Answer:
Following Statements are true.
1. Cells receive molecular signals that communicate their position in relation to other cells.
3. Differential gene expression affects the developmental process in animals.
4. Positional information controls pattern formation.
6. Homeotic genes code for transcription factors that control the development of segment-specific body parts.
Explanation:
The formation of an eukaryotic organisms's spatial organization which includes organ formation and tissue arrangement is called as Pattern formation.
Molecular signals are received by cell. This phenomenon collectively refereed as positional information. Through this phenomenon cells are informed about their locomotion with respect to body axes and other cells. Regulation of pattern formation is controlled by Positional information.
When body axes is established a gene called homeotic gene start working as regulatory genes. This gene identify specific body segment in an organism which results in the formation of segment-specific body structures in the correct locations on the body.
If a cell with 12 chromosomes undergoes mitosis, how many daughter cells result and what is the chromosome number in each daughter cell?
Answer:
The answer to your question is below
Explanation:
Mitosis is a kind of sexual reproduction where a mother cell gives rise to two identical cells in which the initial number of chromosomes maintains the same.
So in this question, the products will be 2 daughter cells in which each cell will have 12 chromosomes.
Which types of decisions are more prevalent at lower organizational levels? Group of answer choices Structured decisions Procedural decisions Unstructured decisions Semistructured decisions Operational decisions
Answer:
Option A, structured decisions
Explanation:
In lower level organizations, the processes are already in place to tackle with any situation and hence structured decisions can be easily taken. Since the problems in a lower organization recur again and again, therefore, processes and procedures need to be in place to handle them in an organized manner as a part of routine work. Every time such problem arises, it is to be treated in a definite manner instead of treating as new each time. For example – HR processes in a company are categorized as structured problem which require a structured decision.
Hence, option A is correct
Final answer:
Lower organizational levels primarily encounter operational decisions, which are routine and often programmed, enabling an automated response to common situations.
Explanation:
The type of decisions that are more prevalent at lower organizational levels are operational decisions. Operational decisions refer to choices made daily that help the organization run smoothly. These decisions often involve structured decision-making processes and can be considered as programmed decisions, because they occur frequently enough that employees develop automated responses. An example of this would be a server at a restaurant deciding whether a customer complaint legitimizes offering a free dessert based on a policy set by management. In contrast, strategic decisions, related to setting the organization's course, are made at higher organizational levels.
A specialization of the stomach that aids in grinding for animals that lack teeth is the ____.
a. esophagus
b. cloaca
c. gizzard
d. crop
e. rumen
Answer:
C. gizzrd
Explanation:
Final answer:
The correct answer is the gizzard (option c), which is a specialized stomach that grinds food in animals, such as birds, that do not have teeth for chewing.
Explanation:
The specialization of the stomach that aids in grinding for animals that lack teeth is the gizzard. Animals such as birds possess a gizzard that allows them to grind their food, as they do not have teeth to masticate. In the avian digestive system, food passes from the esophagus to a pouch called a crop, which stores food, then to the proventriculus where it is initially processed with digestive juices. The partially digested food next enters the gizzard, where it is ground into smaller pieces. Birds may also swallow stones or grit, which are stored in the gizzard to aid in the grinding process.
The largest unit within which gene flow can readily occur is a:__________
a) population.
b) species.
c) genus.
d) hybrid.
e) phylum.
Answer:
b) species
Explanation:
A species is a group of individuals that are able to interbreed among themselves. Their progeny is viable and fertile. Since the members of the same species are able to interbreed, gene flow occurs readily between them during the process of sexual reproduction. For example, plants of species Mangifera indica can pollinate each other. When male and female gametes of two plants of Mangifera indica fuse together to form a zygote, genes from these two plants come together in the zygote.
Describe the structural and functional differences between DNA and RNA. List and describe each of the three types of RNA. Define transcription. Describe the process. Where does it occur in the cell
Answer:
Structural functions:
The structural and functional difference between the DNA and RNA is that. The DNA is made of nitrogenous bases, deoxy ribose sugar and phosphate bond.The RNA is made of ribose sugar, nitrogenous bases and phosphate. The nitrogenous base thymine is replaced by uracil in case of RNA.The three different types of RNA are: tRNA , rRNA and mRNA. The transcription can be defined as the first step of the gene expression. It involves the copying the DNA of the gene to convert it into RNA.Transcription takes place in the nucleus of the cell.
