Answer:
b. "I can remove the diaphragm 6 hours after intercourse."
Explanation:
The first statement is incorrect because a diaphragm is only used to avoid contraception and has nothing to do with transfer of AIDS infection. the second statement is correct because a diaphragm shall be removed after six hours of performing intercourse. However, a spermicide cream is only used when a patients inserts a diaphragm but performs intercourse four hours later. A diaphragm is examined only when the client's weight changes up to 15 pounds, if client had a child, and usually it is checked for fitness annually.
The correct statement indicating effective teaching on diaphragm usage is that it can be removed 6 hours after intercourse, as it needs to stay in place for at least that duration to prevent pregnancy. Diaphragms also require spermicide for more effective protection and do not shield against STIs.
Explanation:The best indication that the student understood the teaching about how to use a diaphragm is option b: "I can remove the diaphragm 6 hours after intercourse." This statement is correct because a diaphragm should indeed be left in place for a minimum of six hours after intercourse to ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy. Spermicide should be applied to the diaphragm before insertion to provide an additional barrier to sperm, and the diaphragm must cover the cervix snugly.
It's also important to note that diaphragms do not protect against STIs, including AIDS, and their use may be associated with a higher risk of urinary tract infections, so option a demonstrating a misunderstanding about the protective capabilities of a diaphragm against STIs.
The nurse has been providing care to a client during a divorce. The client is now divorced from the spouse, effective 2 weeks ago. The nurse identifies a nursing diagnosis of "Readiness for Enhanced Coping." What statement by the client would support this nursing diagnosis?
Answer:
The client states, "I feel like I can finally get along with my life now that the divorce is final."
Explanation:
Readiness for Enhanced Coping is a nursing diagnosis that suggests that a client with health challenge receiving treatment now shows the readiness and willingness to live a life of enhanced health in regard to self. The client in the answer above shows a willingness to get along with life and shows a sign of positivity knowing that he does not have to go through the stress of divorce.
An applicant for an individual health policy failed to complete the application properly before being able to complete the application and pay the initial premium she is confined to a hospital this will not be covered by the insurance because she has not met conditions specified in the_____________
Answer:
Consideration clause.
Explanation:
The health insurance may be defined as the program that provide medical benefits to the individual by covering the medical expense. The health insurance can be provided by the government as well as private policy.
The health insurance include different rules and regulations that maintains the benefit of both insurer and the client. The consideration clause is made in which the client has to pay the monthly or yearly premium for the continuation of the medical benefits.
Thus, the answer is consideration clause.
Final answer:
An individual's hospital expenses are not covered by health insurance if the application process is not completed and the initial premium is not paid, because conditions of the individual mandate have not been fulfilled.
Explanation:
An applicant for an individual health policy failed to complete the application properly before being able to complete the application and pay the initial premium she is confined to a hospital this will not be covered by the insurance because she has not met conditions specified in the individual mandate.
The individual mandate was a component of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act, also known as Obamacare. Its purpose was to reduce the adverse selection problem in the health insurance market. By requiring all individuals, including the healthiest, to purchase health insurance or pay a fine, the law aimed to keep insurance premiums reasonable and ensure that health insurance companies could provide coverage without the need to raise prices due to the risk that only those in poor health would buy insurance. The mandate also helps protect people with pre-existing conditions by incorporating regulations that prevent insurers from denying coverage based on a person's health status.
Furthermore, the mandate directly impacts insurance coverage and eligibility. For instance, until the application process is completed and the initial premium is paid, an individual is not covered by the insurance policy. Therefore, any medical expenses incurred during this time, such as hospitalization, would not be covered under the insurance policy until all conditions are met.
The nurse prepares a client newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus for discharge. the client is on a regimen of regular and nph insulin. which statement made by the client indicates that teaching is successful?
Answer:
"I need to buy special dietetic foods."
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the main statement that indicates that the teaching was successful would be "I need to buy special dietetic foods.". This is because diabetes mellitus is a group of diseases that result in too much sugar in the blood, therefore the individual affected with this needs to buy specific foods in order to lower their blood glucose levels and maintain them low.
