Answer:The format of soap used for this treatment is the Plan method.
Explanation:Plan format I the type of Soap where the health care provider where medication ,drugs or surgery is being prescribed.This involves where the patients illness is combacted with medical prescription.
When Mitchell Gold, co-founder and President of Design of the Mitchell Gold + Bob Williams company, indicates that everybody has something to contribute and begins to tell the story about the employee with a hearing aid who wouldn’t wear it, he confirms that the Mitchell Gold + Bob Williams company embraces a diverse workforce because:
Answer:
Yes, Mitchell Gold + Bob Williams company embraces a diverse workforce.
Explanation:
According to Mitchell Gold there should be diversity in an organization and it solely depends on how people are treated in a company. If all are treated equal and judged only on the basis of how well they perform in their jobs, an organization will be a better place to work in. Both Mitchell Gold and Bob Williams decided that they would make their company a great place to work.
They said that each kind of person would be treated as equal and they would feel comfortable in the company. Also, one should treat someone just as they want to be treated.
If an employee with a hearing aid who wouldn't wear it, delivers his performance brilliantly, he is welcomed the same way as the other employee who can hear properly because he is good at his work. Thus, they embrace a diverse workforce.
Mitchell Gold's story about the employee with a hearing aid reaffirms his company’s commitment to a diverse workforce. It highlights the recognition of distinct attributes each employee brings to the company, reinforcing an inclusive work environment.
Explanation:When Mitchell Gold, co-founder and President of the Mitchell Gold + Bob Williams company, shares the story of an employee who is hard of hearing, it underscores his belief that diversity in the workforce is crucial. This story highlights the company's commitment to inclusiveness, recognizing that each employee, regardless of their personal circumstances, brings unique strengths and abilities to the organization. By encouraging the employee to use their hearing aid, the company demonstrated understanding and support for their individual needs, illustrating a diverse workforce and a welcoming environment for all. Hence, this episode reaffirms the company’s commitment to diversity.
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The Sahel is located close to the Sahara but travel is easier and the climate is not as hot. Why would the location of the Sahel encourage the development of trade routes?
The Sahel's advantageous geographical position, its semi-arid, more temperate climate, presence of resources, and ability to support settlements and agriculture made it a crucial link for the development of trade routes connecting Africa with other civilizations.
Explanation:The Sahel, located just south of the Sahara desert, played a critical role in establishing trade routes because of its more hospitable climate and the presence of many resources. The Sahel's semi-arid conditions and abundance of pasturage and forage plant for livestock made it a viable area for settlements and trade. Because of its location it served as an important transition zone for traders moving goods between the harsh Sahara desert and other parts of Africa, the Middle East, and Europe.
This was further facilitated due to the existence of numerous established urban centers like Awdaghost and Sijilmasa in the Sahel, which became strategic hubs for commercial activity. These cities played a pivotal part in the trans-Saharan trade routes that connected diverse markets and facilitated the bulk exchange of goods and cultural influences between different civilizations.
Moreover, the Sahel's climate allowed for the practice of agriculture, supporting growth of different crops and rearing of livestock such as camels, sheep, and goats, which not only provided sustenance for the resident population, but also important commodities for trade. Thus, the Sahel's geographical position, climate, and ability to sustain both human and animal life have greatly encouraged the development of trade routes in the region.
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Diane is part of a recently restructured team. Diane previously held a supervisory role in a different division; however, due to a company merger, she is now a new member of a team with no formal hierarchy. In meetings, Diane is often distracted by the fact that she is no longer leading the team, and she doesn’t think her new coworkers really "get the big picture." Diane finds herself just waiting for breaks in the conversation to make her points and ideas heard. When others are talking, she is often bored and inattentive, thinking about other tasks she needs to accomplish. Identify listening barriers.
Answer:
The listening barriers in the described process of communication are thought speed barriers and psychological barriers.