The plates of the lithosphere move (or float) on this hot, malleable __________ _________ zone in the upper mantle, directly underneath the lithosphere. This is known as the _______________________.
Answer:
the plates of the lithosphere move (or float) on this hot, malleable semi liquid zone in the upper mantle, directly underneath the lithosphere
Explanation:
Lithosphere is the outermost layer of earth surface which contains crust and uppermost solid mantle. Tectonic plates are subdivision of lithosphere where tectonic activities take place. Tectonic activities often occur in Lithosphere which affects the structure of this layer by changing the landscape on earth surface. The Lithosphere is the layer where soil forming process takes place. The lithosphere influences temperature difference on earth when it reacts with the other layers called atmosphere, hydrosphere and cryosphere.The lithosphere plates move on the asthenosphere in the upper mantle, a process known as plate tectonics. The movement is facilitated by slow convection of the mantle. When plates come together, one plate is subducted beneath another, a process occurring in subduction zones.
Explanation:The plates of the lithosphere move (or float) on the hot, malleable asthenosphere zone in the upper mantle, directly underneath the lithosphere. This is known as plate tectonics.
Earth's crust and upper mantle are divided into about a dozen tectonic plates that fit together like the pieces of a jigsaw puzzle. The power to move the plates is provided by slow convection of the mantle, a process by which heat escapes from the interior through the upward flow of warmer material and the slow sinking of cooler material.
As new crust is added to Earth, the old crust must go somewhere. When two plates come together, one plate is often forced beneath another in what is called a subduction zone. The subducted plate is forced down into regions of high pressure and temperature, eventually melting several hundred kilometers below the surface. Its material is recycled into a downward-flowing convection current, ultimately balancing the flow of material that rises along rift zones.
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What protein (purine)-rich food should be limited to prevent a reoccurrence of uric acid kidney stones?
Answer:
Animal proteins such as egg, red meat, sea foods etc
Explanation:
Foods rich in animal proteins generally boost the level of uric acid in the body and make individuals to be more prone to uric acid kidney stones.
High protein level in the body as a result of high protein diets also increase the chances of uric kidney stones because this reduces the citrate level in the body. Citrate prevents the formation of stone by limiting the amount of uric acid in urine.
Hence, limiting the intake of animal protein-rich foods such as egg, red meat, etc., will prevent the reoccurrence of uric acid kidney stones.
"Explain what an enzyme cofactor is and discuss the types of molecules that can act as cofactors (prosthetic groups) and why these are particularly important as electron acceptors."
Answer:
A cofactor is a not proteic substance that is required to an enzyme activity. Cofactors can either be organic compunds, like vitamins, or inorganic compounds, like the metallic elements, iron, zinc, magnesium, cooper, among others. If the cofactor is removed from a complete enzyme (holoenzyme), the protein component (apoenzyme) no longer has catalytic activity.
In some enzymes the cofactors act for the substrate binding to the active site. In other, like dehydrogenases, which transfer electrons from the substrate to an electron carrier, the carrier used depends on the reaction taking place. Common electron acceptors used by this subclass are NAD+, FAD, and NADP+. Electron carriers are reduced in this process and considered oxidizers of the substrate. Electron carriers are coenzymes that are often referred to as redox cofactors.
Explanation:
_____ is used to detect neural tube defects such as spina bifida and certain chromosomal abnormalities.
Answer: Alpha Feroprotein Assay
Explanation:
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is used to detect neural tube defects in a developing child. Alpha fero-protein is produced in the liver of a developing fetus. During a baby's development, some AFP passes through the placenta and into the mother's blood. An AFP test measures the level of AFP in pregnant women during the second trimester of pregnancy. Too much or too little AFP in a mother's blood may be sign of a birth defect or other condition, which include, neural tube defect, a serious condition that causes abnormal development of a developing baby's brain and/or spine
In a healthy female, how many secondary oocytes would be expected to form from 100 primary oocytes?b) How many first polar bodies would be expected from 100 primary oocytes?
