Answer:
false
Explanation:
The bone of the pelvic girdle which has four bony projections is termed as ilium.The four bony projections present on the ilium are called as iliac spines.The iliac spines acts as points where the muscles and ligaments can attach. The four projections are :Anterior superior iliac spineAnterior inferior iliac spinePosterior superior iliac spinePosterior inferior iliac spineOut of these four spines it is the anterior superior iliac spines that are palpable and are felt while putting hands on the hips.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The anterior superior lilac spine can be palpable with hands on the hips
Kiara loves to play outdoors and enjoys hiking and watching birds in her backyard. Her father notices this interest and decides to sign her up for a local Nature Club that includes birdwatching and plant identification on local short hikes. What kind of gene-environment interaction is this?
Answer:
"Evocative" type of gene - interaction is this.
Explanation:
It is the correlation that occurs only in case an individual behavior that evokes an environmental response. It is also the association between an individual genetically predisposed behavior and others reaction towards that behavior. The environment gene interaction is an very complex interaction between the individual. In the gene interaction a series of the functional association among the genes. In the Interaction the non allelic gene effect of one will subsequently affect the another gene. Which result in the formation of suppression of the effect when together they produce a new character.
The patient is taking an anticholinergic medication along with an antiparkinson medication. Which statement by the patient indicates more teaching is required?
A. "If it makes me nauseated I can take the medication with crackers."
B. "I can take this medication at bedtime as it makes me sleepy."
C. "No matter what, I cannot take this medication with food."
D. "I can use hard candy to decrease any mouth dryness."
Answer:
The correct answer is A. "If it makes me nauseated I can take the medication with crackers."
Explanation:
The anticholinergic antiparkinson medication administrated via oral is absorbed in the duodenum and the first portion of the jejunum. The stomach acts as a reservoir and the entrance to the circulatory system, from the intestine, is mediated by active transport. In this step, the medicine competes with other amino acids and ramified chains for its absorption and when they are taken together, they affect medication absorption. Among other considerations, administration of the medicament separated at least by 30 minutes of meals is a useful habit to optimize its kinetic.
The incorrect statement indicating more teaching is required is "No matter what, I cannot take this medication with food." This suggests a misunderstanding, as taking medications with food can often alleviate side effects like nausea.
Explanation:The question is assessing the patient's understanding of how to manage the common side effects of anticholinergic and antiparkinson medications. Looking at the options provided, the answer to which statement indicates that more teaching is required is C. "No matter what, I cannot take this medication with food." This statement is incorrect as taking medication with food can be an effective way to minimize gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea. Many medications can be taken with or without food, and the healthcare provider or pharmacist can provide personalized advice based on the specific medication.
Options A, "If it makes me nauseated I can take the medication with crackers," and B, "I can take this medication at bedtime as it makes me sleepy," are generally correct. These statements suggest the patient understands how to mitigate some common side effects such as nausea and drowsiness. Option D, "I can use hard candy to decrease any mouth dryness," is also correct because anticholinergic medications can cause dry mouth, and sucking on hard candy can help alleviate this symptom.
In conclusion, the patient expressing a rigid stance against taking medication with food demonstrates a lack of understanding and indicates that more teaching about managing medication side effects is necessary.
Under the Physical Exam and Autopsy provision, how many times can an insurer have the insured examined, at its own expense, while a claim is pending?
Answer:
Unlimited.
Explanation:
Health insurance provide medical benefits and covers the medical expense of the client. The health insurance can be provided by both the government and private sectors.
The client pays some fixed amount of money to the insurer for the continuity of the medical benefits. The insurer can unlimited or finite time can examine even when the claim is not completed.
Thus, the answer is unlimited.
Under the Physical Exam and Autopsy provision, an insurer can have the insured examined multiple times at its own expense while a claim is pending. This provision is designed to prevent fraud and confirm the validity of a claim.