Explanation:
When the information being fed is too fast for the brain to process and respond to, the barrier that occurs in the communication process can be referred to as the 'thought speed barrier'. When there are other thoughts going on in the brain and it is unable to concentrate on some crucial information being fed, the barrier that is existent is a 'psychological barrier'.For the past six months, Dahlia’s job has been extremely stressful, but she doesn’t feel that she can quit because she needs the money for tuition. Dahlia has been having chronic headaches and is behind in all of her classes. According to Hans Selye, Dahlia is in the ______ stage of the general adaptation syndrome.
a. collapse
b. alarm
c. exhaustion
d. resistance
Answer:
c. exhaustion
Explanation:
Hans Selye has explained the three distinct stages involved in the GAS or general adaptation syndrome that is responsible for the body to deal with different stressors.
Exhaustion stage: This is considered as the third and the last stage in the GAS because an individual's energy resources are being depleted in this stage through continuous trying to reach the former alarm reaction stage yet failing. If an individual's body reaches to the exhaustion stage then his or her body is not capable of fighting the stress and therefore feels tiredness.
Farrah tells her friend that while dreaming that she was flying an airplane she became aware that it was a dream and started guiding the dream by having the airplane fly upside down. This example illustrates _____.
Answer:
Lucid dreaming
Explanation:
Farrah tells her friend that while dreaming that she was flying an airplane she became aware that it was a dream and started guiding the dream by having the airplane fly upside down. This example illustrates lucid dreaming.
Lucid dreaming is psychological phenomenon in which the dreamer becomes aware of the dream he is dreaming and is able to rear the dream in whichever direction he pleases. It is a state where the person is asleep but also aware of his dream.
Farrah's experience of becoming aware she is dreaming and controlling her dream to fly an airplane upside down is an example of lucid dreaming.
The example where Farrah becomes aware that she is dreaming and starts guiding her dream by having the airplane fly upside down illustrates lucid dreaming. Lucid dreaming refers to a conscious realization during a dream that one is dreaming, which may include the ability to control the content and progression of the dream. Farrah's experience matches the description of a lucid dream, as she not only becomes aware that she is dreaming but also takes control of the dream narrative by choosing to fly the airplane in an unconventional manner.
The findings of a study conducted by a group of researchers prove that with the increase in the consumption of marijuana, the vulnerability of developing mental disorders increases. This is an example of the ________ kind of correlation.
Answer:
This is an example of the POSITIVE kind of correlation.
Answer:
Positive
Explanation:
In research, a positive correlation between two variables exists when both of them move in the same direction. In other words, if one of them decreases, the other one decreases too; also if one of them increases, the other one increases too.
In this example, a study proves that the increase in the consumption of marijuana increases the vulnerability of developing mental disorders. We can see that when the consumption of marijuana increases increases, the probability of developing mental disorders increases too. Since this two variables move in the same direction, this is an example of the positive kind of correlation.
Dr. Jiminez conducts tests the hypothesis that people will eat more chips in a room with red walls than in a room with blue walls. Her results support her hypothesis; participants in the red room ate, on average, 1.3 times more chips than those in the blue room. Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding her findings?
a. She has proven that red walls increase chip consumption
b. She has proven her hypothesis, but only if she replicates these results in an additional study
c. She can say that she has proven her hypothesis, but only if she can prove that her sample was randomly assigned
d. She has provided some evidence for her hypothesis, but the probability that her evidence is consistent with reality depends on the nature of her sample and method
Answer:
d. She has provided some evidence for her hypothesis, but the probability that her evidence is consistent with reality depends on the nature of her sample and method
Explanation:
Hypothesis testing is a very important phase of statistical inference . It is a procedure which enables us to decide on the basis of information obtained from sample data whether to accept or reject a statement or an assumption about the value of a population parameter. Such a statement or assumption which may or may not be true is called a statistical hypothesis. We accept the hypothesis as being true when it is supported by sample data . We reject the hypothesis when the sample data fail to support it.