Answer:100; 100
Explanation: OOCYTES are immature eggs produced form the female reproductive organ during gametogenesis. During Gametogenesis the Germ cell of a female produces the oogonia the oogonia matures to primary OOCYTES through Mitosis.
In the female reproductive organ 100 secondary oocytes will be expected to produce 100 primary oocytes while 100 primary oocytes will be needed to produce 100 polar bodies.
Polar bodies are haploid cells which are formed together with the oocytes during Oogenesis.
You are watching a televised debate on evolution. One of the participants repeatedly states that evolution is a "scientific theory," and as such is unsupported by any evidence. What is wrong with this statement?
Answer:
Answer : Scientific theories are rigorously supported by numerous studies, and are hypotheses that, even up till date, have never been disproved.
Explanation:
Scientific theory can be explained as a theory that was highly supported by facts. This means that , it is continuously or repeatedly confirmed by observation and experiment by scientists.
Evolution can be described as changes that occur in the heritable characters over a period of time. This usually occurs through natural selection.
In this case, evolution is known to be a scientific theory, because it involved careful observations and confirming experiments by scientists.
The statement that evolution is an unsupported 'scientific theory' is incorrect, as in science, a theory is a robust explanation backed by substantial evidence. The theory of evolution, in particular, is supported by extensive research and is widely accepted by scientists. Critics often misunderstand the term 'theory' in a scientific context, leading to misconceptions about the supporting evidence for evolution.
Explanation:The statement that evolution is a "scientific theory" and is unsupported by any evidence is an incorrect assertion. The confusion arises from the difference between the common use of the term "theory" and its scientific meaning. In science, a theory is a well-substantiated explanation of some aspect of the natural world that has been repeatedly confirmed through observation and experimentation. The theory of evolution is similarly supported by a vast body of evidence from various fields such as genetics, paleontology, and comparative anatomy, making it one of the most reliable and accepted explanations in science.
Furthermore, the concept of evolution is well-founded and upheld by the scientific community. A Pew Research poll showed that 97% of scientists agree with the principle of species evolving over time. It's incorrect to suggest that the theory is still controversial among biologists, as it has robust experimental and observational evidence.
When critics of evolution dismiss it as "just a theory," they are misusing the term and neglecting the large amount of evidence that supports it—evidence that encompasses fossil records, DNA sequence comparisons, and the observation of natural selection in action. Such critiques often stem from a misunderstanding of scientific language and do not reflect the consensus within the scientific community.
What kind of animals are best suited to life in a desert? A. Animals that estimate during hot weather B. Animals that nest in tall trees C. Animals that hibernate during winter D. Animals that have thick layer of blubber or fur
Some animals have evolved salt glands, a physical adaption that permits salt to be secreted without causing water loss. Other morphological modifications achieved by desert animals include the absence of sweat glands and the concentration of urine. Thus, option A is correct.
What animals are best suited to life in a desert?All organisms must be able to change with their environment in order to live.This entails adapting in order to survive the ecosystem's climatic conditions, predators, and other species that compete with them for resources like food and habitat.
Evaporative cooling is the main strategy for bringing a hot bird or mammal down. A surface cools when water vapour escapes from it.
Animals like camels, rats, and snakes that can handle arid climates and lengthy periods without water.
Therefore, Animals that estimate during hot weather.
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The theory that organisms can arise from inanimate matter is called Choose one: A. spontaneous generation. B. endosymbiosis. C. fermentation. D. germ theory.
Answer:
A. Spontaneous Generation
Final answer:
a) Spontaneous generation is the outdated theory that living organisms can arise from non-living matter, which has been replaced by the theories of biogenesis and Cell Theory, affirming that life comes from pre-existing life.
Explanation:
The theory that organisms can arise from inanimate matter is called a) spontaneous generation. This theory, which dates back to ancient Greeks like Aristotle, suggested that living organisms could spontaneously emerge from non-living materials. Flies were thought to arise from rotting flesh, and mice from wheat. However, this theory was disproved by experiments that proved living organisms come from other living organisms, a concept known as biogenesis. The Cell Theory, which is widely accepted today, states that all cells come from pre-existing cells, thus supporting biogenesis over spontaneous generation.