Explanation:The Physical Exam and Autopsy provision in an insurance policy typically gives the insurer the right to examine the insured when deemed necessary, as many times as they want, while a claim is pending. This means that even multiple examinations can be arranged by the insurer at its own expense. The key idea behind this provision is to prevent fraud and confirm the validity of the claim.
For example, if an insured person claims disability pay, the insurer may request an independent medical examination by a doctor of their choice. If discrepancies appear or if the condition is expected to improve over time, repeated examinations might be required.
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How much blood does the human body contain? A. 1-3 pints B. 8-10 pints C. 12-14 pints D. 17-20 pints
Answer: The answer is . 8-10 pints
Explanation:
The body of the adult human contains Between 8-10 pints of blood.
The volume of blood in an average adult also account for its body weight.
alpha helix and beta sheet secondary structure is located mainly in the interior of folded proteins whereas irregular loops occur on the outside_________________.
Answer:
of folded proteins
Explanation:
In Secondary structures; the irregular loops seems to be positioned on the outside of folded proteins while the Alpha and beta sheets is categorically positioned at the centre or interior of the protein.
The loops are positioned on the outside of folded proteins in order for the peptide bonds to be open to form H bonds with water.
A heat-killed, phosphorescent (light-emitting) strain of bacteria is mixed with a living, non-phosphorescent strain. Further observations of the mixture show that some of the living cells are now phosphorescent. Which of the following observations would provide the best evidence that the ability to phosphoresce is a heritable trait?
Answer:
B. DNA passed from the heat-killed strain to the living strain.
Explanation:
This is similar to Grifitth's transformation experiment which uses 2 different strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae.
Pieces of DNA from the heat-killed strain must have been taken up by the living strain and this pieces became incorporated into the genome of the living strain. Th DNA pieces contained the phosphoresce gene and this gene was passed on to the living strain in the process of taking up the DNA.
The correct option is B.
For Type A individuals, exposure to stress is especially likely to inhibit organs such as the ________ from removing cholesterol and fat from the blood.
Answer:
For Type A individuals, exposure to stress is especially likely to inhibit organs such as the _liver_ from removing cholesterol and fat from the blood.
An 18-month-old has fanning of the toes and dorsiflexion of the big toe seen on physical exam. Based on this finding the nurse should:
Answer: Fanning of the toes and dosriflexion of the big toe is an abnormal response called the babinski reflex. Its a neurologic relfex. Newborn babies are not neurologically mature and therefore show a Babinski response. Many young infants do this, too, and it is perfectly normal. However, in time during infancy the Babinski response should vanish completely.
Explanation:
Positive Babinski sign happens when stroking the sole of the foot, the big toe bends up and back to the top of the foot and the other toes fan out. This can mean that you may have an underlying nervous system or brain condition that's causing your reflexes to react abnormal. This abnormal response is a problem of the CNS normally the pyrmidal tract. In this case the baby is 18 months old and is not mature neurologically so this response is perfectly okay.
But if it persists after the age of 2 years or as an adult it should be considered as a problem.
Carbohydrates are stored in a plant's roots, but may also be released into the surrounding soil, where they feed the microbial community.
A. True
B. False
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Starch, an example of a class of carbohydrates known as polysaccharide is produced in the leaves by photosynthesis and transported to the roots of the plant for storage. Micro-organisms in the surrounding soil feed on starch released into the soil from the root
Answer:
A: true
Explanation:
Carbohydrates stored as starch in the roots of plants can also be released to the surroundings for microorganisms to feed.
As a result of stress, the anterior pituitary releases ________, which stimulates release of hormones from the adrenal cortex that retain sodium and water, increase blood sugar, and begin breaking down fats.