Dan, age 45, is obese and has type 2 diabetes and has been having trouble getting his glycohemoglobin under control. He's heard that Exenatide (Byetta) causes weight loss and wants to try it. What do you tell him?
a. "Lets just adjust your oral antidiabetic agents instead."
b. "That's a myth. People usually change their eating habits when taking this and that's what causes the weight loss."
c. "With type 2 diabetes, you never want to be on injectable insulin
d. "Let's try it. You're glycohemoglobin will be lowered and you may lose weight."
Answer: d) "Let's try it. Your glycohemoglobin will be lowered and you may lose weight."
Explanation:
Dan can try Byetta since he is a type 2 diabetic, and Byetta is strictly for type 2 diabetes.
Byetta (Exenatide) is a man-made hormone injectible drug (incretin mimetics) which is used to treat people with type 2 diabetes. It helps lower blood sugar levels by increasing the secretion of insulin from the pancreas, which decreases the action of glucagon and slows down the absorption of glucose from the gut.
It reduces appetite, which is an advantage for Dan because it can help him achieve weight loss.
Which is not a legitimate reason to take anobolic steroids.
A) to gain an advantage over your opponent
B) low red blood count
C) delayed puberty
D) loss of function of testicles
Answer: D) loss of function of testicles
Explanation:
Whenever Hakim is at a party, he generally does not hear all of the conversations around him. However, if someone suddenly says Hakim's name while talking with someone else, his attention shifts to that conversation. The ability to tune out background noise and pay attention to only certain stimuli refers to the fact that attention:
Answer:
Is selective.
Explanation:
The fact that attention is selective means that we can focus on something in particular and turn off all the other things that we perceive in an environment. This is helpful when we want to focus on one thing, like listen to our professor, so we do not pay attention to what is going on in the room like mates talking, someone chewing, the noise outside, etc.
Foodborne illness, commonly referred to as __________________, is caused by ingesting any food or water contaminated with disease-causing microorganisms or chemicals.
Answer:
salmonella
Explanation:
Final answer:
Foodborne illness, commonly known as food poisoning, results from consuming food or water contaminated with pathogens or toxins. Symptoms range from gastrointestinal issues to more severe conditions, and prevention relies on strict food safety practices.
Explanation:
Foodborne illness, commonly referred to as food poisoning, is caused by ingesting any food or water contaminated with disease-causing microorganisms or chemicals. These illnesses can be either infectious or toxic in nature, stemming from pathogens such as pathogenic bacteria, viruses, or parasites, or from toxins produced by these organisms or from other sources like poisonous mushrooms or improperly prepared beans.
Consumption of contaminated food can lead to symptoms that include diarrhea, nausea, abdominal pain, and can sometimes result in more severe complications. Factors such as the type of microbe or toxin, the amount consumed, and the individual's immune system can affect the severity and duration of the illness. It's a misconception that symptoms always arise immediately after the last meal; in some cases, it may take days for symptoms to manifest.
Food safety practices, including proper food handling, cooking, and storing, play a crucial role in preventing foodborne illness. This is because raw foods can be contaminated during various stages such as harvest, processing, packaging, and even during preparation at home or in restaurants.
Public health functions are functions that provide services to the community. They target populations rather than individuals. They include child immunization programs, health screenings in schools, community health services, substance abuse programs, and sexually transmitted disease control.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a) True
Explanation:
Basic Public Health Functions
Monitor health status to identify and solve community health problems
Diagnose and investigate health problems and health hazards in the community
Inform, educate, and empower people about health issues
Mobilize community partnerships and action to identify and solve health problems
Develop policies and plans that support individual and community health efforts
Enforce laws and regulations that protect health and ensure safety
Link people to needed personal health services and assure the provision of health care when otherwise unavailable
Assure competent public and personal health care workforce
Evaluate effectiveness, accessibility, and quality of personal and population-based health services
Research for new insights and innovative solutions to health problems
A client is admitted with thrombocytopenia. What specific nursing actions are appropriate to include in the plan of care for this client? (Select all that apply.)1. Avoid intramuscular injections.2. Institute neutropenic precautions.3. Monitor the white blood cell count.4. Administer prescribed anticoagulants.5. Examine the skin for ecchymotic areas
Answer:
The correct answer is 1. Avoid intramuscular injections and 5. Examine the skin for ecchymotic areas
Explanation:
Platelets are important for clotting of blood in case of any injury. In the case of thrombocytopenia, the platelet count in the person gets decreases below 100,000/mm3, therefore, the person with thrombocytopenia can lose excess blood during an injury which can be life-threatening for them.
