The significance of checkpoints can be demonstrated by considering what happens when they are impaired. What would occur if there was a gain-of-function mutation in the promoter for the cyclin E gene such that cyclin E protein was always made at high levels even under conditions in which cyclin E would not normally be made?
a. Cells will pass through the G2/M checkpoint with damaged DNA.
b. Cells will skip the S phase and go directly to G2 phase and not complete DNA replication.
c. Cells will pass through the G1/S checkpoint even if conditions are not ideal for cell division.
d. Cells will pass the M checkpoint with chromosomes unattached to spindles.
Answer:
c. Cells will pass through the G1/S checkpoint even if conditions are not ideal for cell division.
Explanation:
Cyclins are the regulatory proteins that are formed during different stages of the cell cycle. A specific cyclin during each stage bind to corresponding cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKS). The activated CDKs phosphorylate the proteins required for the progression of a cell through a specific stage of the cell cycle.
For example, Cyclin E is synthesized at the peak near the G1 -S phase transition or G1/S checkpoint. They activate the CDK-2 and allow the cells to progress from G1 to the S phase. If the cell is not prepared for DNA replication, cyclin E is not formed or is inhibited by specific protein kinases which in turn does not allow the cell to enter the S phase.
Any gain of function mutation resulting in the constitutive synthesis of cyclin E would allow the cell to pass through the G1/S checkpoint irrespective of the conditions.
Why should deepwater shrimp on different sides of the isthmus have diverged from each other earlier than shallow-water shrimp?
Answer:
Reproductive isolation occurs faster in deep-water shrimp than shallow-water shrimp.
Explanation:
Though in the same territory, the blockage caused by the isthmus would quickly and permanently isolate shrimps living in the deeper parts of the water, thus making them unable to breed. This situation would then caused lack of gene flow within the deep-water shrimps , and the emergence of new species that are genetically different (diverge) from one another
The shallow-water shrimp, on the other hand, experience minimal isolation due to the shallowness of water, and could still breed with one another. Thus, they experience a relatively lower reproductive isolation
Answer:
It is because the deep water shrimp and the shallow water shrimp being in different geographical location for a very long time have gotten use to their location and will definitely exhibit divergence.
How is energy utilized in photosynthesis?
Answer: During photosynthesis, green plants uses light energy from sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water to glucose and water. Light energy is converted to chemical energy during photosynthesis.
Explanation:
Photosynthesis is the process by which green plants uses light energy from sunlight to produce carbohydrates by converting carbon dioxide and water to carbohydrates and oxygen.
While doing field work in Madagascar, you discover a new dragonfly species that has either red(R) or clear(r) wings. Initial crosses indicate that R is dominant to r. You perform three crosses using three different sets of redwinged parents with unknown genotype and observe the following data:
cross Phenotype
1 72 red-winged,24 clear-winged
2 54 red-wing,49 clear-wing
3 96 red-winged
What is the most likely genotype for each pair of parents in the three crosses?
Answer: 1. The genotypes of parent that produced 72 red-winged,24 clear-winged are Rr and Rr.
2. The genotypes of parent that produced 54 red-wing,49 clear-wing are Rr and rr.
3. The genotypes of parent that produced 96 red-winged can either be RR and RR or RR and Rr.
Explanation: To get parent's genotypes from offspring's phenotypes, find the phenotypic ratio among the offsprings produced. That will give insight on the allele combination of the parent.
In the case where 72 red-winged,24 clear-winged were produced, the ratio will be 72:24. Dividing the ratio to the lowest term, we will get 3:1. This implies that the ratio of dominant to recessive alleles in the offspring genotypes is 3:1. Only heterozygous crossing can produce the ratio. We can then assign the parent's genotypes as Rr and Rr.
In the case where 54 red-wing,49 clear-wing were the offspring produced, the ratio will be 54:49. Dividing it to the lowest term, we will get approximately 1:1. This implies that the ratio between dominant and recessive allele is 1:1. A test cross will produce this ratio. We can then assign the parent's genotypes as Rr and rr.
In the cross that produced only 96 red-winged flies, the parent's genotypes can either be RR and Rr or RR and RR.
Blue flower color is produced in a species of morning glories when dominant alleles are present at two gene loci, A and B. Purple flowers result when a dominant allele is present at only one of the two gene loci, A or B. Flowers are red when the plant is homozygous recessive for each gene. What flower color ratio is expected from the cross of aaBb to AABb?
Answer:
The flower colour ratio obtained is: Blue : Purple = 3 : 1.
