Answer:
what are the answer choices???
Explanation:
While Maria was stacking her term paper, she received a paper cut. The cut produced a sharp pain on her index finger. This pain was initiated by _____ in her skin.
The pain Maria felt from the paper cut was caused by nociceptors in the skin. These sensory neurons respond to damaging stimuli, sending pain signals to the brain. This defense mechanism alerts us to potential harm.
Explanation:The sharp pain that Maria experienced when she received a paper cut on her index finger was initiated by nociceptors in her skin. Nociceptors are sensory neurons that respond to potentially damaging stimuli by sending signals to the brain, resulting in the sensation of pain. These are widely distributed in the body, including the skin and mucosal surfaces, and are particularly concentrated in areas sensitive to pain.
When Maria's skin was cut by the paper, the nociceptors were stimulated and sent a message along the sensory nerves to her spinal cord. From there, the signal traveled up to the brain, where it was interpreted as pain. This is a part of the body's defense mechanism that alerts us to potential injury, prompting us to withdraw from whatever is causing the harm.
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You are sleeping at the station while on shift. The tones go off loudly and lights instantly come on. You jump out of bed and quickly put on your clothes and run out to the apparatus bay. Your heart rate is elevated, you are breathing faster, and wide awake. What stage of the stress response are you experiencing
Answer:
The correct answer is Alarm Reaction or Alarm Stage.
Explanation:
Alarm stage is also called as a fight and flight stage. During this stage, our brain sends signals to all the parts of the body and informs the body that some emergency situation has arised.
Due to this emergency situation, our heart starts beating faster which in turn sends more blood to the various parts of the body, adrenals glands enhances the release of stress hormone called cortisol and our body receives a kick of adrenaline rush which in turn boosts energy.
A diabetic educator is discussing ""sick day rules"" with a newly diagnosed type 1 diabetic. The educator is aware that the client will require further teaching when the client states what?
Answer:
The answer is I will not take my insulin on the days when I am sick, but I will certainly check my blood sugar every 2 hours.
Explanation:
The important thing for a patient with diabetes type 1 is that he should not skip insulin even is he is sick. Some people require more insulin on days when they are sick than on healthy days.
Also, the doctor usually recommends to check blood glucose levels at least 4 to 10 times a day if you are suffering from diabetes type 1.
A diabetes educator will know a client needs further teaching if the client states they do not need to monitor blood glucose or adjust insulin during sick days. Educators teach that it is essential to manage blood sugar carefully to avoid complications. Continuous education and knowledge updates are crucial for maintaining optimal patient care.
Explanation:When a client with Type 1 diabetes articulates that they do not need to monitor their blood glucose levels or adjust their insulin dosage during illness, it indicates the need for further education from the diabetes educator. During sick days, it is crucial for individuals with Type 1 diabetes to frequently monitor their blood glucose levels because illness can cause unpredictable changes. They may need to adjust their insulin dosage according to the readings to prevent both hyperglycemia (high blood sugar) and hypoglycemia (low blood sugar). Additionally, maintaining hydration and following a sick-day diet plan are important to manage their condition effectively. Diabetes educators also emphasize the importance of not skipping insulin doses even if the individual is not eating normally, as insulin is still necessary to control blood sugar levels.
Diabetes educators must keep abreast of current developments in diabetes care by attending meetings and familiarizing themselves with the latest literature on diabetes medications, nutrition, and blood monitoring devices. This knowledge is vital to guide patients appropriately in managing their diabetes effectively, especially on sick days. Understanding the challenges faced by students with diabetes in educational settings, such as difficulties in managing blood sugar levels, finding time and space for care, and coping with schools' lack of resources, is also part of a diabetes educator’s role.
Kane, a college senior, has been a moderate drinker for the past two years. Now, he needs more drinks than he did two years ago to feel "buzzed," which suggests that he has developed ________.
Answer:
a tolerance
Explanation:
Answer:
Alcohol addiction
Explanation:
This means that he can't stay for too long without alcohol. He relies on alcohol to get active.
Most drugs that interfere with viral multiplication also interfere with host cell function. True or False
A child was diagnosed with attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder and methylphenidate was prescribed for treatment to be taken once a day in a sustained release form. On future visits what is a priority nursing assessment for this child?A.Weight and heightB.Breath sounds and respiratory rateC.Urine output and kidney functionD.Electrocardiogram (ECG) and echocardiogram
Answer:
A.Weight and height
Explanation:
Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder , ADHD, is known or regarded as a mental disorder or neurobehavior disorder which result to learning difficulty in children. It is considered to be a psychiatric disorder that occur in children.
