Answer:
It can affect the heart valves and the heart walls.
Explanation:
Rheumatic fever is a very important cause of heart disease because it can affect the muscle of the heart and the valves of the heart causing valve stenosis or valve regurgitation, which leads to a heart that can not efficiently pump blood to all the body.
You are providing first aid to a person who appears to have suffered a stroke and is paralyzed on the right side. Based on his anatomy, the stroke likely occurred in the left side of his brain?
1. True
2.False
The nurse has just attended a seminar on concepts of cultural diversity. Which statement made by the nurse would require further education?
Answer:
Culture cannot be influenced, and you are born with your culture.
Explanation:
Each religion and country has its own culture. The culture determines the social customs, religions, laws and ethics about the particular state. The culture makes the country unique with the other country.
The lots of variation and diversity has been found in the culture of the different state or country. The individual has their own culture that can influence them and makes them familiar with their unique identities. The individual born with their special culture.
Determine whether the breakfast is appropriate for a vegan, lactovegetarian, or lactoovovegetarian and drag the breakfast to its appropriate classification.
Answer:
VEGAN: oatmeal made with soy milk and blueberries
LACTOVEGETARIAN: whole wheat toast with melted cheese and a glass orange juice
LACTOOVOVEGETARIAN: omelet made with two eggs, shredded cheese, and peppers.
Explanation:
Vegan is the person who follows a dietary regimen that is characterized by completely excluding all foods of animal origin, including products that involve an animal process, such as honey or eggs from the daily food list.
The lacto-vegetarian diet is another alternative to the vegan (or vegetarian) diet. This variant allows you to add milk and dairy products to the daily menu.
Lacto-ovo-vegetarian diet: The least strict vegetarian diet
The ovo-lacto-vegetarian diet is the alternative with less restrictions if you are looking to become a vegetarian. The milk and eggs included in this diet provide you with the necessary proteins that your body needs.
Final answer:
To classify a breakfast as either vegan, lactovegetarian, or lactoovovegetarian, we examine the inclusion of dairy products and eggs. Vegans eat strictly plant-based, lactovegetarians consume dairy but not eggs, and lactoovovegetarians include both dairy products and eggs in their diet.
Explanation:
To determine whether the breakfast is appropriate for a vegan, lactovegetarian, or lactoovovegetarian, we must look at the ingredients included in the meal. A vegan diet excludes all animal products including dairy and eggs. A lactovegetarian diet includes dairy products but no eggs. Lastly, a lactoovovegetarian diet includes both dairy products and eggs.
If the breakfast contains dairy products such as cheese or milk but no eggs, it is appropriate for lactovegetarian and lactoovovegetarian diets. If the breakfast includes eggs, with or without dairy products, it is suitable for lactoovovegetarians. Finally, if the breakfast contains neither dairy nor eggs and solely plant-based ingredients, it is suitable for vegans.
When analyzing a vegetarian or vegan diet for health, it's important to consider the inclusion of foods fortified with nutrients of concern such as vitamins B12, D, calcium, omega-3 fatty acids, and choline to maintain nutrient adequacy.
Patricia recently visited a nutritionist who, after examining her weight and height, informed her that her body mass index is 21. This places Patricia in the _____ weight category.
Answer:
normal weight category
Explanation:
Body mass index (BMI) -
It refers to the value concluded from the value of weight and height of a person , it basically gives the composition of the body , is referred to as the Body mass index (BMI) .
The value of BMI is calculated by the weight of the person divided by the square of the height .
Hence, the unit of BMI comes out to be Kg / m² .
The values of BMI is characterized as ,
BMI under 18.5 Kg / m² - underweight category .BMI range 18.5 Kg / m² - 25 Kg / m² - normal weight category . BMI above 30 Kg / m² - obese weight category .Hence, from the question,
Patricia is in the normal weight category .
Answer:
The correct answer is - normal body weight.
Explanation:
BMI or body mass index is the measurement of the high body fatness by the calculating it from the weight and height of an individual. It is calculated by the weight of an individual in kilograms divided by the height square in meters.