Explanation:
According to the question, the genotype, AABB or AaBb or AABb or AaBB gives blue phenotype.the genotype, AAbb or aaBB or Aabb or aaBb gives purple phenotype.Red phenotype is for the aabb genotype.As only the presence of dominant allele is mentioned but whether it is homozygous or heterozygous is not mentioned, in 1. we consider that presence of a single dominant allele A or B in either locus is capable of showing a blue phenotype, irrespective of the nature of the other allele.In 2. we consider that the presence of a single dominant allele, A or B in one locus with recessive pairs of alleles in the other locus is sufficient to develop the purple phenotype.The aaBb individual will produce the gametes: aB, ab.The AABb individual will produce the gametes: AB, Ab.Crossing them,aB ab
AB AaBB AaBb
(Blue) (Blue)
Ab AaBb Aabb
(Blue) (Purple)
Of the offspring obtained, 3 have blue phenotype and 1 has purple phenotype.Hence, they have the following phenotypic ratio:Blue : Purple = 3 : 1.
From the cross of aaBb and AABb morning glory plants, we can expect that three out of every four offspring will have blue flowers and one out of four will have purple flowers. There will be no red flowers since all offspring will have at least one dominant A allele.
There are two genes to consider, A and B, with the following dominant (capital letter) and recessive (small letter) alleles: blue flower color if both loci have at least one dominant allele, purple if only one locus has a dominant allele, and red if both loci are homozygous recessive.
For the A gene locus: since one parent is aa and the other is AA, all offspring will have the genotype Aa, resulting in the dominant trait.For the B gene locus, the cross is Bb x Bb, leading to a expected ratio of 3:1 where 75% exhibit the dominant phenotype and 25% are homozygous recessive.As all offspring have at least one dominant A allele they won't be red, but we need to see who has at least one dominant B. Three out of four will have B (either BB or Bb) and one will be bb. So, for every four offspring, three will be blue (A-B-), and one will be purple (A-bb). There won't be any red offspring because all have at least one dominant A allele.
At the end of the paper, the authors state that the Nitrogen of a DNA molecule is divided equally between two subunits and each daughter molecule receives one of these. a. Which component of a DNA nucleotide contains nitrogen?b.How could you label another part of the DNA and repeat these tests with another component?
The nitrogen component in a DNA nucleotide is found in the nitrogenous base, which are adenine, guanine, cytosine, or thymine. Another component of the DNA that could be labeled for tests is the phosphate group.
Explanation:The component of a DNA nucleotide that contains nitrogen is the nitrogenous base. These bases are adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T). The nitrogenous base is part of the nucleotide, which also includes a deoxyribose (5-carbon sugar) and a phosphate group.
As for labeling another part of the DNA for further tests, you could label the phosphate group. The phosphate group is another key component of the nucleotide and forms part of the DNA's double-helix structure. By labeling it, we could track its distribution during DNA replication, much like nitrogen.
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Final answer:
The nitrogenous base is the component of a DNA nucleotide that contains nitrogen. To repeat tests with another component, isotopic labeling can be used on the phosphate group or the 5-carbon sugar.
Explanation:
The component of a DNA nucleotide that contains nitrogen is the nitrogenous base. DNA nucleotides are made up of three parts: a deoxyribose (5-carbon sugar), a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base. There are four types of nitrogenous bases in DNA: the purines adenine (A) and guanine (G), and the pyrimidines cytosine (C) and thymine (T).
To label another part of the DNA and repeat the tests, one could use isotopic labeling on either the phosphate group or the 5-carbon sugar component of the nucleotide. This would allow scientists to track these components through the replication process in a similar way to how the nitrogenous bases were tracked.
please help!!
why is asexual reproduction within our own bodies necessary for survival?
Answer:
Asexual lineages, being either unicellular organisms or organisms with a small number of germ-line cell divisions, survive due to the very high fidelity of DNA replication, which is enough for the reliable self-reproduction.
Explanation:
I found this off the internet
I hope it helps.
You want to make 50 ml of 1X tricaine solution in order to euthanize some fish. How much of a 20X tricaine stock solution will you need to dilute in order to make your solution?a. 1 ml b. 5 ml c. 0.4 ml d. 10 ml e. 2.5 ml
Answer: e. 2.5 ml
Explanation:
According to the dilution law,
[tex]C_1V_1=C_2V_2[/tex]
where,
[tex]C_1[/tex] = concentration of stock solution = 20X
[tex]V_1[/tex] = volume of stock solution = ?
[tex]C_2[/tex] = concentration of required solution= 1X
[tex]V_2[/tex] = volume of required solution= 50 ml
[tex]20\times V_1=1\times 50ml[/tex]
[tex]V_2=2.5ml[/tex]
Thus 2.5 ml much of a 20X tricaine stock solution is needed to dilute in order to make your solution.