So in these patient intramuscular injection are avoided because it can cause bleeding into the skin which can be dangerous for client. These patients must be regularly examined for ecchymotic areas(the area beneath the skin where blood leaks due to damaged blood vessels) to avoid damage from internal bleeding. So 1 and 5 are the right option.
Dr. Ezekiel found a correlation of 0.73 between scores on a measure of physical exercise and pounds lost in a diet program in a sample of men over 40. This correlation coefficient indicates that:
Answer:
The correlation coefficient of 0.73 indicates that there is a moderate positive linear relationship between physical exercise and pounds lost in a diet program of a sample of men.
Explanation:
This correlation coefficient of 0.73 indicates that men who engage in physical exercise while on dietary regime show moderate weight loss.
Six hours after delivery, a postpartum client's fundus is found to be 2 cm above the umbilicus and deviated to the right. The nursing assessment is that the client's bladder is most likely full which is displacing the fundus.a) trueb) false
Answer:
Option B= false.
Explanation:
Okay, before delving into the question, let me explain some important terms in this question and the explanations is given below;
FUNDUS: Fundus is found at the upper region of the uterus. The height of Fundus can be measured and after like twenty weeks, the height of the Fundus is exactly or correspond to the numbers of week a pregnant woman has been pregnant.
BLADDER DISTENTION: it is caused by the blockage off the urethra. This blockage if urinary system cause the bladder to become bigger.
So, let us go back to the question, the nurse found out that the Fundus is 2 cm above the umbilicus and deviated to the right, and according to the nurse, this is caused by the bladder being full which is displacing the fundus, this is FALSE.
THE TRUTH OF THE MATTER IS THAT: there was BLEEDING MORE THAN NORMAL from the pregnant woman which cause the bladder TO SWELL and this pushes the FUNDUS to the Left.
Health care organizations will move more toward stand-alone operation and less on development of inter-organizational processes.
Answer and explanation:
Health care organizations will move more toward stand-alone operation and less on development of inter-organizational processes. This could be because, maybe isolated systems of work develops better results at the end rather than inter-organizational ones because there are times where teamwork doesn't go as planned because of differences on the person's working routines or ideas.
How long can the flu last?
Answer:
It honestly depends on how bad you got it.
Explanation:
For instance you could of caught it early and started meds right away.
But if you prolonged the meds it could last you quite a few weeks.
The flu, an acute disease, typically presents symptoms such as fever, chills, body aches that may last a week or more. The disease is generally self-limiting but in severe cases can lead to pneumonia and other complications. Vaccines are developed annually as a preventive measure against expected dominant strains.
Explanation:Influenza, commonly known as the flu, is an acute infectious disease caused by an Influenzavirus. The severity and duration of the flu can vary depending on the individual's immune response and any treatment received. In general, the symptoms of the flu - such as fever, chills, body aches, and cold-like symptoms - may last a week or more.
It's emphasized to stay home and rest when sick with the flu, especially when having a fever. It is considered an acute disease as pathologic changes occur over a relatively short time (e.g., hours, days, or a few weeks). Specifically, the incubation period for influenza is approximately 1-2 days and infected individuals can spread the virus for about 5 days after becoming ill. After approximately 1 week, individuals usually enter the period of recovery unless severe symptoms are present.
Although the flu is typically self-limiting, in severe cases it can lead to pneumonia and other complications. These severe cases and complications are more common in the very young and the elderly and may lengthen the duration of the flu. As a preventive measure, every year new influenza vaccines are developed to be effective against the expected dominant strains.