BMI can be assessed on the base of the weight categories that may indicator for the health issue that may rise. According to the BMI categories 18.5 to 25 considered as normal.
BMI ranges are:
Underweight : under 18.5 kg/m2,
Normal weight : 18.5 to 25,
Overweight : 25 to 30, and
obese : over 30.
Thus, the correct answer is - normal body weight.
Epidemiology is a field of study focused on the study of health and illness in human populations, patterns of health or disease, and the factors that influence these patterns.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Epidemiology is a quantitative approach to study the health-related events, their distribution, pattern and determinants or factors causing the disease in a defined population.
The epidemiological studies involve the use of the statistics, probability and research methods which act as a tool to promote public health, protect the health of the public based on the data and science.
The studies help the formation of government policies in a defined area and providing the doses for the diseases.
Thus, true is the correct answer.
A 14-year-old girl presents with right thigh pain that has been going on for the last month. She recalls being kicked in the leg during soccer practice before her symptoms started. She was last seen in the ED two weeks ago and was diagnosed with a muscle contusion. On exam there is a mass palpable over the anterior distal thigh. X-ray of the femur shows a distal femoral diaphyseal lesion with cortical destruction and periosteal reaction with high suspicion for osteosarcoma. Which of the following is true regarding this disease
Answer:
Taking into account that the alternatives to this case are:
a. Blunt trauma is associated with the pathogenesis of osteosarcoma.
b. Ionizing radiation for childhood cancer is a risk factor for osteosarcoma.
c. Osteosarcoma most often involves the axial squeleton followed by the long bones.
d. Pathologic fracture is a common presenting sign
The right answer is the option B
Explanation:
In previous medical analysis and research of the disease, sarcomas were one of the first solid cancers to be found connected with ionizing radiation exposure. The risk of both bone and soft tissue sarcomes are very high after high-dose fractionated radiation (10+Gy) in childhood.
Which member of the radiation oncology team maintains and directs the quality control and quality assurance activities associated with the use of ionizing radiation?
Answer:
b. Medical physicist and dosimetrist
You are testing a hypothesis that salamanders disappeared from a flower bed because an invasive ant species drove them away. To test this hypothesis you make 40 flower beds with the same number of salamanders in each bed. You then place the invasive ants into 20 flower beds, and leave the other 20 beds ant free. After a month you count the number of salamanders in each flower bed.
Answer:
Salamanders are being driven away from the flower beds by the invasive ants specie because the two organism have hostile relationship to each other and can not coexist.
To test the hypothesis in the question, check the explanation column below
Explanation:
40 flower beds with the same number of salamanders in each bed. You then place the invasive ants into 20 flower beds, and leave the other 20 beds ant free. Leave these for three weeks
Results:
At the end of the third week, it will be observed that the flower beds that contain the invasive ants species will no longer contain the salamanders, WHILE the 20 remaining flower beds where the ants were not placed will still contain the salamanders.
Conclusion from this hypothesis is that invasive ants specie and salamanders can not coexist
A 36-month-old presents for a well child visit. The parents would like to know if the child's development is progressing approximately ________.
Answer:
A 36-month-old presents for a well child visit. The parents would like to know if the child's development is progressing approximately:
to its developmental milestones.
Explanation:
The developmental milestones are specific behaviors or physical skills expected from infants from 0 to 3, and children from 3 to 6, at that specific growth stage, which features health and nutritional status, but although they are different for each age range, there is a normal range for each child to reach them, therefore it is important to measure and monitor them at regular intervals to register their progress. Rolling over, crawling, walking, and talking are all considered milestones.
A 30 to 36 month old toddler likely should be able to take part in group activities that include running, galloping, crawling, rolling over, and twirling around, walking on a narrow beam, putting one foot in front of the other for a few steps and climbing the ladder of a slide at a jungle gym.