At 8 weeks of age, Yovani seems unresponsive to a rattle and fails to track a toy moved in front of his face. In the next few months, he will demonstrate rapid increases in his ability to coordinate his responses to what he touches, sees, smells, tastes, and hears. To what can this rapid change in his abilities be attributed?
The rapid change in Yovani's abilities is related to child development.
How can we explain child development?Child development refers to optimizing children's physical and cognitive abilities as they age.Many scientists have created explanations for the understanding of this development, Piaget being one of the most famous and accepted.According to Piaget's explanation, we can say that Yovani is in the Sensorimotor stage of child development. At this stage, children begin to have a better perception of objects in front of them, smells, images, tastes, and sounds, like Yovani. This stage occurs from birth to two years of age.
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The rapid change in Yovani's abilities can be attributed to his development through the sensorimotor stage of cognitive development.
Explanation:The rapid change in Yovani's abilities can be attributed to his development through the sensorimotor stage of cognitive development. This stage, which lasts from birth to about 2 years old, is characterized by learning about the world through senses and motor behavior. During this stage, young infants explore objects through their senses, such as putting objects in their mouths, and develop an understanding of object permanence. Yovani's unresponsiveness to the rattle and failure to track a toy indicate that he is still in the early stages of this development. Over the next few months, he will demonstrate rapid increases in his ability to coordinate his responses to what he touches, sees, smells, tastes, and hears as he progresses through this stage.
True or False? Although the federal and state court systems have critically distinctive authority, they are not very different structurally.
Although the federal and state court systems have critically distinctive authority, they are not very different structurally - true
Explanation:The disputes that are associated with the foreign citizens or the citizens from different states are dealt with federal courts. These concentrates on those cases with the laws concerned with the state legislature or local authorities. State courts handles wide variety and number of cases that federal courts and they have close contact with the public.
Although these two court systems have distinctive authorities they have unique and similar structures. The main difference that lies between these two court system is that state courts deals with the cases associated with the citizens of the corresponding states whereas the federal courts deals with the cases associated with the citizens of different states.
Bad news should be given in the topic sentence or at the end of the paragraph; it is misleading to bury bad news in the middle. True False
Answer:
false
Explanation:
Bad news may be given at the beginning, the middle, or at the end of a paragraph or write-up. When the bad news is given at the middle, the following is advised:
-Begin with a neutral sentence
-Bury the refusal/bad news but
state it clearly. Avoid negative
language.
-Use a set-off list.
-Provide a factual explanation.
-Offer an alternative proposal.
-Focus on what you CAN do for the
reader.
Joan is on trial for first-degree murder. It is a jury trial in which she is pleading not guilty. Presently, the plaintiff's attorney is asking questions of the witnesses on the plaintiff's list. This is known as _____.
Answer:
Direct examination
Explanation:
Direct examination - it is considered to be a process of presenting proof of evidence from a witness in a court. In this process, the witness is questioned by the other party. The main motive behind the direct questing is to draw the evidence in the support of defense and testify the witness in support of evidence.
it is different from cross question in such a way that in cross question direct and specified questions are asked.
When writing a request, you should use the __________ of your message to explain or justify the request. A. body B. opening C. appendix D. introduction E. courteous close
Answer:
A. Body
Explanation:
When opening the message, one should present the request. Then, in the body of said message, one has to give appropriate reasons to justify the request one has asked. It is really important to first present the request in a simplified way and then proceed to explain each reason so that the request is correctly justified.
Answer:A
Explanation:
Body of the text to justify the message
Suppose that an economy originally has a bowed outward production possibilities frontier (PPF) for military goods and civilian goods. An improvement in technology that allows only more military goods to be produced, but not more civilian goods, would cause ________.a. fewer military goods will be produced
b. more civilian goods will be produced
c. the opportunity cost of producing military goods will rise
d. there will be productive inefficiency in the economy
e. the production possibilities frontier will pivot outward around the axis for military goods
Answer:
e. the production possibilities frontier will pivot outward around the axis for military goods.