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The physician orders 10 mg of mafenide acetate applied to a burn twice daily. Available is 50 mg/15 mL. How many mL of mafenide acetate should you administer? Multiple Choice 15 mL 10 mL 7 mL 3 mL
Answer:
3 mL (twice daily)
Explanation:
The desired dosage equation can be computed using the formula:
[tex]x = \dfrac{desired\;dosage\times Quantity}{Stock\;on\;hand}[/tex]
In this case, the desired dosage is 10 mg and the quantity is 15 m and the stock on hand is 50 mg. So just plug that in the equation:
[tex]x = \dfrac{10mg\times 15mL}{50mg} = \dfrac{150mL}{50} = 3mL[/tex]
You can also do this by using the quantity/dose on hand as your conversion factor:
[tex]10mg\times\dfrac{15mL}{50mg} = \dfrac{150mL}{50} = 3mL[/tex]
Reginald Pisum was exposed to high doses of mutagenic compounds because of a bizarre industrial accident. Should he be concerned about having mutant children?
Answer:
Yes, mainly if mutations occur in gamete producing cells
Explanation:
Exposure to mutagens can cause changes on the DNA of either the person who was exposed and how to be inherited primarily if these mutagens affect gamete production. A clear example of this was in Chernobyl where many people were exposed to a mutagene such as the radiation that generated the explosion of the nuclear plant, many managed to survive but fathered children with multiple mutations.
The ______ movement was a direct result of the work done by Dorthea Dix, who felt that merely treating people well was sufficient to treat mental illness.
Answer:
The correct answer is mental hygiene.
Explanation:
Mental hygiene is well being or preventing mental illness. Mental hygiene is the ability to functioning at a level that is balanced at a satisfactory level on emotional and behavioral adjustment.
Mental hygiene is the science that helps in preventing mental illness by developing various programs. Dorthea Dix worked on mental hygiene to treating people with mental illness.
Thus, the correct answer is - mental hygiene.
A group of students is reviewing information about the etiology of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). The students demonstrate understanding of this information when they identify which as representing the bases for this disorder?
Answer:
The missing options are:
A) Kindling caused by overstimulation.
B) Exposure to multiple stressful life events.
C) Intense worry and stress about work or simple family life.
D) Inaccurate environmental danger assessment.
The correct answer is C) Intense worry and stress about work or simple family life.
Explanation:
The bases for generalized anxiety disorder are intense worry about different issues in life. The most common are work, family life, money, and health. People with GAD can not stop worrying about those things and feel that something will go wrong shortly.
A team of researchers is working on a new procedure that could result in the regrowth of neurons in the spinal cord. With which part of the nervous system is the team most concerned?
Answer:
The axons and the myelin sheath
Depending on the degree of injury,for the first two categories of nervous injury neuropraxia and axonotomesis, the myelin sheath and axons are usually severed not the cell body. The interest of the researchers will be to then increase growth and rate of regeneration of the axons which is usually 1mm per day
The client has had biomarkers tested after reporting chest pain. Which diagnostic marker of myocardial infarction remains elevated for as long as 2 weeks?
Answer:
Cardiac troponins ( I and T) remain elevated upto 2 weeks.
Explanation:
Troponins are the structural protiens which are released in the blood stream in cradiac ischemic conditions within 4 to 6 hours of an attack of myocardial infarction . Normally they act to regulate muscle contraction. Creatine kinase is also an important biomarker of myocardial infarction but they are not elevated for 2 weeks. Troponins are better biomarkers because of their specificity. These troponins are usually measured in the blood to differentiate between unstable angina and myocardial infarction in people presenting with pain in chest and acute coronary syndrome.
According to the map, which states have an above-average prevalence of food insecurity? Arkansas (AR), Maine (ME), Kentucky (KY) Florida (FL), California (CA), New York (NY) Wisconsin (WI), Vermont (VT), North Dakota (ND) South Dakota (SD), New Hampshire (NH), Alaska (AK)
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Based on the map, several states in the United States exhibit an above-average prevalence of food insecurity, These states, including Arkansas, Maine, Kentucky, Florida, Mississippi, Alabama, Oklahoma, Texas, and New Mexico, experience higher rates of food insecurity than the national average.
The map provides a visual representation of states in the United States with an elevated prevalence of food insecurity, indicating areas where individuals face challenges in accessing an adequate and nourishing food supply. States such as Arkansas, Maine, Kentucky, Florida, Mississippi, Alabama, Oklahoma, Texas, and New Mexico are depicted as having above-average rates of food insecurity.