Select the correct answer. Dr. Willard is performing evaluations of the physicians in the department of pediatrics. To what type of team does Dr. Willard belong? A. administrative team B. coordinating team C. core team D. support team
Answer
I think its A hope this helps
Explanation:
Answer:
A
Explanation:
#PLATOGANG 5/5
An association between populations that eat more fish and a lower mortality rate from coronary heart disease in the same population would establish which of the following:_____
A. A group association that may be helpful in generating a hypothesis about the relationship between fish consumption and coronary heart disease.
B. An individual association establishing that eating fish is associated with coronary artery disease.
C. A cause and effect relationship between fish consumption and coronary heart disease.
D. None of these are correct.
Answer:
A group association that may be helpful in generating a hypothesis about the relationship between fish consumption and coronary heart disease.
Explanation:
The scientific hypothesis explains about the reason and explanation of the particular phenomena. The hypothesis is mainly based on the environmental observations of the scientist.
While explaining the hypothesis about the particular relationship between two things, at least some group association is required. The group association is helpful in the observation and effect of the relationship between the individual. The fish consumption and coronary heart disease must be a group association for the hypothesis development.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
One way families influence healthy technology use is when siblings explain the use of media to each other. Which of these outcomes would you expect if this guideline was followed?
A) Older siblings would spend more time online than younger siblings.B) Younger siblings would know more about the internet than older siblings.C) Siblings would spend time using technology tools together.D) Siblings would know how to play games on all household devices.
Answer:C) Siblings would spend time using technology tools together.
Explanation: When siblings(one or two individuals who have the same parents, or who have one parent connection) spend time together,they tend to share ideas,transfer knowledge and learn effectively.
It is believed that once siblings use technologies together it helps them to understand fast and guarantee that the time is effectively used for knowledge transfer. The use of technology tools will be enhanced and enjoyed by both and the need to spend more time.
As supervisor of the cancer registry, you report the registry's annual caseload to administration. The most efficient way to retrieve this information would be to use
A. patient abstracts.B. accession register.C. patient index.D. follow-up files.
Answer:
.B. accession register
Explanation:
Registration is a term that originates in the Latin word regestum. It is about the action and the consequences of registering, a verb that refers to observing or inspecting something carefully. To register is also to write down or record a certain data in a document or paper.
In this case, being able to access the registry is the easiest and most efficient way to recover the information.
An experienced nurse is mentoring a graduate nurse and critiquing the graduate’s shift handoff. Which statement requires clarification?
Answer:
The client reports a pain level of 8. She has a low pain tolerance.
Explanation:
The graduate nurse has little understanding of making of report of occurrences and their is an ambiguity in the report making it difficult for the experience nurse to understand the information the graduate is passing.
Answer:
The client has a low pain tolerance
Explanation:
This is because she reported a pain level of eight.
When performing a single-leg squat assessment, if the knee moves inward, what is a probable overactive muscle?
Answer:
Adductor complex
Explanation:
The valgus of the knee is also known as the valgus collapse and medial displacement of the knee. It is characterized by an adduction and internal rotation of the hip, usually when it is in a hip-flexed position (the knee actually abducts and rotates externally). It can also be thought of as a knee that expires while you descend on a squat or landing. When standing on one limb, the pelvis on the opposite side usually also falls during the valgus collapse.
Inadequate gluteus / hip strength (lower gluteus, gluteus buttocks, gluteus maximus, external hip rotators), possibly in combination with hyperactive hip adductors, prevents adequate stabilization of the femur. The hips move in adduction and internal rotation. And when the adductors are hyperactive compared to the external buttocks / rotators of the hip, the knee is dragged in a manner similar to the collapse of the valgus.
Laura measured her body composition by measuring her waist circumference. Her waist is 39 inches. Based on this result, which of the following is TRUE?
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Max wants to get in better physical shape and lose 10pounds. His belief about whether he can successfully begin and maintain a fitness program is directly related to his level of
Question: Max wants to get in better physical shape and lose 10 pounds. His belief about whether he can successfully begin and maintain a fitness program is directly related to his level of
A) self-satisfaction.
B) self-mastery.
C) self-esteem.
D) self-efficacy.