A) thyroidstimulatinghormone
B) growthhormone
C) ACTH
D) ADH
Answer: The answer is ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)
Explanation:
ACTH, known as Adrenocorticotropic hormone, is a hormone secreted by the Anterior Pituitary gland. Its function is primarily to stimulates the adrenal cortex gland, which in turns release its own hormones generally known as Corticosteriods such as
- Aldosterone
- deoxycorticosterone etc
These corticosteriods exert several functions ranging from
- transport of electrolytes and distribution of water in tissues to
- metabolism of carbohydrates to release blood sugars; and break down of proteins and fats
Under stress, the anterior pituitary gland releases ACTH, which promotes the adrenal cortex to produce cortisol to maintain bodily functions, including retaining sodium and water, increasing blood sugar, and initiating fat breakdown.
Explanation:When the body is under stress, the anterior pituitary gland reacts by releasing ACTH (Adrenocorticotropic hormone). This hormone then stimulates the adrenal cortex which in turn produces cortisol. The release of cortisol into the bloodstream results in several reactions such as retaining sodium and water to increase blood volume, increasing blood sugar for energy, and the breaking down of fats for additional sources of energy. Therefore, the correct answer is C) ACTH.
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A risk factor for osteoporosis is a. early menopause. b. ovarian cysts. c. late menopause. d. endometriosis.
Answer:
The correct answer is a. early menopause.
Explanation:
Estrogen is the hormone that helps in the protection of bones from being lost or degraded. This hormone is released in the ovary by follicle. The level of estrogen decreases sharply when a woman reached its menopause.
This decrease in estrogen levels in females can lead to osteoporosis in women. So early menopause increases the chances of bone loss in woman and bone loss increases the chances of fractures in women. One in two women who are above 50 in America breaks a bone due to osteoporosis. Therefore the correct answer is a. early menopause.
Early menopause is a risk factor for osteoporosis. This is due to reduced levels of estrogen, a hormone critically involved in maintaining bone mass. Reduced estrogen levels lead to decreased calcium in the blood, which is then pulled from the bones, potentially leading to osteoporosis.
Explanation:A risk factor for osteoporosis is early menopause. As estrogen levels begin to wane in the years leading up to and following the onset of menopause, this crucial hormone's role in maintaining bone density becomes evident. Estrogen is involved in calcium metabolism, and without sufficient estrogen, levels of calcium in the blood decrease. To compensate, calcium is drawn from the bones, potentially reducing bone density and thus increasing the risk of osteoporosis.
Early menopause means a woman goes through this process sooner, leaving a longer period of her life when loss of bone mass can occur which increases the likelihood of developing osteoporosis. It's also important to mention that hormone replacement therapy (HRT) can be used to combat this, although it does come with potential negative side effects.
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An outer membrane is seen in: all bacteria but not archaea all archaea but not bacteria all gram - A.bacteria all gram B. bacteria C.all prokaryotes but no eukaryotes
Answer:
All gram (-) ve bacteria
Explanation:
The structure of bacteria demonstrates that the bacteria possess a cell wall which is composed of teichoic acid and peptidoglycan.
The cell wall thickness varies in the bacteria which is tested by the Gram staining technique. The bacteria with thick cell wall shows positive color or stain color so are called gram-positive bacteria and the bacteria with thin cell wall do not show the color and thus are called gram-negative bacteria.
However, the gram-negative bacteria also possess a layer of lipopolysaccharide and lipoproteins called LPS layer or outer layer surrounding the cell wall which is absent in the gram-positive and archaea bacteria.
Thus, All gram (-) ve bacteria is the correct answer.
What term is used to describe all the alleles at every locus for all individuals within a population?
Answer: GENE POOL is used to describe all the alleles at every locus for all individuals within a population.
Explanation: The gene pool consists of the sum total of all the genes in a particular population. It includes all the genetic information encoded in these genes.
The Hardy-Weinberg law provides equation to relate genotype frequencies and allele frequencies in a randomly mating population;
p² + 2pq + q² = 1 for two alleles such as A and a, where p and q are probabilities of allele frequencies. That is,
p = homozygous dominant
pq = heterozygous
q = homozygous recessive
The gene pool is commonly used during population studies. Therefore, population genetics is the branch of genetics that describes inheritance on the population level in mathematical terms.