Explanation:
An improvement in technology that allows only more military goods to be produced, but not more civilian goods, would cause the production possibilities frontier will pivot outward around the axis for military goods.
A niche specialist is ________. Group of answer choices more likely to thrive in human-modified environments than a niche generalist more likely to adapt to climate change than a niche generalist more likely to have a large geographic distribution than a niche generalist more likely to go extinct than a niche generalist
Answer:
more likely to go extinct than a niche generalist
Explanation:
A generalist species are capable to strive or live in a large variety of the environmental conditions or factors and is also able to make use of different varieties of resources.
Whereas specialist species can survive only in a small range of certain environmental conditions and is accustomed to a particular way of survival.
Thus a niche specialist is more prone to extinction than a niche generalist.
A niche specialist is more likely to go extinct than a niche generalist due to its high specificity to certain environmental conditions, as opposed to a niche generalist's ability to live in a wide range of environments.
Explanation:A niche specialist is an organism that is highly adapted to thrive in a specific set of environmental conditions, often possessing unique traits that allow it to exploit a particular resource in a habitat. However, these traits can limit its ability to adapt to changes, making it more vulnerable to environmental fluctuations and consequently, more likely to go extinct than a niche generalist. Unlike a specialist, a niche generalist can live in a variety of environments, demonstrating greater adaptability to changes, whether it is in climate or human-modified environments. Therefore, niche generalists tend to have a larger geographic distribution than niche specialists.
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An infant who was born prematurely has been discharged to home. When discussing sleep positions, which condition would warrant avoidance of placing the infant on their back to sleep?
Answer:
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Explanation:
Gastroesophageal reflux disease -
It refers to the situation , where the acid from the stomach rises up to the esophagus , which can lead to several complication ,is referred to as Gastroesophageal reflux disease .
It is also known as acid reflux .
The symptoms includes , bad breath , chest pain , breathing issues , heartburn , acid in mouth .
Hence , in most cases it is advised to not top sleep on the back .
Hence , from the given scenario of the question ,
The baby us suffering from , Gastroesophageal reflux disease .
A central element of John Calvin’s theology was his belief in Group of answer choices 1. infant baptism.2. salvation through good works. 3. predestination. 4. the basic truth of all religions. 5. papal infallibility.
Answer:
3. Predestination.
Explanation:
John Calvin was a Christian theologian from Geneva who was famous especially during the Protestant Reformation. He was believed to have a major impact on the modern perspective of the protestant belief.
Predestination is the belief that everything had already been predestined, meaning planned out by God. It propagates that the human free will has no control over the predestined act of God, thereby making man's plans futile over anything. John Calvin also thought and even seemed to propagate through his Calvinistic beliefs that those that were saved by God will eventually be saved, whether they do sinful things or not.
John Calvin's theology is fundamentally based on the doctrine of predestination, highlighting the predetermined salvation or dam-nation of souls, where faithful lives were led in search of signs of being among the elect.
Explanation:A central element of John Calvin's theology was his belief in predestination. This doctrine stipulates that God has foreordained every event throughout eternity, including the salvation or dam-nation of every soul. Calvin asserted that since God is all-powerful and all-knowing, human actions could not influence divine will. Consequently, the fate of each individual's soul is predetermined by God's grace rather than any human effort or merit. Followers of Calvin, recognizing their inability to alter their predestined salvation, looked for signs in their lives that perhaps indicated they were among the elect, or 'chosen' ones. They led moral lives, abiding by a strict ethical code that shunned activities such as dancing and public drun-kenness, in the hope of demonstrating they were favored by God.
Kidcomp, an American computer-manufacturing firm, targets children below the age of ten by providing free games and applications. The firm's marketing approach is reflective of ________ segmentation.
Answer: Age and life cycle
Explanation:
The age and the life cycle segmentation strategy is one of the type of product marketing strategy that is specially grouped into the different segments in an organization.