Answer:
Max wants to get in better physical shape and lose 10 pounds. His belief about whether he can successfully begin and maintain a fitness program is directly related to his level of "self-efficacy"
Explanation:
It is the person's confidence or its capacity to perform behavior that are required in order to generate act attainment. In general terms it the self- efficacy is the assurance in the capability to undergo or control on own motivation, behavior or the social surrounding. The self- efficacy can be seen in various terms like parenting, school, work, hobbies, and some other areas.
Final answer:
Max's level of self-efficacy directly influences his ability to begin and maintain a fitness program, which will affect his goal of losing 10 pounds and getting into better physical shape.
Explanation:
Max's belief about whether he can successfully begin and maintain a fitness program is directly related to his level of self-efficacy. Self-efficacy is the belief in one's capabilities to organize and execute the courses of action required to manage prospective situations. In the context of health and fitness, a higher level of self-efficacy often correlates with an individual's commitment to exercise and adherence to fitness programs, which can influence their ability to lose weight and improve physical shape. For Max to achieve his goal of losing 10 pounds, enhancing his self-efficacy through setting achievable goals, monitoring progress, and seeking support can be crucial strategies.
Temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope caused by a sudden nervous system reaction MOST accurately describes: Select one: a. neurologic shock. b. vasovagal shock. c. neurogenic shock. d. psychogenic shock.
Answer:
d. psychogenic shock
Explanation:
Psychogenic shock causes the dilatation of the blood vessels supplying the muscles. This then leads to a decrease in blood pressure and this decrease alters the flow of blood that supplies the brain and ultimately leading to fainting or syncope. Although the pulse rate increases but this only acts as a compensatory mechanism due to the fall in blood pressure. The skin also becomes cold and sweaty as a result of the decrease blood flow.
Final answer:
Vasovagal shock is the term that accurately describes temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope due to a nervous system reaction, and it is different from other types of shock such as neurogenic, obstructive, and anaphylactic shock.
Explanation:
The condition described as temporary, widespread vasodilation and syncope caused by a sudden nervous system reaction is most accurately defined as vasovagal shock. This type of shock is a reflex of the parasympathetic nervous system to certain triggers, such as extreme stress, pain, fear, or prolonged standing. It typically results in a sudden drop in heart rate and blood pressure, leading to fainting (syncope). This reaction is different from neurogenic shock, which occurs from damage to the central nervous system, obstructive shock, which is caused by a blockage in the blood flow, and anaphylactic shock, which is a severe allergic reaction.
Which drug is approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) as a dietary adjunct to reduce triglyceride levels greater than 500 mg/dL?
Explanation:
Drug, approved by the Food and Drug Administration as dietary adjunct is
The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommends limiting calories from added sugars and saturated fats. They also recommend decreasing the intake of sodium. Which foods provide most of the sodium in our daily diets?
Answer:
The foods that provide most of the sodium in our daily diets are the ultraprocessed items, snacks, some ready sausages, industrial soups and most types of cheese.
Explanation:
Some of these ultraprocessed products are in need of sodium because it contributes to its maintenance. Sodium is also used in order to make food more tasty. In the case of cheese, sodium content is a result of its own making process. These is an aspect that gains importance because the consumption of exaggerated amounts of sodium might help in increasing blood pressure and cardiovascular diseases.
The _________ helps us walk a straight line without stumbling or leaning forward; it continually communicates with the muscles to coordinate placement, movement, and balance.
Answer:
What is the brain.
Explanation:
ill take body parts for 600.
Also could i have brainliest ill help on any question you need :)
A nurse is teaching a pre-natal group about the benefits of breast-feeding. The nurse determines teaching has been effective based on which statement?
Answer:Hello, your question is not complete. Nonetheless, check explanation section to learn one or two things so that you will have more understanding and be able to solve similar questions.
Explanation:
A prenatal class is for mostly for pregnant women, and classes are held to educate them(pregnant women) about things to expect during their pregnancy period, during labour and child birth, and during their early Parenthood which include breastfeeding.