GTPases serve in many signal transduction pathways and the presence of GTP or GDP dictates where the pathway is on or off, respectively. Which of the following statements is true regarding guanine nucleotide exchange factors (GEF) and the role in these signaling pathways?
a. They hydrolyze GTP into GDP and Pi.
b. They decrease the GTPase activity of the G-protein.
c. They catalyze the dissociation of GDP on the G-protein and promote the replacement of GTP.
d. none of the above
Answer:
None of the above.
Explanation:
GTPases are the regulatory proteins that are involved in the signal transduction pathway involving the activation of the G protein. The mutation in these proteins cal lead to cancer cells.
The guanine nucleotide exchange factors (GEF) allows the replacement of GDP by GTP. They activates the GTPase activity of the cell and can also activate the multiple GTPase activity of the cell. The Ras superfamily is activated by the GEF.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
gas exchange in cells is an example of
a.) infusion
b.)diffusion
c.)mitosis
Answer:
b.) diffusion
Explanation:
Gas exchange is occur through the diffusion across the surface.
Diffusion:
It is a process in which gas exchange is occur through the concentration gradient. Gas molecules are moves from region of high concentration to the region of lower concentration.
Example:
In blood the concentration of oxygen is low and carbon dioxide is high while the air in lungs is high in oxygen concentration and low in carbon dioxide concentration. This concentration gradient leads to the exchange of gases in respiration. During respiration oxygen gas is intake while carbon dioxide is released.
All of the cells in the human body contain the same genes. How do cells have different morphologies and functions when they contain the same genetic information?
The cell walls of bacteria, fungi, and plant cells and the extracellular matrix of animal cells are all external to the plasma membrane. Which of the following is a characteristic common to all of these extracellular structures?
A) They must block water and small molecules in order to regulate the exchange of matter and energy with their environment.
B) They must permit information transfer between the cell's cytoplasm and the nucleus.
C) They must provide a rigid structure that maintains an appropriate ratio of cell surface area to volume.
D) They are constructed of polymers that are synthesized in the cytoplasm and then transported out of the cell.
E) They are composed of a mixture of lipids and carbohydrates.
Answer:
D) They are constructed of polymers that are synthesized in the cytoplasm and then transported out of the cell.
Explanation:
Proteins, complex carbohydrates, lipids are important polymer components of the cell wall of bacteria, fungi, and extracellular matrix of animal cells. These all structures are located outside the plasma membrane but the raw material required to make these structures are synthesized inside the cell in the cytoplasm and exported outside the cell membrane by transporters.
Therefore cell walls of different organisms and extracellular matrix of animal cells are constructed of polymers that are produced in cytoplasm and are transported outside the membrane.
Adipose tissue _____.
a. provides elastic support and serves as a fluid reservoir
b. is connective tissue that stores fat and has insulating value
c. attaches muscles to bone
d. is formed within bone
e. represents a circulatory fluid
Answer:
b. is connective tissue that stores fat and has insulating value
When selecting among multiple possible phylogenetic trees that fit our data, we commonly use the principle of _____, which means we choose the _____ possible hypothesis. In phylogenetic analysis, that means selecting the tree that represents the _____ evolutionary changes or mutations.
a. parsimony; simplest; fewest
b. parsimony; simplest; most
c. parsimony; most; likely
d. phylogenetics; simplest; fewest
e. phylogenetics; simplest; most
a. parsimony; simplest; fewest
When selecting among multiple possible phylogenetic trees that fit our data, we commonly use the principle of parsimony, which means we choose the simplest possible hypothesis. In phylogenetic analysis, that means selecting the tree that represents the fewest evolutionary changes or mutations.
Explanation:
Phylogeny describes the evolutionary history of on organism or group of organisms.
A phylogenetic tree structure is used to describe the relationship between various organisms which have originated from common ancestors.
The Principle of Parsimony is best applied while constructing phylogenetic tree.
This principle emphasizes on simple observations on a phylogeny which requires only few changes or variations which explain for the difference between the phylogenic sequences.
This tree structure will only have few specific genetic variations or mutations or evolutionary changes which took place through new appearance of a trait or disappearance of an existing trait.