Broccoli, cauliflower, kale, Brussels sprouts, and cabbage are all just different breeds of a single type of weed commonly found along the shores of the English Channel. The differences between them were all gradually selected for by various farmers. Group of answer choices True False
Final answer:
Broccoli, cauliflower, kale, Brussels sprouts, and cabbage are all derived from the wild cabbage, Brassica oleracea, through artificial selection, which is true.
Explanation:
The statement that broccoli, cauliflower, kale, Brussels sprouts, and cabbage are all different breeds of a single type of weed commonly found along the shores of the English Channel is true. These vegetables were all developed from Brassica oleracea, a plant in the mustard family known as wild cabbage. Through the process of artificial selection, farmers selected for various traits over generations, leading to the diversity of plant types we have today. This process is a form of genetic modification that humans have been applying to crop species for thousands of years, shaping them into the forms that provide desired characteristics such as taste, size, and nutritional value.
False. Broccoli, cauliflower, kale, Brussels sprouts, and cabbage are cultivated crops, not breeds of a single weed.
False. Broccoli, cauliflower, kale, Brussels sprouts, and cabbage are not breeds of a single type of weed. Instead, they are all members of the Brassica oleracea species, which is a cultivated plant in the Brassicaceae family. This species has been selectively bred over centuries by farmers to produce various cultivars with distinct characteristics.
While it's true that all these vegetables share a common ancestor in the wild cabbage, Brassica oleracea, they are not weeds but rather domesticated crops. They have been cultivated and selected by humans for desirable traits such as larger leaves, tighter heads, or different flavors.
Each of these vegetables has undergone specific breeding to accentuate certain traits. For example, broccoli has been bred for its large flowering heads, cauliflower for its compact curd, kale for its loose, leafy growth, Brussels sprouts for its small, leafy heads along the stem, and cabbage for its tightly packed heads of leaves.
These differences were not naturally occurring but were deliberately selected for by farmers through artificial selection and breeding practices. Over time, these selective pressures led to the development of distinct varieties within the Brassica oleracea species. Therefore, while they may share a common ancestor, they are not just different breeds of a single weed, but rather diverse cultivated vegetables resulting from human intervention and selective breeding.
Calculate the average metabolic rate of a 65-kg person who sleeps 8.0h, sits at a desk 6.0h, engages in light activity 6.0h, watches TV 2.0h, plays tennis 1.5 h, and runs 0.50h daily.
Final answer:
To calculate the average metabolic rate of a 65-kg person with specified activities, one must understand the metabolic rate, including the basal metabolic rate and the additional energy expended during physical activities.
Explanation:
The question involves calculating the average metabolic rate of a 65-kg person based on their daily activities, including sleeping, sitting at a desk, engaging in light activity, watching TV, playing tennis, and running. This calculation requires understanding the concept of the metabolic rate, which describes the rate at which the body uses energy for basic functions at rest (known as basal metabolic rate, or BMR) and activities. The BMR varies with age, gender, body weight, and muscle mass. Athletes, for example, have a higher BMR. Additionally, the energy expended in physical activities contributes to the total daily energy expenditure, which can be significantly higher than the BMR alone. The daily energy needs thus depend on both the BMR and the energy spent on various activities throughout the day.
A potential difference of 122 mV exists between the inner and outer surfaces of a cell membrane. The inner surface is negative relative to the outer surface. How much work is required to eject a positive sodium ion (Na+) from the interior of the cell?
Answer:
195.2 × 10⁻¹⁹ J.
Explanation:
The relation between the work done, potential difference and charge is as follows;
V = w / q.
Here, the potential difference, V = 122mV and q is the charge = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C
Substitute these values to find the amount of work done
W = v × q
W = 122 × 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹
W = 195.2 × 10⁻¹⁹ J
Thus, the answer is 195.2 × 10⁻¹⁹ J.
Answer:
[tex]W = 1.95 * 10^{-20}[/tex] J
Explanation:
The potential on the inner side of the membrane is [tex]0[/tex]mV
And the potential on the outer side of the membrane is [tex]122[/tex] mV
So the potential difference across the inner and outer membrane is equal to [tex]122[/tex] mV
We know that work done is equal to
[tex]W = q . V\\[/tex]
Where, q represents the charge of the particle and
V represents the potential difference across the inner and outer membrane
Substituting the given values in above equation, we get -
[tex]W = 1.6 * 10^{-19} * 122 * 10^{-3}\\W = 195.2 * 10^ {-22}[/tex]
[tex]W = 1.95 * 10^{-20}[/tex] J
"Henri, a 5-star chef in a French Restaurant, has been diagnosed with leukemia. He is about to undergo chemotherapy, which will kill rapidly dividing cells. He needs to continue working between bouts of chemotherapy. What consequences of chemo might affect his job as a chef?"