Breastfeeding is a type of nutrition process in which infants/babies are fed with milk from the mammary gland of the mother. The milk from the mother's breast is sterile and more nutrients than any other baby foods.
Since the class is all about the BENEFITS OF BREASTFEEDING, the nurse taking the Pre-natal class will be happy that his or her class in effective if the pregnant women are able to understand the importance of breastfeeding and can answer questions relating to breastfeeding. For example, if the pregnant women understand that breastfeeding increases resistance to infections in babies.
A client comes to the emergency department with skin burns and tells the practitioner that they were caused by a diathermy treatment. The practitioner understands that the burns were caused by _________ type of radiation injury.
A client comes to the emergency department with skin burns and tells the practitioner that they were caused by a diathermy treatment. The practitioner understands that the burns were caused by _________ type of radiation injury.
a) Ionizing radiation
b) Nonionizing radiation
c) Ultraviolet radiation
d) Electrical currents
Answer:
d) Electrical currents
Explanation:
Diathermy treatment is a kind of treatment that involves the usage of electrically introduced heat as a form of physical therapy or surgical procedures.
In physical therapy, it can be used to convey moderate heat personally with intermediary to pathological lesions in the deeper tissues of the body.
Also, diathermy treatment can be subjected to capsules located at joints, fibrous tissues in tendons to ease the severe hardness of joints and further aid the relaxation of the muscles and reduce muscle spams.
In surgery diathermy is used to cauterize blood vessels to prevent excessive bleeding. Burns from diathermy treatment occurs if there is an outbreak of fire during the surgery due to excessive heat production. Also if the electrical circuits are being disturbed, electrical shocks and burns are possible.
A medical pracatitioner should therefore understands that if a client comes to the emergency department with skin burns and tells the practitioner that they were caused by a diathermy treatment, the medical practitioner should be able to detect that the burns were caused by electrical current during the diathermy treatment process .
What is the name for the computerized health information system health care professionals use to monitor referrals, treatment plans, and tests?
Answer:
The name for the computerized health information system health care professionals use to monitor referrals, treatment plans, and tests is Clinical decision support system.
Explanation:
The Clinical decision support system (CDSS) is an artificial intelligence that was designed to provide doctors with help in decision-making matters, focusing on the use of medical knowledge to be able to give valuable advice and reach the correct diagnosis and treatment of diseases with the input of patient data.
"The correct term for the computerized health information system that health care professionals use to monitor referrals, treatment plans, and tests is an Electronic Health Record (EHR) system.
An Electronic Health Record (EHR) system is a digital version of a patient's paper chart. EHRs are real-time, patient-centered records that make information available instantly and securely to authorized users. Health care providers use EHRs to monitor and track the medical history, diagnoses, medications, treatment plans, immunization dates, allergies, radiology images, and laboratory test results of their patients. EHR systems are designed to share information with other health care providers and organizations such as laboratories, specialists, medical imaging facilities, pharmacies, emergency facilities, and school and workplace clinics so they contain information from all clinicians involved in a patient's care.
EHRs can enhance the quality of health care by improving the accuracy and clarity of medical records, facilitating quick access to patient records for more coordinated, efficient care, and reducing the potential for errors in prescription and treatment. They also allow for the integration of evidence-based guidelines at the point of care, which can support health care professionals in making decisions for their patients. Additionally, EHRs can help with the management of chronic diseases by providing tools for tracking and reminders for preventive care.
In summary, an EHR system is a comprehensive health information system that supports the management of patient care, including referrals, treatment plans, and tests, across various health care settings."
How many sets per exercise should be performed by a client in the resistance portion of the Stabilization Endurance Level of training?
Answer:
between 1 and 3
Explanation:
Traditional method
The main feature of this strategy is based on respecting and maintaining throughout the session both intensities (67-85% RM) and the rate of execution (1-0-2) and recovery times (60-120´´) marked and recommended to stimulate muscle hypertrophy.
One of the highly effective protocols:
selection of 1 exercise per muscle group, performing 1-3 sets per exercise in a repetition range of 8-12 maximum repetitions. 1-2 minute break. The execution rate is 1-0-2, keeping the selected load constant. Training frequency of 1-2 per muscle group per week.