Final answer:
In phylogenetic analysis, the principle of maximum parsimony is used to choose the simplest hypothesis, which is the tree with the fewest evolutionary changes. parsimony; simplest; fewest is correct. This approach assumes evolutionary events occurred most straightforwardly. So the correct option is a.
Explanation:
When selecting from multiple possible phylogenetic trees that fit our data, the principle commonly used is maximum parsimony. This means we choose the simplest possible hypothesis. In phylogenetic analysis, this translates to selecting the tree that represents the fewest evolutionary changes or mutations. Therefore, the correct answer is a. parsimony; simplest; fewest.
Maximum parsimony is a concept used by scientists to construct phylogenetic trees in a way that the evolutionary events are assumed to have occurred in the most straightforward manner possible. This often results in a phylogenetic tree that exhibits the fewest number of character reversals, independent character changes, and overall character changes.
A client is injured from falling from a hospital bed on which the side rails were not raised appropriately. the client's family files a malpractice suit against the nurse responsible for taking care of the client. which statements regarding the lawsuit are accurate
Answer:
The defendant receives all medical files of the complainant during the discovery period.
The jury employs certain care standards to decide if the nurse has acted correctly.
The plaintiff describes the defendant's mistakes as well as how the pleadings had been injured.
Peter has occasional episodes of seizures. Dr. Lovell has affixed electrodes to Peter's scalp, which will record the electrical activity within Peter's brain and identify the neurological problem for the seizures. Which of the following techniques is Dr. Lovell using to assess Peter?a. Positron emission tomography b. Electrocardiography c. Functional magnetic resonance imaging d. Electroencephalography
Answer:
D) Electroencephalography
Explanation:
A seizure refers to a change in the behaviour and physical activities of the humans caused by the uncontrolled abnormal activities in the neurons of the brain.
The technique used to record the visual activity in the neurons as a result of the seizures is called Electroencephalography or EEG.
To perform the technique, the electrodes are placed on the scalp and the face and then the change in the electric potential is recorded. This helps analyse that which area of the brain are active and which are not.
Thus, Option-D is the correct answer.
The "distance" between two linked gene pairs can be expressed as a percentage. Name the unit based on percent recombination that was created in honour of the scientist who pioneered the use of fruit flies for genetic research?
Answer:
Centimorgan
Explanation:
Centimorgan is a unit that measures the recombinant frequency. When we say that recombinant frequency is 1 then it means that there is 1% chance of separation of marker between two genetic locus when a cross is carried out in the single generation. This unit was devised as a token of remembrance for geneticist Thomas Hunt Morgan who was also a noble prize winner.
There are one million base pairs in one centimorgan
Final answer:
A centimorgan (cM) is the unit of genetic distance that reflects the percent recombination between two genes, named in honor of Thomas Hunt Morgan for his contributions to genetic research using fruit flies.
Explanation:
The unit based on percent recombination that was created to honor the scientist who pioneered the use of fruit flies for genetic research is called a centimorgan (cM). This unit reflects the genetic distance between two genes based on their recombination frequency. A centimorgan corresponds to a 1% chance that a crossing over event will occur between two alleles during meiosis. Therefore, if two genes exhibit a recombination frequency of 1%, they are said to be 1 cM apart on a chromosome. This unit was named after Thomas Hunt Morgan, the scientist who conducted extensive research using fruit flies. Genetic maps constructed using centimorgans show the relative positions of genes on a chromosome.
"Afrofuturism in entertainment, art, and style does not offer younger generations a mirror where they can see themselves in expansive environments: science, technology, and in social/gender roles."A. TrueB. False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Since its start in 1993, Afro-futurism offers a wide array of expressions by connecting the the existing traumatic mentality surrounded by astro blackness consciousness to the varied possibilities with in the world. It connect the emerging black identity with the techno cultural advancement around the world imbibing several changing parameters such as digital networks, software platforms, human technologies, algorithms, migration etc. It aims to provide a lens through which black and African culture can see the possible futures and realities.
Hence, the given statement is false
TFIIF has weak homology to bacterial sigma factor and is necessary to bring eukaryotic pol II to the pre-initiation complex. The effect TFIIF has on the binding of pol II to general DNA sequences is:_______.