This geographical distribution emphasizes the uneven impact of economic, social, and environmental factors on food accessibility. It underscores the urgency for tailored strategies, policies, and community initiatives to address the root causes of food insecurity and ensure that vulnerable populations in these states have reliable access to nutritious sustenance for their well-being.
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A health care researcher has identified the gene of interest in a particular genetic disorder as well as the gene's location, Xq97. Where would one find a gene named Xq97
Answer: One will find a gene named Xq97 on region 97 of long arm of X chromosome.
Explanation: When describing chromosomal address, long arm of chromosome is denoted by q while short arm of chromosome is denoted by p.
Where point (.) is used, the numbers after the point indicate the band number.
For example, one will find a gene named 10p2.21 on band 21, region 2 of short arm of chromosome 10.
That is;
10 = chromosome number
p = short arm of the chromosome
2 = region on the short arm
.21 = band in the region
Check attached image for better understanding.
The health care provider (HCP) prescribes mirtazapine 30 mg PO at bedtime for a client diagnosed with depression. Which nursing action is indicated?
Answer:
Should give the medicines as prescribed by the physician.
Explanation:
Mirtazapine is an antidepressant often prescribed to patients going through depression along with anxiety and sleeping disorders. It prescribed before bed because it induce sleep and therefore could not be taken during the day. No specific nursing action is needed in this case.
Final answer:
The nursing action for a prescription of mirtazapine 30 mg PO at bedtime for depression includes administering the medication, monitoring for side effects, and providing education and support to the patient. Nurses should also assess the patient's depression symptoms and potential risk for medication-related harm, such as monitoring after discharge or when new medications are prescribed.
Explanation:
The health care provider has prescribed mirtazapine 30 mg PO at bedtime for a client diagnosed with depression. The nursing action that is indicated includes administering the medication as prescribed, observing the patient for side effects such as drowsiness or changes in mood, and documenting the administration and response to the medication. It is important that the nurse provides the necessary education on medication management and reinforces the importance of taking the medication regularly as part of the treatment plan.
Additionally, the nurse should assess the patient for signs and symptoms of depression, as well as for risk of medication-related harm. Patients at high risk may require enhanced support, such as post-discharge contact by a nurse. The nurse may also need to discuss the patient's medication and dosage with a caregiver if they have questions or concerns, ensuring that the caregiver is aware of the correct usage of mirtazapine.
Nursing interventions can also include the recommendation of physical activity as part of the depression treatment program, as well as the consideration of various therapies such as psychotherapy, which can be effective in managing depression.
True or false: RBCs go through hemolysis after 120 days and it’s parts are recycled to make new RBCs
Answer:
True
Explanation:
every 4 months they use recycled parts on a RBC.
Answer: True
Explanation:
On pg. 341-342 of the textbook
A woman is in her early second trimester of pregnancy. The nurse would instruct the woman to return for a follow-up visit every:
1 week
2 weeks
3 weeks
4 weeks
Answer: 2 weeks
Explanation:
In her early second trimester, a woman should return for a follow-up visit every 4 weeks. This frequency can vary based on her medical history or any complications.
Explanation:A woman in her early second trimester of pregnancy should ideally have follow-up visits every 4 weeks (once a month). This is a standard prenatal care routine suggested by healthcare professionals to monitor the health of both the mother and the baby. However, the frequency of visits can change based on medical history or any complications that arise during the pregnancy.
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Identify program objectives, and target markets, for each of the following health and fitness settings: (a) worksite, (b) commercial, (c) community, and (d) clinical.
Answer:
Check explanation.
Explanation:
In order to improve the health sector, in the year 1986, the World Health Organization (WHO) proposed a '' Health Promotion'' scheme.
(1). WORKSITE: the program objectives, and target markets, for worksite in terms of health and fitness settings are given below;
==>Target market for worksite=> for workers/employees.
===> Objectives: to provide a conducive and safe atmosphere/surroundings for employers to work in order to enhance productivity.
(2). COMMERCIAL: the program objectives, and target markets, for worksite in terms of health and fitness settings are given below;
Target markets==> everybody.
Objectives===> to increase the health and fitness of everyone.
(3). COMMUNITY: the program objectives, and target markets, for worksite in terms of health and fitness settings are given below;
Target market: specific community.
Objectives: to a certain group or community, the objective is to give or promote the community's well-being.