According to the given question, the Kid-comp is one of the american computer manufacturing company and this company basically targeting the children of age group ten as they provide the various types of application and free games.
Therefore, The company's marketing approach is one of the reflective age and the life cycle segmentation.
Your client has been experiencing problems with his aging in-house infrastructure, and is extremely concerned about managing the cost of maintaining his online presence. After deciding that the cost of developing a sound DR plan more than makes up for the negative impact of being off-line, the board has directed you to prepare a proposal that achieves an RTO of 20 hours, an RPO of 1 hour, and keeps the costs of meeting those target time-windows to a minimum. They have also mandated the use of the AWS Storage Gateway to mitigate the risk associated with a catastrophic NAS failure. Which of the following solutions best meet the requirements?
Explanation:
Working with my customer's engineers to help identify the key servers and the data. And help them to setup an AWS account with the IAM users, groups and the roles. Next build the templates of a critical web or app servers and then save them as AMIs. Agreeing upon the RDS specifications which meet a stated requirements and set up a Storage Gateway as well as a Snapshot schedule in order to meet the RPO. Document or automate the steps to help initiate the EC2 instances, the RDS instance and the steps to replace the latest data from Storage Gateway snapshots into the RDS, also if any DNS changes. Now test the process with each of my Operations team shifts.
Utilizing AWS Storage Gateway, EC2 for Disaster Recovery, and S3 replication addresses the client's RTO and RPO requirements while maintaining cost-effectiveness. This approach involves automated backups, low-latency storage, and ensuring data redundancy. Regular testing and validation of the DR plan ensure its reliability.
To address your client's requirements of achieving an RTO of 20 hours, an RPO of 1 hour, and ensuring cost-effectiveness while using AWS Storage Gateway, the following solution is recommended:
Utilize AWS Storage Gateway - File Gateway for seamless integration with S3, enabling a low-latency and cost-effective storage solution.Implement AWS Backup to automate backup processes, ensuring that data can be quickly restored, meeting the RPO and RTO targets.Use AWS EC2 for Disaster Recovery: Spin up EC2 instances using AMIs of your current setup in case of a disaster, which can be pre-configured to minimize downtime and restore operations within the 20-hour RTO window.Leverage S3 Versioning and Cross-Region Replication to ensure data redundancy and availability, protecting against catastrophic NAS failures.Implement Regular Testing and Validation of your DR plan to ensure it works efficiently when needed, thus minimizing the risks associated with outages.This solution achieves the desired RTO and RPO by leveraging Amazon's comprehensive cloud infrastructure, ensuring fault tolerance, and keeping costs manageable through scalable pay-as-you-go services.
Regarding the "quality" of the reservation, rank the following from highest (best) quality to lowest (worst) quality:_________
1. 4 p.m. or 6 p.m. reservation
2. Corporate or credit card guarantee
3. Advance deposit reservation
Answer:
From the highest to the lowest:
3. Advance deposit reservation
2. Corporate or credit card guarantee
1. 4 p.m. or 6 p.m. reservation
Explanation:
To add a little bit of context, this question is related to hotel room reservation /booking.
- In advanced deposit reservation, the customer is already paid the room in full before using it in the future. So even if the customer doesn't show up, the hotel will not experience a loss.
- Corporate or credit card guarantee also generally safe. But there is still a chance that the customers have use their credit card over the limit. So there is still a risk there.
- 4.Pm or 6. Pm reservation is a little bit risky. In most cases, customers who reserve within these hours want to have a night out first (socializing before getting to the hotel), but want to communicate with the hotel to book a room before paying it.
The hotel has to take a risk in such situation. For example, The customer's could've spend the night with his/her friend after drinking and forget about the reservation.
Emma has been juggling a busy schedule between work and marathon training. She questions whether she should take a day off from training to rest her body. Which sleep theory would suggest she should rest?