Answer:
The effect TFIIF has on the binding of pol II to general DNA sequences is it increases the affinity of the factors for DNA , increases the number of protein-DNA contacts and changes the recognition binding site.
In humans, random mating is most likely to occur for which of the following characteristics? Select one:B. personality C. physical appearance D. intelligence E. athleticism
Intelligence is most likely to be the criteria for random mating in humans.
Explanation:
If random mating is taking place on the conditions that no evolution is taking place the genetic pool will be maintained through generations.
Random mating will be based on intelligence in humans because this is the trait which gets exhibited only when showcased otherwise remains hidden while other characters like personality, appearance and athleticism are phenotypically expressed character.
Random mating is not under the influence of genotype. Intelligence is a trait which needs to be more in human as random mating takes genotype frequency in consideration.
In snail shells the direction of shell coiling is controlled by a maternal effect gene. Two alleles, a dominant one, D, causes dextral (right handed) coiling, and a recessive one, d, causing sinistral (left hand) coiling.
Given three different female snails of genotypes DD, Dd, and dd, crossed with dd males.
What are the phenotypes of the offspring of each
DD females:
Dd females:
dd females:
What are the phenotypes of these females. Explain, based on the probable parental (both maternal and paternal for each female. (Hint: you may not be able to give definitive answers for each. If so explain why in terms of the possible parents.)
DD female:
Dd female:
dd female:
Answer:
The answer is explained below:
Explanation:
A maternal effect gene is the one which shows the same phenotype as that of the mother irrespective of the phenotype of the father.According to the question, D is the dominant alelle, and show right-handed coil phenotype.d is the recessive alelle, and show left-handed coil phenotype.As we do not know the phenotypes of the mothers of the DD, Dd, or dd females or the dd male taken to be crossed with each other, let us consider that the DD, Dd and dd female show a right hand coil phenotype and the dd male show a left hand coil phenotype.When DD female (right hand coil phenotype) is crossed with dd males (left hand coil phenotype),D D
d Dd Dd
(R) (R)
d Dd Dd
(R) (R)
All the offspring will have the Dd genotype with the (R), that is, right-hand coil phenotype.When Dd female (right hand coil phenotype) is crossed with dd males (left hand coil phenotype),D d
d Dd dd
(R) (R)
d Dd dd
(R) (R)
The genotypic ratio is, Dd : dd = 1 : 1.All the offspring have the dominant right hand coil phenotype, represented by (R), as this is a maternal effect gene and the phenotype of the mother is shown in all its offspring irrespective of their genotype.When dd female (right hand coil phenotype) is crossed with dd males (left hand coil phenotype),d d
d dd dd
(R) (R)
d dd dd
(R) (R)
All the offspring will have the dd genotype.All the offspring have the dominant right hand coil phenotype, represented by (R), as this is a maternal effect gene and the phenotype of the mother is shown in all its offspring irrespective of their genotype.Offspring phenotype is determined by the female snail's genotype due to the maternal effect gene; DD and Dd females produce dextral-coiled offspring, while dd females produce sinistral-coiled offspring when crossed with dd males.
In snail shells, the coiling direction is influenced by a maternal effect gene with two alleles: a dominant allele D for dextral (right-handed) coiling and a recessive allele d for sinistral (left-handed) coiling. Since it's a maternal effect gene, the offspring's phenotype will be determined by the mother's genotype regardless of the offspring's genotype. When different female snails are crossed with dd males, the offspring’s phenotypes depend solely on the maternal genotype.
DD females: All offspring will show dextral coiling, because the dominant allele D from the mother determines the phenotype.
Dd females: All offspring will also show dextral coiling, similar to DD mothers, since D is dominant and dictates the phenotype over d.
dd females: All offspring will show sinistral coiling, because the mother's genotype is homozygous recessive.
Regarding the phenotypes of the females themselves:
DD female: Dextral coiling phenotype, but without knowing her parents' genotypes, we can't say for certain if she is a product of DD x DD, DD x Dd, or DD x dd (with a homozygous dominant mother).