Calculate the sample standard deviation and sample variance for the following frequency distribution of heart rates for a sample of American adults. If necessary, round to one more decimal place than the largest number of decimal places given in the data.
Answer:
Let's complete the question using these data
Heart Rates in Beats per Minute
Class Frequency
61-66 2
67-72 11
73-78 11
79-84 3
85-90 8
Sample variance = 56.6924
Sample std dev = 7.5
Explanation:
First, let's find the average
The average
(2 x 63.5 + 11 x 69.5 + 11 x 75.5 + 3 x 81.5 + 8 x 87.5)
___________________________
(2+11+11+3+8)
2666.5
= _______
35
= 76.18571
variance = 1927.54/34
= 56.6923529
Sample variance = 56.6924
std dev = sqrt( variance)
= sqrt(56.6924)
= 7.529
Sample std dev = 7.5
To calculate the sample standard deviation and sample variance, find the mean of the data, calculate the squared deviations from the mean multiplied by their respective frequencies, sum up the squared deviations, divide by the sum of the frequencies minus one to get the sample variance, and take the square root of the sample variance to obtain the sample standard deviation.
Explanation:To calculate the sample standard deviation and sample variance for the given frequency distribution, we need to first calculate the mean of the data. Then, we will calculate the deviations of each observation from the mean, square those deviations, and multiply them by their respective frequencies. Next, we sum up the squared deviations and divide it by the sum of the frequencies minus one to calculate the sample variance. Finally, we take the square root of the sample variance to obtain the sample standard deviation.
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________ are particularly polarizable. ________ are particularly polarizable. Small polar molecules Large nonpolar molecules Large polar molecules Small nonpolar molecules Large molecules, regardless of their polarity,
Answer:
____Large molecules, regardless of their polarity____ are particularly polarizable.
Explanation:
All the large molecules are called polar molecules because they have many bonds including ionic bond, Van der Waals forces or hydrogen bond and flexibility in conformation. This property also increase the boiling point of large molecules.
Dispersion forces, also known as London dispersion forces or Van der Waals forces, are the primary intermolecular forces between all molecules. Larger molecules, regardless of their polarity, are particularly polarizable and have stronger dispersion forces. Small nonpolar molecules have weaker dispersion forces.
Explanation:Dispersion forces are the primary intermolecular forces between all molecules, including polar and nonpolar molecules. These forces are also known as London dispersion forces or Van der Waals forces. Larger molecules, regardless of their polarity, are particularly polarizable and have stronger dispersion forces. Small nonpolar molecules, on the other hand, have weaker dispersion forces.
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The study of life in the universe is a multidisciplinary field of scientific research, involving scientists with training in many different areas. This scientific discipline has been given the name ____. (The American Physical Society has created a division with this name and NASA has given it the same name as the one adopted by your textbook.)
(a) exobiology (b) bioastronomy (c) astrobiology (d) biochemistry (e) biophysics
c
Answer: The answer is astrobiology
Explanation:
Astrobiology is a new scientific discipline employing scientists in the field of biochemistry, biophysics, chemistry, geology and many others to study the existence of life activities anywhere in the universe, including the Earth and other planets.
Endorphins are found where neurons meet skeletal muscles. less powerful than enkaphalins. pain-controlling chemicals. radically different in function from neurotransmitters. responsible for the fatal reaction that human beings have when bit by a Black Widow spider.
Answer:
Endorphins are "pain-controlling chemicals".
Explanation:
Endorphins are endogenous opioid neuropeptides and peptide hormones in individuals and other animals. They are shaped and deposited in the pituitary gland. The organization of particles as endorphins is founded on their pharmacological action, as different to a exact chemical preparation. Stress and pain are the two most mutual issues foremost to the issue of endorphins. Endorphins cooperate with the opiate receptors in the brain to condense our insight of pain and act likewise to drugs such as morphine and codeine.