"The addictive potential of alcohol is probably best explained by the way it stimulates the reward pathways for ______ in the brain."
The addictive potential of alcohol is probably best explained by the way it stimulates the reward pathways for dopamine in the brain.
The addictive potential of alcohol is probably best explained by the way it stimulates the reward pathways for dopamine in the brain. The neurobiological theory of addiction shows that almost all drugs of abuse, including alcohol, affect the limbic system which comprises the brain reward system.
Specifically, substances like alcohol increase the amount of dopamine in brain structures such as the nucleus accumbens and the ventral tegmental area (VTA), which are central to the brain's reward pathway.
When alcohol is consumed, it induces dopamine release and augments the reward circuitry, creating the feelings of pleasure that can lead to repetitive use and addiction. This release is often a response to the increased energy state in the GABAergic and dopaminergic neurons, as seen with other nutrients. However, alcohol, rather uniquely, can pass the blood-brain-barrier and directly stimulate this reward system, making it highly addictive.
In summary, the brain reward pathways, specifically involving the neurotransmitter dopamine, play a crucial role in addiction to alcohol and other drugs. This dopamine-mediated reward circuitry is responsible for the heightened feelings of reward that encourage continued substance use.
What is the penality for being involved in a motor vehicle accident that causes injury to another person whileyour driving privileges are suspended?
Answer: The penalty varies according to state and country regulations.
Explanation: Every Country/state has its laws. Depending on the state and country, the penalty for being involved in a motor vehicle accident that causes injury to another person while your driving privileges are suspended ranges from having your drivers driver's license revoked/suspended for a period of 1year to getting imprisoned in jail.
I would suggest you provide more information on the state and country to be able to ascertain the exact penalty.
A client at 16 weeks' gestation comes to the office for a routine exam. At what location within the abdomen would the nurse anticipate the uterus to be found?
Final answer:
At 16 weeks' gestation, the uterus is typically palpable at the level of the mother's belly button, or midway between the pubic bone and the umbilicus.
Explanation:
At 16 weeks' gestation, a health care provider would expect the uterus to be palpable at the level of the mother's belly button, or midway between the pubic bone and the umbilicus. During the second trimester, as the fetus grows and the uterus enlarges to accommodate the developing fetus, it begins to rise out of the pelvic cavity. Given that the second trimester is characterized by rapid growth and development of the fetus, and the uterus expanding to provide the necessary support and protection for the fetus, the uterus's location in the abdomen changes accordingly. By the second trimester, the uterus can be felt by palpation at the belly button or slightly below it. It is around this time that the fetus's movements start to be felt by the mother and when the placenta takes over the hormonal functions, marking significant milestones in pregnancy.
Coloscopy of MRG revealed multiple polypoid masses ranging from 5 mm to 19 mm in diameter. Specimens were procured and sent to pathology for diagnosis. What is coloscopy?
Answer:
Colposcopy is a pain-free procedure used by the doctors to screen the abnormal cells in the cervix, the opening of the uterus in the female reproductive system.
The procedure involves the use of a colposcope which is a binocular type instrument used to look inside the cervix.
In the given question, since the colposcopy has polyploid masses of size ranging from 5-19 mm in diameter therefore the colposcopy is used to see the abnormal growth.
Answer:
The correct answer is - examination of body parts like vagina, cervix and vulva for disease and pre malignant lesions.
Explanation:
The correct answer is - Is the examining the body parts such as vagina, vulva, and cervix for detecting traces of the disease or characteristics of the disease. It is examined by a special instrument called colposcope.
It is use to check malignant lesions in these regions or body parts. It is helps in the close up look that ranges upto 5mm to 19 mm in diameter.
Thus, the correct answer is - examination of body parts like vagina, cervix and vulva for disease and pre malignant lesions.
The healthcare industry has a great deal of parallel with airlines in terms of how business processes can be managed quickly and efficiently.
A. True
B. False