Dd female: Dextral coiling phenotype, which could result from a cross of Dd x dd or Dd x Dd, with at least one dextral parent.
dd female: Sinistral coiling phenotype, clearly indicating a dd x dd parental cross.
Therefore, the offspring's phenotype will be dextral when crossing DD or Dd females with dd males, and sinistral when crossing dd females with dd males.
Hair color is determined in Labrador retrievers by alleles at the B and E loci. A dominant allele B encodes black pigment, whereas a recessive allele b encodes brown pigment. Alleles at a second locus affect the deposition of the pigment in the shaft of the hair; dominant allele E allows dark pigment (black or brown) to be deposited, whereas recessive allele e prevents the deposition of dark pigment, causing the hair to be yellow. A black female Labrador retriever was mated with a yellow male. Half of the puppies were black and half were yellow. If the genotype of the black female parent was Bb Ee, then what was the genotype of the other parent?
a) bb EE
b) BB EE
c) Bb ee
d) BB ee
e) bb ee
Answer:
D) BB ee
Explanation:
As the black pigment is encoded by the allele B.
Brown pigment is encoded by allelle b.
Allele E allows dark pigment to be deposited in the shaft.
Allele e prevents the deposition of pigment in the shaft.
As genotype of the black female is Bb Ee , that means she has a dominant black pigment ( due to presence of allelle B )and is deposited in the shaft (due to allelle E ).
The genotype of the other parent must be BB ee in order to have half of the puppies yellow and the other half being yellow.
All the other options doesn't form the sequence of 50% black and 50% yellow puppies.
The table of probabilities is attached below .
The approach that reflects the philosophy that there is waste in neglecting the development and use of certain natural resources (such as dead trees in old growth forests) would best be described as _________.
Answer:
utilitarian conservation or Pragmatic resource conservation
Explanation:
As per the utilitarian conservation or Pragmatic resource conservation, the resources must be utilized to their full capacity up to the possible longest period of time for the greatest good of all.
Therefore, even if the leaves become dead they can be used one more time for preparing compost of fertilizer thereby putting it to greatest use till its greatest number of times.
The Golgi complex functions to synthesize proteins. both modify and sort proteins into those destined for secretion and those that function in membrane structures. sort proteins used within the cell. modify and secrete proteins to the external environment.
Answer:
both modify and sort proteins into those destined for secretion and those that function in membrane structures.
Explanation:
The Golgi apparatus is a single membrane-bound organelle that has a 5-8 flattened sac. Golgi is divided into two faces cis face which is known as entry face and trans face which is known as a maturing face.
The function of the Golgi apparatus is the sorting and modification of proteins and lipids. The modified proteins are packed into vesicles and released in the cytoplasm.
Form cytoplasm they move to their destination for example they can be corporated into the plasma membrane or can be secreted out of the cell.
An examiner who discovers unequal movement or uneven gluteal skinfolds during the Ortolani maneuver does what?
Answer:
B. alerts the physician that the infant has a dislocated hip.
Explanation:
An examiner who discovers unequal movement or uneven gluteal skinfolds during the Ortolani maneuver would alert the physician that the infant has a dislocated hip. This can be said because the Ortolani maneuver is a technique that is used in order to check hip integrity, and if unequal movement is detected during this technique it suggests that the hip is dislocated.
The Ortolani maneuver is used to detect hip dislocation or dysplasia in infants. If unequal movement or uneven gluteal skinfolds are found, the examiner performs certain movements to assess the state of the hip and may recommend further diagnosis.
Explanation:The Ortolani maneuver is an examination technique in the field of
medicine
that is utilized to detect hip dislocation or congenital hip dysplasia in infants. If during the Ortolani maneuver, the examiner discovers unequal movement or uneven gluteal skinfolds, it can be a sign of a dislocated hip. In such a scenario, the examiner moves the back of the lower legs up and back toward the buttocks, as if ((the infant)) is kneeling. The maneuver involves assisting in moving the infant's thigh diagonally upward and outward. The examiner might also move the thigh down and back, or twist the thigh and the lower leg inward. Upon detecting this abnormality, the examiner will likely recommend further diagnostic procedures to confirm the diagnosis and propose suitable treatment options.
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