Endorphins are the body's natural pain-relieving chemicals, functioning by inhibiting pain signals in the brain. They are not involved in the reactions to a Black Widow spider bite, which is caused by venom, not endorphins.
Endorphins are pain-controlling chemicals similar in structure to opioids such as morphine, codeine, and heroin. They bind to opioid receptors in the brain to reduce pain sensation. Enkephalins, a specific type of endorphin, function by inhibiting the transmission of pain signals at synapses by hyperpolarizing the postsynaptic membrane, effectively reducing the sensation of pain even in the face of intense or chronic pain conditions.
The study of psychoneuroimmunology suggests that when a stressful situation is encountered, several biological reactions occur, including all of the following EXCEPT:a) hormone secretion. b) rise in heart rate and blood pressure. c) increased respiration and sweating. d) lightheadedness or unconscious episodes.
Answer: d) lightheadedness or unconscious episodes.
Explanation:
There are several ways the body responds to stress but one method used by psychologists to measure this response is Hans Selye's general adaptation syndrome. This occurs in 3 stages:
1. The alarm reaction. This occurs when the stressor is first presented resulting in the RELEASE OF HORMONES from the adrenal gland into the blood stream. The hormone in turn cause sympathetic nervous system activation and increase energy levels, INCREASE RESPIRATION, increase muscle tension, reduce sensitivity to pain, slow down the digestive system, and cause a RISE IN BLOOD PRESSURE.
2. The stage of resistance- this occurs till the stress is removed.
3. The stage of exhaustion
Answer: Option D ( lightheadness and unconscious episodes)
Explanation: When stressful situation is encountered by the body, the body system initiates some biological reactions which are symptomatic (being felt). The symptoms include:
1. Hormonal secretion: the body secrets counter-regulatory hormones (e.g epinephrine) to regulate the stress.
2. Increased heart beat and blood pressure due to constriction of vessels by stress.
3. Increased biochemical activities which will requires more intake of oxygen to breakdown glucose to produce energy (ATP) and heat is lost through sweat.
Professor Stetson is conducting a study on memory with a sample of college students. Before they agree to participate, Professor Stetson tells them about the study and what they will do if they choose to participate. This is an example of:
Answer:
informed consent
Explanation:
When during a study the participants are told in detail about the procedure of the study along with possible risks, benefits and potential consequences and after gaining this knowledge a participant agrees to be a part of the study then it is said to be an informed consent.The medical and research ethics have made it mandatory to get informed consent from the participants before they enrol in any experimental procedure.The informed consent can be given either directly by the participant or if the participant is not in the condition to grant it then the parents or legal guardians can also provide it.Therefore, in the given case Professor Stetson is asking for an informed consent from the participants.A gene has a base sequence of GTC. Due to mutation, the base sequence changes to GTG. Answer the follow questions
a) what are the bases of mRNA coded for this section of DNA, before the mutation?
c) what amino acid is coded by this section before the mutation?
d) what amino acid is coded by this sequence after mutation?
Answer:
i only have a few of the answers
Explanation:
a) What are the bases of mRNA coded for by this section of DNA, before the mutation? Hint: In RNA,
A pair with U. (1 point) CAG.
b) What are the bases of mRNA coded for by this section of DNA, after the mutation? Hint: In RNA, A
pairs with U. (1 point) CAC.
c) What amino acid is coded for by this sequence before the mutation? Hint: Use the codon table. (1 point) Glutamine.
d) What amino acid is coded for by this sequence after the mutation? (1 point) Histidine.
Scientists have modified a clathrin molecule so that it still assembles but forms an open-ended lattice instead of a closed spherical cage. How would this clathrin molecule affect endocytosis in cells? Choose one: A Vesicles would be larger, increasing the cargo endocytosed. B. All movement of molecules into and out of the cell would cease. C. Vesicles cannot form properly without a clathrin cage, thus inhibiting endocytosis. D. Endocytosis would be unaffected, since adaptors and receptors can still interact.