Answer:to die
Explanation: because yes
Which is NOT a characteristic of a simple inherited trait: Select one: a. Influenced by the environment b. Monogenic c. Dichotomous distribution d. None of the above
Answer: Option C) Dichotomous distribution
Explanation:
A simple inherited trait can be
- influenced by environment
- monogenic i.e controlled by one gene
For example, an individual can inherit the trait of dark colour from parent where dark is completely dominant over other skin color
However, a simple inherited trait can not express dichotomous distribution, because
dichotomous distribution involves the control of a trait by two different genes.
Thus, Dichotomous distribution is the answer.
A characteristic of a simple inherited trait that is NOT true is that it is influenced by the environment.
Explanation:A characteristic of a simple inherited trait that is NOT true is that it is influenced by the environment. Simple inherited traits are monogenic, meaning they are controlled by a single gene, and they have a dichotomous distribution, which means they have only two possible phenotypes. Therefore, the correct answer is a. Influenced by the environment.
A characteristic of a simple inherited trait is that it is not influenced by the environment. Simple inherited traits are typically determined by genetic factors and are not significantly impacted by environmental factors. These traits are usually controlled by one or a few genes, making their inheritance relatively straightforward.
In contrast, complex traits are influenced by both genetic and environmental factors. Examples of simple inherited traits include certain genetic disorders, blood type, or the ability to taste certain substances. These traits follow predictable patterns of inheritance and are less susceptible to environmental influences compared to complex traits.
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The probability distribution of X, the number of imperfections per 10 meters of a synthetic fabric in continuous rolls of uniform width, is given ascol1 x 0 1 2 3 4 col2 f(x) 0.41 0.37 0.16 0.05 0.01 Find the average number of imperfections per 10 meters of this fabric.
Answer:
E(X) = 0.88
Explanation:
The average number of imperfections to be determined is the expected value of the random variable X.
E(X) = Σxf(x)
X
Of which f is the probability distribution of the random variable X.
Thus, the needed value is:
E(X) = Σxf(x)
X
= 4
Σxf(x)
X_0
= 0 . f (0) + 1 . f (1) + 2 . f (2) +
3 . f (3) + 4 . f (4)
= 0 . 0.41 + 1 . 0.37 + 2 . 0.16 +
3 . 0.05 + 4 . 0.01
= 0.88
E(X) = 0.88
Final answer:
The average number of imperfections per 10 meters of fabric is calculated by multiplying each possible number of imperfections by its probability and summing these products, yielding an average of 0.88.
Explanation:
To find the average number of imperfections per 10 meters of fabric, we calculate the expected value of the probability distribution given. The expected value (or mean) of a discrete random variable X is computed as E(X) = μ = Σ[x * f(x)], where x represents the value and f(x) the probability of that value. In our case, we will multiply each number of imperfections by its corresponding probability and sum up these products.
So, the calculation will be as follows:
(0 * 0.41) + (1 * 0.37) + (2 * 0.16) + (3 * 0.05) + (4 * 0.01)
= 0 + 0.37 + 0.32 + 0.15 + 0.04
= 0.88
Therefore, the average number of imperfections per 10 meters of this fabric is 0.88.
The nucleus of "Lead-208", 208 82 Pb, has 82 protons within a sphere of radius 6.34×10-15 m. Each electric charge has a value of 1.60218 × 10^-19 C. The Coulomb constant is 8.98755 × 109 N · m^2/C^2. Calculate the electric field at the surface of the nucleus. Answer in units of N/C.
Answer:
2.94 × 10²⁰ N/C
Explanation:
Given that:
The nucleus of "Lead-208 has 82 protons,
with a radius (r) 6.34×10-15 m, &
each electric charge has a value of 1.60218 × 10^-19 C
∴ The formula for calculating an electrical field at the surface of the nucleus is:
[tex]E=\frac{k*q}{r^2}[/tex]
Substituting our values into the equation above, we have;
E = [tex]\frac{8.98755*10^8*82(1.60218*10^{-19C)}}{(6.34*10^{-15}_m)^2}[/tex]
E = 2.93870499×10²⁰ N/C
E ≅ 2.94 × 10²⁰ N/C
To calculate the electric field at the surface of the nucleus, use the formula E = k * |Q| / r^2, where k is the Coulomb constant, |Q| is the absolute value of the charge, and r is the distance from the charge. Plugging in the values for Lead-208, we find that the electric field at the surface of the nucleus is 2.31 × 10^18 N/C.