There are things that can contribute to tGenes.
* Cigarette smoking, alcohol use, or drug use during pregnancy.
* Exposure to environmental toxins during pregnancy.
* Exposure to environmental toxins, such as high levels of lead, at a young age.
* Low birth weight.
* Brain injurieshis disorder, they include.
Methylphenidate is the drug that can be used to treat Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder. And some of its side effects are loss of appetite, weight loss, dizziness, nausea, vomiting, or headache.
In this case, the priority nursing assessment for the child will be on weight and height.
Which of the following statements is a false or incorrect statement?
a. Damage to the primary auditory cortex results in the inability to interpret pitch, loudness, and location.
b. Damage to the primary motor cortex results only in the loss of both voluntary muscle control and reflexes.
c. Damage to the premotor cortex results in loss of motor skills programmed in that area but the movement is still possible.
d. Damage to the primary visual cortex results in functional blindness.
Answer:
Damage to the primary motor cortex results only in the loss of both voluntary muscle control and reflexes.
Explanation:
Izzy has been diagnosed with unipolar depression. Family pedigree studies suggest that her identical twin sister, Cerole, would have about a _____ percent chance of also developing unipolar depression.
Answer:
Izzy has been diagnosed with unipolar depression. Family pedigree studies suggest that her identical twin sister, Cerole, would have about a 46 percent chance of also developing unipolar depression.
Explanation:
Twin studies with unipolar depression demonstrate a strong genetic component :
Concordance rates for identical ( monozygotic) twins = 46%Concordance rates for fraternal ( Dizygotic ) twins = 20%Adoption studies also have implicated a genetic factor in cases of severe unipolar depression.
Using technique from te field of molecular biology, researchers have found evidence that unipolar depression maybe tied to specific genes.
You have come upon an incident. After ensuring that the scene is safe, you approach a child who is awake and alert and determine that the child is experiencing respiratory distress. Without further inspection, you immediately know that the: Group of answer choices
Answer:
Child's heart is still beating
Explanation:
Respiratory distress occurs when fluid builds up in your lungs in the tiny, elastic air sacs. The fluid prevents your lungs from filling in ample air, ensuring less oxygen enters your bloodstream. This deprives the organs of the oxygen which they need to function.
They have severe shortness of breath and often are unable to breathe on their own without support from a ventilator. Treatment includes oxygen, fluid management and medication.
An officer stops an individual for the purposes of a Terry stop; he has reasonable suspicion to do so. During the frisk he finds a small handgun, for which the person has a valid license to own and permit to carry. He also finds a small baggie of cocaine. Can he seize the cocaine and use it as evidence at trial?
Answer:
Yes, He can as He discovered it during the risk and search.
Explanation:
The Police officer have the right to seize the illegal drugs as evidence, one because the drugs are illegal and two he found it on the person during the frisk.
The drugs will serve as an evidence to his claims when the need arises.
Genna is collecting data on how well the organization has done since their new strategy was implemented. She is in what stage of the managerial decision making process?
Genna is in the data analysis stage of the managerial decision making process, which is akin to the 'Check' phase in the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle, where the effectiveness of a strategy is evaluated through trend and gap analyses.
Genna is collecting data to measure the success of a new strategy within her organization. She is in the stage of managerial decision making that involves analyzing data and assessing the strategy's effectiveness. This stage is critical for determining whether the intended goals are being met and for deciding on further action. It can be compared to the 'Check' phase of the Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycle, where data collected during the 'Do' phase is evaluated. This is the point where managers frequently engage in trend analysis and gap analysis to understand better the outcomes of their implemented strategies.
Wanda reads a research report that says that a recent study found a correlation between oatmeal and cancer: the more oatmeal a person eats, the greater the risk of being diagnosed with cancer. Wanda immediately concludes that she needs to stop eating oatmeal for breakfast. What is wrong with this conclusion
Answer:
The thing wrong with the conclusion is that the conclusion was made without data.
Explanation:
Data from scientific researches can be group into quantitative or qualitative researches, qualitative data is one that is non-numerical, and at best organizes and characterizes, e.g, eye colors as brown, blue, yellow e.t.c, while quantitative data are numerical data.