Answer:
Vesicles cannot form properly without a clathrin cage, thus inhibiting endocytosis.
Explanation:
Clathrin is important for the vesicle fusion. These vesicles are important for the transport and secretion of the proteins from one cell compartment to the next compartment.
The clathrin proteins helps in the vesicle formation and form the close cage in the vesicle. This shape is important for the vesicles formation. The mutation in clathrin will disrupt the shape of the vesicle from the cage to the liner structure. This disrupts the endocytosis process and the protein transport will also blocked.
Thus, the correct answer is option (C).
A researcher has introduced molecules of human myoglobin and human hemoglobin into a solution containing oxygen. Which of the following statements is true of human hemoglobin and myoglobin?
(Complete questions below).
ANSWER
→When introduced into an oxygen-containing solution, a single molecule of human myoglobin will bind to more oxygen molecules than a human hemoglobin molecule will.
Explanation:
Myoglobin(MB) and haemoglobin (HB) are oxygen binding pigments in mammals while Hb transports oxygen and other gases in the blood streams,Myoglobin stores maximum oxygen in the muscles. Thus this explains while it is possible to seize breath with no effects for few seconds.The oxygen storing capacity of myoglobin made it a higher binding oxygen pigments than haemoglobin. Hb does not store oxygen but transports it in the body.
Structurally,.Heamoglobin is made up of 4-Heme group; while myoglobin has 1 Heme group.The strong affinity and storage capacity for oxygen is due to non- bonding of distal HIistidine group (His 64) with iron atom.(iron ii) which gives enough flexibility for interactive reactions of Histidine with oxygen for maximum oxygen binding and storage,(the proximal histindine group(His-63) is bonded directly to the iron atom therefore no flexibity for bonding and stroge with oxygen..
Therefore 1 molecule of MB will bind to more oxygen molecules(MB02) , than 1 Hb molecule.,(Hb08) even at low concentration.
Complete Question.
A researcher has introduced molecules of human myoglobin and human hemoglobin into a solution containing oxygen. Which of the following statements is true of human hemoglobin and myoglobin?
Because myoglobin does not interact with oxygen molecules, only human hemoglobin will bind to oxygen molecules in this solution.
When introduced into an oxygen-containing solution, a single molecule of human myoglobin will bind to more oxygen molecules than a human hemoglobin molecule will.
When introduced into an oxygen-containing solution, human hemoglobin will bind oxygen molecules more tightly than human myoglobin.
Compared to human hemoglobin, human myoglobin will likely bind to oxygen molecules more quickly when introduced into an oxygen-containing solution.
When introduced into an oxygen-containing solution, human myoglobin and hemoglobin will behave similarly and will bind to the same number of oxygen molecules (with the same affinity).
John is a newly diagnosed diabetic that contacts the office with complaints of severe nausea and vomiting. What instructions should the APRN provide related to his insulin doses?
Answer:
i think maybe that he should stop using high doses of insulin
Explanation:
it could be the fact that his blood sugar is to low
Every 4 hours, check your blood sugar levels and take regular insulin based on the results.
What is the effect of insulin?A glucometer is typically used to measure blood sugar levels during sliding-scale insulin therapy regimens.
About four times per day, this is performed (every 5 to 6 hours, or before meals and at bedtime). Your blood sugar reading determines how much insulin you receive at mealtime.
The following factors determine whether an APRN is allowed to prescribe prohibited medications to patients: A patient has been given an oral medication with a high first-pass effect.
Therefore, every 4 hours, check your blood sugar levels and take regular insulin based on the results.