Explanation:To calculate the electric field at the surface of the nucleus, we can use the formula for electric field created by a point charge. The electric field (E) is given by the equation E = k * |Q| / r^2, where k is the Coulomb constant, |Q| is the absolute value of the charge, and r is the distance from the charge. In this case, the charge of the nucleus is equal to the number of protons (82), so |Q| = 82 * (1.60218 × 10^-19 C). The radius (r) is given as 6.34×10^-15 m. Plugging these values into the equation, we can calculate the electric field at the surface of the nucleus:
E = (8.98755 × 10^9 N · m^2/C^2) * (82 * (1.60218 × 10^-19 C)) / (6.34×10^-15 m)^2
E = 2.31 × 10^18 N/C
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True or False The difference between spirochetes and spirillum bacteria is that the spirillum bacteria contain endoflagella or axial filaments
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The difference between the spirochetes bacteria from the spirillum is that spirochetes have axial filaments while spirillum posses an external flagella.
The statement is true. The primary difference between Spirochetes and Spirillum bacteria is that Spirochetes utilize endoflagella or, axial filaments, while Spirillum uses flagella located at the pole ends for movement.
Explanation:The statement you are asking about is True. Spirochetes and Spirillum bacteria are indeed different in that respect. The Spirillum is a type of bacteria that has flagella located at the pole ends while Spirochetes possess endoflagella or axial filaments. An endoflagellum, also called an axial filament, wraps around the cell, between the cytoplasmic membrane and outer membrane in spirochetes, and produces cell movement. In contrast, the flagella of most other bacteria, including Spirillum, protrude from the cell body and make whip-like movements to generate locomotion.
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Cyanobacteria in polar regions a. can only grow in open water. b. are limited to the summer months. c. provide the basis of ecosystems in the polar environments. d. can only grow in limited numbers.
Answer: c. provide the basis of ecosystems in the polar environments.
Explanation:
Cyanobacteria is found in the freshwater, glacial environments of the polar and alpine regions. The Cyanobacteria mats can be found at the bottom of the ponds, lakes and streams within the melted water habitats in the ice shelves and glaciers.
The Cyanobacteria accounts for the dominant fraction of the total ecosystem production. These are the key producers of the food chains in the polar region and these are also responsible for contributing to the nitrogen and carbon cycles. Their presence was observed in the Arctic and Antarctic polar regions.
To find out which ingredient the cockroaches are refusing, you can carry out a controlled experiment. Hydramethylnon is dissolved in oleic acid before being mixed with corn syrup to prepare the poisoned bait, so you should test all three ingredients.Suppose you conducted a feeding trial to test each ingredient. In the trial, a set of four agar dishes, three containing all except one ingredient and one with all three ingredients (the control), were weighed and placed 3 cm apart on the kitchen floor in an infested apartment. After two days, the dishes were weighed again to measure food consumption. You then repeated the trial 4 times and averaged the results.Based on the results of the feeding experiment, what conclusions can you draw? Select all that apply.A) Roaches ate about the same amount from the dish with no hydramethylnon as they did from the control dish.B) Roaches ate about the same amount from the dish with no oleic acid as they did from the control dish.C) Roaches ate about the same amount from the dish with no corn syrup as they did from the control dish.D) Roaches are refusing hydramethylnon.E) Roaches are refusing oleic acid.F) Roaches are refusing corn syrup
Answer:
The correct options
A) Roaches ate about the same amount from the dish with no hydramethylnon as they did from the control dish.
B) Roaches ate about the same amount from the dish with no oleic acid as they did from the control dish.
F) Roaches are refusing corn syrup.
Explanation:
In this situation (before pesticides were ever recommended for cockroaches) a particular subdivision of the population was genetically more inclined to avert oleic acid for some particular purpose. Traits such as this float all through populations and adds to genetic variance. When pesticides are recommended to the population, cockroaches with the formerly neutral trait of oleic acid aversion would have a notable advancement concerning its relative fitness.
Conclusions from the feeding experiment can determine which ingredient cockroaches are avoiding based on comparison to control consumption, which is crucial in pest control studies.
Explanation:When analyzing the results of the feeding experiment on cockroaches, certain conclusions can be drawn about the ingredients in the poisoned bait. If the roaches ate about the same amount from the dish lacking hydramethylnon as from the control dish, it suggests that hydramethylnon is not the ingredient they are refusing (A). Similarly, if consumption was the same for the dish without oleic acid (B), then oleic acid is not the deterrent.
However, if the dish without corn syrup (C) showed the same consumption as the control, this indicates that corn syrup is not the ingredient causing refusal. If there is noticeable avoidance of the dish containing hydramethylnon, it could be concluded that cockroaches are refusing hydramethylnon (D). This experiment utilizes the scientific method to isolate the ingredient that could be causing refusal in cockroaches, which is a fundamental approach in pest control studies.
Integrating (combining) many synaptic inputs over space (surface area of the plasma membrane) is called _____
Answer:
The correct answer is - spatial summation.