The type of study described here is a correlation study, and correlation studies are almost always quantitative studies, hence, data should be available in the report on the exact quantity of oatmeal that puts one at risk of development of cancer. Knowledge of this, will influence decision as to what the safe dosage of oatmeal is to be taken. Therefore, Wanda's stoppage of consumption of oatmeal is made without data support, and this is a wrong conclusion.
Secondly, scientific researches are considered accurate can be used to make decisions if they are reproducible. Wanda cannot trust the validity of a single report to make her decision, there must be at least two different researches with the same result before decisions such as this can be made.
Answer:
The conclusion reflects the erroneous belief that a correlation establishes causality
Explanation:
The conclusion reflects the erroneous belief that a correlation establishes causality because the event where happening at the same time in which she decide to stop taking oatmeal because it correlates with cancer due to the fact that any change in one variable will cause a change in another variable, meaning one variable makes other to happen.
Because the event correlate together does not mean that the change in one variable is the cause of the change in the other variable eventhough causation indicates that one event is the result of the occurrence of the other event
Therefore if an event correlate it does not imply causation based on the belief that correlation establishes causality.
How is the identification of these thoughts accomplished? A :One type of thought will cause much more overall activity than another.
B: computer examines the response in one particular part of the brain.
C: The team looks at whether the right or left hemisphere of the brain becomes more active.
D: A computer analyzes the pattern of activity recorded in several regions of the brain.
Answer: The identification of these thoughts are accomplished by D; A computer analyzes the pattern of activity recorded in several regions of the brain.
Explanation:
There are several types of brain scanning methods used that help scientists and doctors learn about the brain and its functions. It is the clinical psychology department that develops new methods of treatments for patients. When using brain scanning technology, the doctor will ask a serious of questions to the person/group and watch the pattern being recorded. They can then determine several things such as, what part of the brain is responsible for thinking, laughing, eating, etc.
Researchers use two types of groups in experiments to learn about the brain among other things. They use control groups and experimental groups.
In a Gallup Survey, 90% of the people interviewed were unaware that maintaining a healthy weight could reduce the risk of stroke. If 15 people are selected at random, find the probability that at least 9 are unaware that main- taining a proper weight could reduce the risk of stroke.
In a Gallup Survey, 90% of the people interviewed were unaware that maintaining a healthy weight could reduce the risk of stroke. If 15 people are selected at random, find the probability that at least 9 are unaware that maintaining a proper weight could reduce the risk of stroke.
From a binomial point of view, n=15, p = 0.9, and 9<=x<=15
Using a TI calculator: the calculations goes like this;
P(9<=x<=15) = 1 - binomcdf(15,0.9,8) = 0.999689
Several months after watching a science fiction movie about spaceship travel and alien abductions, Steve began to remember that he had been abducted by aliens and personally subjected to many of the horrors portrayed in the movie. His mistaken recall best illustrates _________.a) implicit memory
b) the spacing effect
c) source amnesia
d) mood-congruent memory
Answer:
The correct answer is c) source amnesia .
Explanation:
In psychology, source amnesia occurs when it is impossible for the person to remember events or situations lived in the past. This type of amnesia is directly related to the functioning of explicit memory and the aforementioned disconnection is presumed to be the result of a dissociation between semantic and episodic memory.
A client recently diagnosed with an injury to the articular cartilage of the knee asks the nurse how long it will take the injury to heal. Which of the following statements is the best response from the nurse?
"Regeneration of most cartilage is slow. These injuries can take a long time to heal."
Answer:
These injuries can take a long time to heal.
Explanation:
Intra-articular cartilage takes time to heal when compared to cartilages that are not intra-articular. Exposure of the injured cartilage to synovial fluid within the joint space will hinder heal. Synovial fluid has been known to inhibit healing because it has lytic effect on the structures.
Since cartilages heal slowly, it requires more time for intra-articular cartilages to heal.
Answer:
'Cartilages regeneration is always slow. These injuries can take a long time to heal'.
Explanation:
Anatomically, cartilages are sets of connective tissues which are avascular. That is they lack blood vessels. Thus their cells lack supply of nutrients, and oxygen, and are therefore of low metabolic activities.They obtain their supplies from adjacent connective tissues through diffusion.
Therefore when damaged, their regeneration is very slow (except in kids) because of slow metabolic rates, and lack of needed materials for mitotic cell division for growth and regeneration.
They usually undergo the process of scar formation which is very slow to regenerate.This explains why the option above is the correct one.
Sigmund Freud postulated that young boys have an unconscious desire to replace their fathers and win their mother's exclusive love. He called this the _____ complex.
