefore false is the correct answer.
A brain imaging study showed that, in healthy children, peak cortical thickness occurred around the age of 7.5 years, and in children with ADHD, on average around 10.5 years. This finding implies that children with ADHD ____.
a. will never catch up with their same-age peers.b. can be expected to lag behind their same-age peers in some tasks but will eventually experience improvement.c. can be expected to go through puberty approximately 3 years behind their same-age peers.d. will never be as intelligent as their same-age peers.
Answer:
The correct answer would be option B.
Explanation:
In neural antomy, cortical thickness is the morphomateric calculation or measurement of the brain that provide the information about the overall thickness of the various layers of the cerebral cortex.
The normal range of the peak cortical thickness is around 7.5 to 8 which means that the same age group kids brain is develop at this age where is in ADHD child it is found according to the question is 10.5 years, which means he is taking 3 years extra to develop the cortex of the brain which means he would be slow in comparison to the similarly age group kids but will improve with the time.
Thus, the correct answer would - option B.