Explanation:
Spatial summation is the is the effect or impact of triggering an action potential in a neuron from many synaptic inputs or one or more presynaptic neurons. It takes place due to the multiple post synaptic potential starts simultaneously and a different part of neuron.
Thus, the correct answer is - spatial summation.
Answer:
Spatial summation.
Explanation:
Summation may be defined as the process of the process of adding of the different stimulus and has the ability to generate the action potential. Two main types of summation are temporal summation and spatial summation.
The spatial summation determines the effect that are responsible for the generation of the action potential from the presynaptic neurons. This summation combines the different stimuli on the different neurons over a particular space. The excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) are involved in the spatial summation.
Imagine that each allele at the BXP007 locus is found at exactly the same frequency in a population. Since there are 8 possible alleles at the BXP007 locus, what is the frequency of any one allele from this locus in this population?
Answer:
[tex]\frac{1}{8}[/tex]
Explanation:
The variant forms of a gene are produced when they are located at the same position or gene locus on any chromosome.
So frequency of an allele is calculated by dividing the number of times a particular allele is observed in a given population by the total number of copies of all the alleles that can occur at that genetic location for that population.
Based on above explanation, the frequency of any one allele from this locus in this population is equal to
[tex]\frac{1}{8}[/tex]
In a population with eight equally frequent alleles at the BXP007 locus, the frequency of any one allele is 1/8 or 0.125, indicating a 12.5% presence in the population.
Explanation:If we assume that each allele at the BXP007 locus is found at the same frequency in a population and that there are eight possible alleles at this locus, we would determine the frequency of any one allele by dividing the total number of alleles by the number of different possible alleles.
Since there are eight alleles, the frequency of any one allele would be 1/8 or 0.125. This means that each allele would have a frequency of 12.5% in the population.
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In the mouse, gene A allows pigmentation to be deposited in the individual coat hairs while its allele a prevents such deposition of pigment, resulting in an albino. Gene B gives agouti (wild-type fur) while its allele b gives black fur.The cross between a doubly heterozygous agouti mouse mated with a doubly homozygous recessive white mouse is:AaBb X aabb.
1. What would be the expected phenotypic ratio in the progeny?
Answer:
9 : 3 : 4 = agouti : black : albino
Explanation:
Given,
aa would not allow pigmentation resulting into albino mouse. So,
AaBb = agouti fur
aabb = albino fur
AaBb X aabb :
A_B_ = 9 = agouti
aaB_ = 3 = albino
A_bb = 3 = black
aabb = 1 = albino
Hence, expected phenotypic ratio in the progeny would be =
9 : 3 : 4 = agouti : black : albino
The transfer of genetic information flows from DNA to protein synthesis in a complex process that involves many different types of biomolecules. Which of the following statements about this process are true? 1) Transcription is the process of transferring information from RNA to protein synthesis. 2) DNA utilizes tRNA to control the amino acid sequence of proteins. 3) mRNA catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds, linking amino acids together to form proteins. 4) Replication is the process of preparing mRNA from template DNA.
Answer:
. 2) DNA utilizes tRNA to control the amino acid sequence of proteins.
3) mRNA catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds, linking amino acids together to form proteins.
Explanation:
The formation of peptide bonds of polypeptide chains to form protein is by enzyme peptidyl transferase. This enzyme is located in the large ribosome sub-units;(ribosomes is made up of large and small sub units),and it made up of RNA.
Thus option 3 that mRNA catalyze the peptide bond for linking amino acids together is correct. The process of mRNA catalysis takes place in the cytoplasm.it begins with the alignment of the mRNA bases(condons) on the ribosomes sub-units, and corresponding alignment of the tRNA, in such a way that the anticodon at its head bonded by hydrogen bonds with the codon on the mRNA. The codon-anticodon bonding continues based on the type of protein attached to the head of the tRNA and and the corresponding condon and anticodon bonding .
The amino acids are joined together by peptide bonds. This extends with each additional amino acids to form polypeptide chains of amino acids The reactions is catalyzed by the (RNA contained peptidyl transferase above).
The main objective of DNA in gene expression is to produce required proteins needed for cellular reactions. Therefore for correct delivery of the DNA coded messages transcribed in the mRNA it must utilize tRNA so that correct protein sequence are positioned by tRNA as anti codons to bond with codons on the mRNA. This regulation is control at the transcription level coordinated by the DNA, under the influence of an enzyme.Therefore the option 2 that DNA utilizes tRNA to control the amino acid sequence of proteins is correct.
NOTE
Option 1,is wrong because transcription is the process of transfering coded information from DNA to mRNA, not as quoted in the question
Option 4. is wrong because the process of producing new DNA replica from original DNA molecule is called Replication, not as quoted,
Answer: The following statements are true:
2) DNA utilizes tRNA to control the amino acid sequence of proteins.