Answer:
the Oedipus complex
Explanation:
The Oedipus complex is that super ego complex exhibited by young boy. Here they are characterised by the desire to replace their fathers and to win the exclusive love of their mother's.
Answer:
Oedipus Complex
Explanation:
Oedipus complex Occurs when their is rivalry between the parent due to the child love for the opposite sex parent and it is an important developmental phase every child goes through which is consider a normal childhood stage of psychological development.
A child's may have feelings of desire for his parents and jealousy and anger toward his or her same sex parent.
According to Sigmund Freud postulated that young boys have an unconscious desire to replace their fathers and win their mother's exclusive love due to Oedipus complex that unconsciously occurs to the child because of the love the child has for his mother rather than is father because they are of the same sex.
Therefore Oedipus Complex is the rivalry a child develops with their same-sex parent.
Most people believe that bodybuilding requires huge amounts of dietary protein and that it is impossible to do it on a vegetarian diet. This is not the case. Wayne, a 27-year-old college student who has always been a vegetarian, wants to prove that it is indeed possible to build muscle on a vegetarian diet and that it can be done without protein supplements. To prepare for his training, Wayne gathers all the advice he can find about training regimes and then sits down to plan his diet. Wayne is 5 ft, 8 in tall and weighs 183 lb. How much protein does Wayne need to consume daily to meet his increased requirement during training?Round the number of grams to the nearest whole number. During calculations, use numbers rounded to the first decimal place. Because protein requirement is a range, please enter two numbers: lower and upper range values, respectively. Separate the lower and upper range values, in that order, by a ,.
Answer: 100-150 grams
Explanation: Wayne's requires 100 to 150 grams protein per day, which
should be easily met on a balanced vegetarian diet, especially one that has dairy products and eggs
Final answer:
Wayne, a vegetarian athlete, needs to consume 100 to 166 grams of protein daily to support his weightlifting regimen, considering the lower digestibility of plant-based proteins and the higher requirements for muscle repair and growth.
Explanation:
Wayne, a vegetarian athlete and weightlifter, is looking to meet his daily protein needs through a vegetarian diet without the use of protein supplements. To calculate the protein requirement for someone like Wayne who is engaged in muscle-building exercises, we consider that athletes require more protein than the general population, which is typically recommended at 0.8 grams per kilogram of body weight. In Wayne's case, he weighs 183 pounds (83.0 kilograms after conversion and rounding).
The recommended range of protein intake for weightlifting athletes is from 1.2 to 2.0 grams of protein per kilogram of body weight. However, considering Wayne's vegetarian diet, which tends to have protein of lower digestibility, and the need for a range of intake, he should aim for the upper end of this range. Therefore, multiplying Wayne's weight in kilograms by the protein requirement range gives us 83.0 kg * 1.2 g/kg = 99.6 g and 83.0 kg * 2.0 g/kg = 166.0 g of protein per day. After rounding, we should recommend Wayne to consume between 100 to 166 grams of protein daily. This upper range of protein intake is recommended to compensate for the potentially lower protein quality and digestibility of plant-based proteins.
John, a minor, badly injured his leg in a bicycle accident and needs surgery. What procedure needs to be followed in this case?
OA John's parents or a guardian must give consent.
B. John can give consent.
OC. The surgeon does not require consent.
D. Any of John's friends can give consent.
Answer:A John's parents or a guardian must give consent.
B. John can give consent.
Explanation: john can give consent if he's not in coma, and if he's up to 18 years of age
Also John's parent or Guardian can give consent, if John is not up to 18 years of age or he's in coma.
An anesthesiologist completes preoperative teaching for a patient the night before surgery. The patient asks the nurse to clarify the reason methohexital [Brevital] will be given as an adjunct to the anesthetic. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding?A. Brevital allows a larger amount of inhaled anesthetic to be used without increased side effects.B. Brevital is given to enhance the analgesic and muscle relaxation effects of the inhaled anesthetic.C. Brevital is used to produce rapid unconsciousness before administration of the inhaled anesthetic.D. Brevital is used to reduce cardiovascular and respiratory depression caused by the inhaled anesthetic.
Answer:
C. Brevital is used to produce rapid unconsciousness before administration of the inhaled anesthetic.
Explanation:
Brevital are usually given through the vein so as to induce Anaesthesia. Due to its rapid onset it is best it is followed up immediately by administering anaesthesia. The anaesthesia should be inhaled because it doesnt change the effect of inhaled anaesthesia. Methohexital (Brevital) has very weak analgesic and muscle relaxation effects.