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When ejecting a protein sample into a well of the SDS-PAGE gel with a pipetter, why should you only push down on the pushbutton to the first stop and not the second stop?Select one:
a. Pushing down to the second stop will eject more sample than required.
b. The pushbutton should only be pushed down to the second stop when loading the sample into the pipetter.c. Pushing down to the second stop when loading the samples will not affectthe SDS-PAGE results.d. Pushing down to the second stop could denature the protein sample.e. Pushing down to the second stop will result in ejection of air from the pipet tip, which could blow the content intended for that particular well to the surrounding wells
Answer:
.e. Pushing down to the second stop will result in ejection of air from the pipette tip, which could blow the content intended for that particular well to the surrounding wells
Explanation:
The pipette has two stops the first and the second stop. The first stop is the one that changes in other words the amount that is set. The second stop is for extra push to remove all the liquid from the tip. When the pipette is pushed to the second stop some air is ejected.
This is the main reason when loading samples on wells during SDS-PAGE ,we stop at the first stop or else the contents will go to the neighboring wells.
We can represent atoms by listing the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons-for example, 2p, 2n, 0, 2e - for helium. Which of the following represents the 18O isotope of oxygen?a. 6p+, 8n0, 6e-b. 8p+, 10n0, 8e-c. 9p+, 9n0, 9e-d. 7p+, 2n0, 9e-e. 10p+,8n0, 9e-
Answer:
B. 8 e-, 8p+, 10n0
Explanation:
For the Oxygen-18 isotope,
Mass number = atomic number + number of neutron
For an electrically neutral atom, the number of proton is the atomic number.
Mass number = number of proton + number of neutron
The mass of proton is the same as the mass of neutron but the mass of a electron is negligble.
For isotopes, atoms with the same atomic number but different neutron numbers, hence different mass numbers.
Mass number of O-18 = 18
Atomic number of oxygen = 8
Number of neutron = 18 - 8
= 10
Number of proton = 8
Number of electron = 8
Therefore, 8 e-, 8p+, 10n0
The 18O isotope of oxygen is represented by 8 protons, 10 neutrons, and 8 electrons. The 18O isotope of oxygen is represented by 8p+, 10n0, 8e-.
Explanation:The 18O isotope of oxygen can be represented as follows: 8p+, 10n0, 8e-. Here, 8 represents the number of protons and electrons, and 10 represents the number of neutrons. Isotopes of an element have the same number of protons (and hence the same atomic number), but a different number of neutrons. So, in the case of 18O, the atomic mass is 18 (sum of protons and neutrons), and there are 8 protons, thus leaving 10 neutrons.
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A state of physical, emotional, and mental exhaustion attributable to long-term involvement in emotionally demanding situations is called _____.
Answer: The answer is burnout
Explanation:
Burnout is a state of physical, emotional, and mental exhaustion attributable to long-term involvement in emotionally demanding situations at the place of work, residence etc
Why do individuals who suffer from brainstem injuries have difficulty with their autonomic functions?
Answer: The brainstem controls autonomic functions through cranial nerves arising from it, along with the medulla oblongata, therefore an injury to the area can cause loss of these functions.
Explanation:
The brainstem comprises of the midbrain, and the pons and medulla of the hindbrain. It is in direct continuation with the spinal cord. Ten cranial nerves arise from this part, and a number of tracts pass through this region. The medulla of the brainstem are particularly involved in maintaining heart rate, breathing and blood pressure. In case of a brainstem injury, the cranial nerves responsible for autonomic functions could get damaged leading to dysfunction and/or the areas of medulla consisting of centres controlling heart rate, blood pressure or other autonomic functions, if damaged could cause difficulties.
Answer:
Because the brainstem regulates autonomic functions through cranial nerves arising from it.
Explanation:
The brainstem is the posterior part of the brain that is continuous with the spinal cord. The brainstem has three parts which includes; midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata.
The midbrain play major part in wakefulness and regulation of homeostasis. It is associated with vision, hearing, motor control, sleep and wake cycles, alertness, and temperature regulation.