3) mRNA catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds, linking amino acids together to form proteins.
Explanation: mRna carries the information from DNA in the form of codon, each three nucleotide form a codon for one specific amino acids. When mRna binds to ribosomal subunit, translation (protein synthesis) starts.
tRNA carries the anticodon that are complemented to mRna codons and they carry these anticodons to ribosome where translation process occurs, thus, tRNA will help in the protein synthesis by binding that specific amino acid to growing polypeptide.
How did you develop from a single-celled zygote to an organism with trillions of cells? How many mitotic cell divisions would it take for one zygote to grow into an organism with 100 trillion cells?
Answer:
The correct answer is "A single-celled zygote develops into an organism with trillions of cells by going trough multiple mitotic processes; a mitotic cell will undergo 47 mitotic divisions to develop into an organism with 100 trillion cells".
Explanation:
It is fascinating how a single-celled zygote develops into an organism with trillions of cells. The key of an organism's development is called mitosis: a cell division process at which a parent cells produces two daughter cells. Apparently producing two cells from one is not much, but it should be taken into account that it is an exponential process. For instance, a mitotic cell will undergo 47 mitotic divisions to develop into an organism with 100 trillion cells (2^47=140 trillion).
We developed from a single-celled zygote to an organism with trillions of
cells through series of cell divisions known as Mitosis.
It will take about 47 mitotic cell divisions for one zygote to grow into an
organism with 100 trillion cells.
Mitosis is a type of cell division that is associated with growth and
replacement of tissues. It helps in the division of cells to enable them
become more specialized in functions and structure.
It will take about 47 mitotic cell divisions for one zygote to grow into an
organism with 100 trillion cells as the cells divides at a higher degree.
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In a resting state, sodium (Na^+) is at a higher concentration outside the cell and potassium (K^+) is more concentrated inside the cell. During an action potential, the sodium levels ________ inside the cell.
Multiple Choice:
A. decrease
B. increase
C. increase only if potassium levels remain the same
D. stay the same
Answer:
B - increases (deplolarization.)
Explanation:
the influx of sodium ion into the cell increases the positive charge of the axoplasm, cause charges reversal of the axon membrane and it is called depolarization.
Th influx of sodium ion is due combination of three factors
1, to the opening of voltage gated sodium channels,
2. increase in chemical gradient for sodium ions, and
3. high concentration of sodium ions outside compare to the axoplasm.
The combined effects of 2 and 3 above is called electrochemical gradients; and this pull sodium ions with the psotive charges through the voltage gated sodium channels into the axoplasm.
Few gated channels were open initially however as the intensity of the stimulus increases, more gated channels of sodium opens, with many Na+ diffused in.And if the voltage generated due to deoplarization is up to the threshold levels,Action potential occurs.
During an action potential, sodium (Na+) levels increase inside the cell due to the activity of the sodium-potassium pump in the cell membrane, which creates an electrochemical gradient. Option B
Explanation:During an action potential, sodium (Na+) levels increase inside the cell. This is due to the sodium-potassium pump in the cell membrane, which pumps three Na+ ions into the cell for every two K+ ions it pumps out.
This creates a short-term electrochemical gradient, with a higher concentration of Na+ ions inside the cell compared to outside. This change in concentration and the resulting electrical charge difference is what allows the signal to be transmitted down the neuron.
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A lab technician provides you with a bacterial pellet labeled "G3". When you observe the pellet under UV light, there is little to no fluorescence. Other than contamination, provide two scientific explanations for what might have happened to cause this outcome.
Final answer:
Little to no fluorescence in a bacterial pellet under UV light could be due to insufficient induction of GFP production or improper lysis of bacterial cells, both of which are crucial for fluorescent protein detection.
Explanation:
A student has asked why, when observing a bacterial pellet labeled "G3" under UV light, there is little to no fluorescence. Two scientific explanations for this observation, other than contamination, could be due to the properties of the fluorescent proteins involved or the experimental procedures used to visualize them.
First, it's possible that the bacterial culture labeled "G3" was not effectively induced to produce the green fluorescent protein (GFP) or that the induction was insufficient. GFP production in bacteria often requires specific conditions, such as the presence of an inducer like IPTG. If these conditions were not met, the bacteria would not produce GFP, resulting in little to no fluorescence under UV light.Second, the issue might stem from the bacterial cells not being lysed properly. The process of lysis is crucial for releasing GFP from the cells. If the lysis step was inefficient or not performed, the GFP would remain inside the cells, and thus, would not be detected during the examination under UV light.These explanations highlight the importance of precisely following the experimental protocols and understanding the biological mechanisms behind the fluorescent protein production and detection.