Answer:
protection, energy restoration
Explanation:
Protection, energy restoration sleep theory -
Sleeping is the process in the life of an organism , where the person or the living creature , tends to relax the mind and body together and restore the energy for the upcoming day .
Sleeping is an important and necessary activity of the organism , and lack of sleep can lead to many problems in the day to day activities .
Hence , from the given scenario of the question ,
Emma need to rest and sleep , in order to restore and protect her energy .
Hector seems to get depressed each winter, when the days get shorter and the nights get long. When spring comes he generally rallies, noticing a substantial improvement in his mood. Although there are many possible explanations for Hector’s behavior, he favors the controversial diagnosis of _______________ to account for his moods.
Answer:
Seasonal affective disorder
Explanation:
Seasonal affective disorder is also called SAD. it is a psychological condition of a person. It occurs in a particular season like in winter. It will occur every year in the same season and will end at the end of the year. The treatment for SAD can be done through physiotherapy, psychotherapy, and medication.
Sign and the symptoms of SAD:
The person feels depressed every day, the whole day. To lose interest in activities Low energy level Problem in sleeping Difficulty in attention and concentration Hopelessness, worthlessness, helplessness.
Which of the following definitions of leadership is fairly comprehensive and helpful?
a. the process by which an agent induces a subordinate to behave in a desired manner
b. directing and coordinating the work of group members
c. the process of influencing an organized group toward accomplishing its goals
d. actions that focus resources to create desirable opportunities
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
Leadership in a comprehensive manner can be defined as a process through which a group or organization is influenced to achieve its target. Many definitions of leadership can be found.
Leadership also acquires the art of motivating the group of people so that they can work together to achieve its goal. A good leader is not the one who knows how to command but who shows by leading how the goal can be achieved and targets be met.
A good leader is not the one who desires to be served but the one who knows how to serve his/her employees.
Eleanor gets a bad grade on the first paper in her English class. To predict whether she will drop the course or stick with it, which question would a social psychologist be most likely to ask?
What is her explanation for why she got the bad grade?
Answer: What is her explanation for why she got the bad grade?
Explanation:
The first question that social psychology should ask is: what is her explanation for why she got the bad grade? This question allows Eleanor to explain the reasons she believes influenced her to get a bad mark in her first paper in her English class.
Several factors can lead to a student getting a bad grade such as anxiety, not having studied enough or lack of concentration. The student may have put the greatest effort into doing a good job, but there will be times when that effort may not be enough to get a good grade.
After having heard Eleanor's reasons, the social psychologist may motivate Eleanor to use various study methods so that on the next occasion he will get a better grade.
Many times getting a bad grade should not be synonymous with leaving the course. It is normal for a student to get a bad grade, but he should not be motivated to lose heart and no longer decide to take the course. The social psychologist must motivate Eleanor to give a better job and understand that a bad grade does not decide what will be of her future.
A plaintiff filed a negligence action against a defendant in federal district court after a two-car accident. The plaintiff's attorney created a list of everyone he could identify who observed the accident or otherwise had information relevant to the accident. The list includes one eyewitness whom the plaintiff's attorney was able to identify only through the expenditure of several thousand dollars in investigation costs. The defendant served the following interrogatory on the plaintiff: "Please state the name of each person of whom you are aware who may know or have information relevant to this action."
Must the plaintiff provide the defendant with the names of all of the people on the plaintiff's attorney's list?
A. No, because the names on the list are protected from discovery under the work product doctrine.
B. No as to the name of the eyewitness found through the plaintiff's investigation efforts, but yes as to the other names on the list.
C. Yes, because, whil the names are subject to qualified immunity from discovery under the work product doctrine, the defendant will be able to show sufficient need to obtain a court order requiring the names' disclosure.
D. Yes, because the names are relevant to the claims and defenses of the parties, and they do not constitute work product.
Answer:
D. Yes, because the names are relevant to the claims and defenses of the parties, and they do not constitute work product.