The pons is situated between the medulla oblongata and the midbrain. It transmit signal information via nerves to the cerebrum through the medulla and to the cerebellum. It also sends sensory signals to the thalamus via sensory nerves. The pons performs both motor and sensory functions. Sensory functions like hearing, equilibrium, taste, and facial sensations such as touch and pain. Motor roles like eye movement, facial expressions, chewing, swallowing, urination, and the secretion of saliva and tears.
The medulla oblongata controls autonomic functions and connects the spinal cord to higher levels of the brain. It also regulate several basic functions of the autonomic nervous system like breathing, heart and blood vessels, digestion, vomiting, coughing, sneezing, and swallowing.
Individuals that suffers Injury to the brainstem, particularly to the medulla oblongata, will have difficulty with these autonomic functions.
What term means that an antimicrobial drug can injure/kill the target cell or organism without injuring the person receiving the drug?
Answer:
as the ability of a drug to injure a target cell/organism without injuring other cells/organisms in close contact
Applies to antimicrobial drugs, selective toxicity indicates the ability of an antibiotic to kill or suppress microbial pathogens w/o causing injury to host cell, so want selective toxicity in drugs
Explanation:
Approximately 21% of the human genome is comprised of nucleotides containing C. Given this information, calculate the percentage of the human genome that is comprised of nucleotides containing G, T, and A.
(a) _____% of the human genome is comprised of G.
(b) _____% of the human genome is comprised of T.
(c) _____% of the human genome is comprised of A.
Enter your answer as three numbers separated by commas (example: 12, 26, 32).
Answer:
(a) 21% of the human genome is comprised of G.
(b) 29% of the human genome is comprised of T.
(c) 29% of the human genome is comprised of A.
Explanation:
According to Chargaff's rule, a DNA molecule has the same amount of pyrimidines (T and C) as purines (A and G), and G pairs with C and A pairs with T.
If 21% of the genome contains C, then 21% also contains G.
Therefore 21% + 21% = 42% of the genome is comprised of G+C.
The other 58% is comprised of A+T, and because they pair with each other, 29% will correspond to A and 29% will correspond to T,
Shulte chose several areas in the lower Chesapeake Bay as his experimental sites. At each site, he constructed artificial reefs of two different heights. He also left portions of each site unrestored to serve as points of comparison. Oysters were allowed to colonize the reefs and the unrestored bay bottom safe from harvesting. His hypothesis was that oysters would survive better in the plankton-rich upper waters away from the smothering sediments and hypoxic waters of the bay bottom.A) Reef type is the independent variable.B) Adult oyster density is a dependent variable.C) Spat density is a dependent variable.D) High-relief and low-relief reefs are treatments.
Answer:
All options are correct.
Explanation:
The scientific experiments require proper procedure and experimental set up to perform the experiments. The results and observation was used for the interpretation of the experiment.
The experiments include both the dependent variable, independent variable control and set-up. Here, Shutle used the adult oyster and reef types as dependent and independent variable. Reefs are used as treatments and Oyster density changes and included in the category of density dependent variable.
Thus, all given options are correct.
Restoration efforts by the Chesapeake Bay Foundation aim to increase oyster population density using experimental oyster reefs and disease-resistant strains, though interstate cooperation is required due to upstream pollution.
Oyster restoration efforts in the Chesapeake Bay have been crucial due to the sharp decline in oyster populations. Organizations like the Chesapeake Bay Foundation have focused on increasing oyster population density to improve reproduction rates. Utilizing disease-resistant oyster strains from the Virginia Institute of Marine Science, these restoration initiatives involve constructing experimental oyster reefs to combat problems such as pollution. However, efforts by states like Virginia and Delaware are challenged by pollution from upstream states, necessitating larger inter-state cooperation for a successful restoration. Moreover, understanding the impact of environmental factors on oyster health, such as anthropogenic noise, provides insights that can guide aquaculture practices and coastal development.