A. are buried in the interior of the helix B. provide the hydrogen bonds that form the helix C. are typically polar D. extend outward from the helix spiral E. are located in an alternating arrangement between the inside and the outside of the helix
Answer: D
Explanation: The side chain of amino acids is projected outward from the outer helical surface
The Calvin cycle produces a versatile chemical compound called ____________ , which can be converted to many carbohydrates, as well as fatty acids and amino acids. Compared to animal cells, both algal and plant cells have enormous ____________ capabilities.
The Calvin cycle produces Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P) that can be converted to other compounds such as carbohydrates, fatty acids, and amino acids. Algal and plant cells, compared to animal cells, have greater carbon fixation abilities due to their capacity to execute photosynthesis.
Explanation:The Calvin cycle produces a versatile chemical compound called Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate (G3P), which can be converted to many carbohydrates, as well as fatty acids and amino acids. The Calvin cycle harnesses energy in the form of ATP and NADPH to produce G3P. During this light-independent reaction of photosynthesis, carbon dioxide from the atmosphere is converted into carbohydrates using an enzyme called RuBisCO.
After three cycles, some G3P molecules leave the cycle to become part of a carbohydrate molecule, while the remaining G3P molecules stay in the cycle to be regenerated into RuBP, ready to react with more CO₂. Both algal and plant cells have enormous carbon fixation capabilities compared to animal cells due to their ability to perform photosynthesis, which forms an energy cycle with the process of cellular respiration. This allows plants to function in both light and dark conditions and to interconvert essential metabolites.
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. How might global warming alter the geographic distributions of species? Use the patterns discovered during your activity to support your argument. Specifically, how would animals that live at various latitudes respond?
Answer:
Global warming can be a serious threat to many of the wildlife plants and animals. On Earth, most plants and animals survive in particular habitats or ecosystems because the conditions there are the most favourable for them to live and reproduce. Global warming will cause the conditions to become unfavourable for such plants and animals. As a result, many of the wildlife species might become endangered or completely extinct form an area. The organisms living at various latitudes will be the most affected as they are used to live in extreme conditions.
Global warming can alter the geographic distributions of species as they move to a region of lower temperature.
Global warming refers to the long-term heating of the climate system of the Earth. It's the long-term shifts in temperatures and weather patterns.
It should be noted that global warming leads to temperature rises, water shortages, drought, increased fire threats, etc. Global warming can alter the geographic distributions of species as they move to a region of lower temperature. Also, some organisms might face extinction.
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If the pressure angle increases, the minimum number of teeth on a pinion to avoid interference increases true false
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The relation between the pressure angle and the number of teeth on a pinion is given by
[tex]T_n = \frac{2 A_w}{G[\sqrt{1+\frac{1}{G}(\frac{1}{G} +2 }) sin^2\alpha -1]}[/tex]
Here
[tex]T_n =[/tex] minimum number of teeth on a pinion to avoid interference
[tex]A_w =[/tex] Multiplication factor for standard addendum for the wheel
G represents the gear ratio. It is also known as the velocity ratio
[tex]sin \alpha =[/tex] Pressure angle or angle of obliquity
As we can see from this relation, that the pressure angle is inversely proportional to the number of teeth on a pinion. Thus, if the pressure angle is increased the number of teeth must decrease according to the relation represented above.
Hence, the given statement is false.
Below is a hypothesis about why male white-crowned sparrows sing dialects.
Is this hypothesis a genetic-developmental explanation, a physiological-psychological explanation, an adaptive value explanation, or one relating to evolutionary history?
The ability to sing the local dialect enables a bird to form bonds with others in the area so that they can adjust their total reproductive output, reducing the risk of local overpopulation.
Answer:
The answer is an adaptive value explanation.
Explanation:
Adaptive value is the effect that the behavior of an organism has on the reproductive fitness of the organism.
This can help offspring to cope with their new surrounding or condition.
It is a quantity that can be measured by contribution of an organism to the gene pool of their offspring. This measurement can be releasing of chemicals to avoid predators, sexual mimicry by some animals or trying to imitate so as mix with others.
Renew an external counter pulsation device, works almost like a second _____, pumping blood througout the body. According to Sir David Lane, it's important to get blood pumping because circulation not only bring nutriens to the body also (finish the sentence)
Answer:
heart, get rid of toxins/flush out toxins
Explanation:
Project Renew:
Project Renew is an ECP (external counter pulsation) brand developed by Innovations Ventures LLC which is owned by Manoj Bhargava, a businessman and philanthropist.External counter pulsation is a device that pumps blood from the legs to the core body while the heart rests. Therefore, this device acts like an auxiliary heart. It provides the heart a chance to rest, thus, reducing its work load.The idea behind project renew is not only to aid circulation but to ensure proper excretion of toxins from the blood. An auxiliary circulation system would ultimately lead to a better detoxification system.