Explanation:
The plaintiff must provide the defendant with the names of all of the people on the plaintiff's attorney's list because the names are relevant to the claims and defenses of the parties, and they do not constitute work product.
What is the tone of this exchange between Brutus and Cassius? Give specific examples of words that support your answer.
Answer:
The tone in this exchange between Brutus and Cassius is that of a sincere, serious tone.
Explanation:
William Shakespeare's "The Tragedy of Julius Caesar" revolves around the murder of Caesar and the eventual fight for power over Rome. The theme of loyalty, friendship and even respect all comes in the play.
The given exchange between Brutus and Cassius, the two perpetrators of Caesar's death is from Act V scene i. This scene is the final scene of the war where the two warring sides meet before the final war. After meeting with Octavius and Antony, Brutus and Cassius talk about the war and then said their farewells,
"whether we shall meet again I know not.
Therefore our everlasting farewell take.
Forever and forever farewell, Cassius.
If we do meet again, why, we shall smile.
If not, why then this parting was well made."
Cassius also bids his "forever and forever farewell", thus ending the sincere yet serious conversation of the two allies. This scene shows the sincerity of the two friends, unsure of whether they will survive the war or not.
Answer:
defeated and aweary of the world
Explanation:
Did it in edg
The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA) requires rigorous internal accounting controls and careful recordkeeping to ensure that bribes cannot be concealed via "slush funds" and other devices. True or false?
Answer:
True.Explanation:
The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act of 1977 was enacted to apprehend and prohibit certain classes of persons and entities to make bribes or illegal payments to foreign government officials to assist in obtaining or retaining businesses.
According to the accounting provisions of The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA), it requires rigorous internal accounting controls and careful record keeping to ensure that bribes cannot be concealed via "slush funds" and other devices.
The anti-bribery provisions of the FCPA applies to all U.S. citizens and certain foreign entities. The anti-bribery provisions of the FCPA also applies to foreign firms and persons who may promote such illegal payments to take place within the territory of the United States.
What identifies components by a coding scheme that specifies size, shape, and the type of processing (such as size)?
Answer:
Group technology
Explanation:
group technology simply means principles, strategies used in manufacturing stages of product. Its strategies used to improve the productivity in small manufacturing companies and industries. In this strategy similar components are joined together to get benefit in processing stage. Then these products are classified on basis of these similarities and differences. Family of products are differentiate on basis of these specialties.
Gabe's room-mate fell asleep about 25 minutes ago. Now, Gabe needs to awaken him so they both can get to a party on time. His room-mate is sleep talking about his girlfriend's cat. When Gabe begins laughing, his room-mate wakes up. He was in NREM_____ sleep.
A) NREM-1 sleep
B) NREM-2 sleep
C) NREM-3 sleep
D) REM sleep
Answer:
C) NREM-3 sleep
Explanation:
C) NREM-3 sleep refers to stage 3 of NREM sleep. This stage is considered as a deep sleep stage and brain waves are termed as delta waves during this stage. The slow speed and large amplitude are characteristics of brain.
The characteristics of NERM -3 sleep are
- muscles are relax
- blood pressure drop
- stage of deepest sleep
"In the Dred Scott case, the Supreme Court ruled" A. "That Dred Scott would be free" B. Scott had lived in a free territory C. The Missouri Compromise to be unconstitutional D. Slaves were not considered to be property
Answer:
D. Slaves were not considered to be property.
Explanation:
Answer:
D. Slaves were not considered to be property.
___ assimilation occurs when a minority group enters the secondary sector of the larger society and participates in the same public institutions as the dominant group (such as churches, clubs, schools and workplaces).
Answer:
This is known as structural assimilation.
Explanation:
Structural assimilation occurs when a minority group incorporates into a larger, dominant group's structure.
As the example states, the minority group enters the secondary sector of the large society and therefore participates in the same public institutions as this dominant group because the minority has been incorporated into it.
This includes churches, clubs, schools and workplaces.