(d). CLINICAL: the program objectives, and target markets, for worksite in terms of health and fitness settings are given below;
Target markets: patients.
Objectives: to help patients set fitness goals
Final answer:
In a worksite setting, the program objectives are related to employee health and productivity, while in a commercial setting, the objectives are focused on attracting customers and promoting a healthy lifestyle. In a community setting, the objectives aim to improve community health outcomes and increase access to fitness resources, and in a clinical setting, the objectives are centered around preventing and managing chronic diseases and providing evidence-based treatment.
Explanation:
In a worksite setting, program objectives may include improving employee health and wellness, reducing healthcare costs, and increasing productivity. The target market for this setting would be the employees of the company.
In a commercial setting, program objectives may include attracting and retaining customers, increasing revenue, and promoting a healthy lifestyle. The target market for this setting would be the general public who are interested in fitness.
In a community setting, program objectives may include promoting health equity, improving community health outcomes, and increasing access to fitness resources. The target market for this setting would be the members of the community.
In a clinical setting, program objectives may include preventing and managing chronic diseases, improving patient outcomes, and providing evidence-based treatment. The target market for this setting would be patients who require healthcare services.
Michelle is an engineering graduate. She tried cocaine at a friend's party, and it gave her an altered state of consciousness. She gradually became a regular user of the substance. With every use, she increased the chance of using the substance again. Identify this process of repeated use.
This process is called reinforcement.
A woman is admitted at 24 weeks' gestation with rupture of membranes, maternal fever, and premature labor. The care team offers the parents counseling. What is likely to be helpful?
Explanation:
As the source says “ It is worth obtaining up-to-date outcome data for your institution or region, or using the Neonatal Resuscitation Program Web site and National Instutite of Child Health & Human Development estimator for national data. “
There is no doubt that this is the most stressful event a mother could witness.
She should have her dear and close people in this delicate and private event.
The scenario relates to preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM). In this situation, counseling for the parents should cover potential outcomes, risks, and benefits of intervention. Discussions may revolve around the need for neonatal intensive care, antibiotics, and corticosteroids.
Explanation:The presented scenario pertains to a medical condition typically termed as preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM). Within this situation, counseling can be greatly beneficial for the parents. The scope of counseling should include possibilities and potential outcomes, along with the risks and benefits of various interventions.
For instance, the parents should be informed that the baby may require neonatal intensive care due to the risks of infection, respiratory distress syndrome, or intraventricular hemorrhage associated with premature birth. They should also be counseled about the need for antibiotics to lower the risk of infection and possibly corticosteroids to promote the baby's lung development.
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Your great aunt collapses. As she regains consciousness she has difficulty speaking and one side of her face and body appear to be paralyzed. These signs lead you to believe your great aunt has:________.
Answer:
Stroke or seizure
Answer:
stroke
Explanation:
When you have a stroke it affects your brain and nerves. she can't speak because of the brain damage and nerve damage affected her face.
Hope this helps:)
There seems to be no biomarkers to identify for chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE). Following autopsy, what brain anatomical aberrations will one look for to conclude that the individual has suffered CTE?
Answer: Abnormal form of p-tau
Explanation: CTE is caused by repeated blows to the head. A conclusive diagnosis of CTE can only be made after death, when an autopsy ideally can be carried out to see if the brain changes associated with CTE are present.
CTE is a tauopathy characterized by tangles of an abnormal form of the protein tau (hyperphosphorytated tau) such as neurofibrillary tangles, astrocytes tangles in the brain.
These tangles appear around small blood vessels of the cortex and beta-amyloid plaques are only present in certain circumstances which are associated with age.
Stress has been associated with increased blood pressure and inflammatory responses. These are most closely associated with an increased risk for_____________
Answer:
Stress has been associated with increased blood pressure and inflammatory responses. These are most closely associated with an increased risk for cardiovascular diseases.
Explanation:
Stress and increased blood pressure are the major reasons for cardiovascular diseases such as a heart attack. Stress can cause spasm of the coronary blood vessels. Chronic stress caused high blood pressure which when remained uncontrolled can cause the death of the person. Stress causes more chances for a stroke to occur. Hence, stress and increased blood pressure are related to many cardiovascular diseases.