List one way stigma can impact those with mental disorders.
Answer:
Stigma might occur when individual sees you in the negative ways and represent you as a negative person in front of the society. This stigma can affects the healthy as well as mental state individual.
The stigma can cause the feeling of the shame, hopelessness, physical assessment and self doubt. The stigma can cause the feeling of insecurity and create the feeling of inequality. The individual think that the mental illness should be hidden as this might acts as stigma for the individual.
Adam's parents are not concerned about their son's ability to adapt to college because he is curious, demonstrates an openness to ideas, and looks for solutions to problems. These qualities are reflective of Adam's _______________ wellness.
Answer:
Intellectual
Explanation:
Intellectual can be described or explained as the ability of placing a high value on or pursues things of interest with intelligence and curiosity. This means that a person with this ability does not require no or minimal monitoring or supervision , because he/she knows what to do, where to look and how to go about it in achieving the desired or expected result.
These people are sometimes refer to as intellectuals.
In this case, Adams as described believed to possess the qualities of an intellectual person, and this make the minds of his parents to be at peace.
According to some research, gestures and facial expressions are more accurate tools for decoding emotions than tone of voice, volume, and rate of speech. Question 4 options: True False
Answer:
The correct answer is - true.
Explanation:
Aspects of body language such as facial expressions, gestures are important non verbal communication tools that help in detecting the emotion of an individual. Verbal communication tools are also important to detect emotions, however, Body language is more essential than verbal communication tools.
Facial expressions are helpful to recognize if an individual is happy, sad, that can easily experience on face of of a particular person.
Thus, the correct answer is - true.
An adult is swinging a small child by the arms, and the child screams and grabs his left arm. It is determined in the emergency department that the radial head is partially dislocated. What is this partially dislocated radial head documented as?
Volkmann's contracture
Subluxation
Compartment syndrome
Sprain
Answer:
Subluxation
Explanation:
Subluxation refers to a partial or incomplete dislocation of a particular joint.
Volkmann's contracture is a deformity of the hands and wrist as a result of muscle injury at the forearm. This deformity is usually permanent.
Compartment syndrome is by constriction as a result of increase in internal bleeding or the swelling of structure like nerves or tendons. It can lead to palsy.
Sprain is the stretching or injury of ligaments that surrounds a joint.
Therefore the partially dislocated radial head documented as subluxation
The highest level of decision making, which involves decisions by the members of the top management concerning the organization's goals, overall strategy, and structure, is the ________ plan.
Answer:
Corporate Level plan
Explanation:
corporate-level plan occurs when top management of company or organisation makes a decision that will benefit the whole company. It may be in term of the company 's finance, human resources, employees or company business environment.
Corporate-Level plan are also top management’s plan to manage and direct the entire concern in order to achieve its aims and objectives.
Therefore The highest level of decision making, which involves decisions by the members of the top management concerning the organization's goals, overall strategy, and structure, is the CORPORATE LEVEL PLAN.
The highest level of decision-making is the CORPORATE-LEVEL plan.
Decision-making refers to choosing the right and effective actions from different alternatives for the purpose of achieving a given outcome.Decision-making can be divided into strategic decisions, tactical decisions, and operational decisions.A corporate level is a maximum level used to define, outline and achieve specific objectives in decision-making.In conclusion, the highest level of decision-making is the CORPORATE-LEVEL plan.
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A 50-year old teacher presents to the urgent care clinic for evaluation of paralysis in her face. She has a history of upper respiratory infection 2 weeks before the onset of these symptoms. She states that her face is dropping and that she is unable to close her eye. on physical examination, you note that her forehead is smooth on the right side, her palpebral fissure appears widened, and her nasolabial fold appears flattened, and she is drooling. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer:Bell’s Palsy,
Explanation:Bell’s Palsy is the sudden severe weakness or paralysis of one side of the face. It is believe to be mostly caused by the swollen of the nerves that control the facial expression of the face.
Mr. S. has stage IV lung cancer and was admitted to your unit yesterday because of shortness of breath. His breathing has improved with treatment and you tell him you are hoping to get to know him better so you can provide the best care possible. Which of the following statements reflects your interest in getting to know him? A) "Can you tell me what has given your life meaning?" B) "Do you know much about your disease?" C) "Is your cancer treatment helping you?" D) "If I can do anything to help you, let me know."
Answer:
Can you tell me what has given your life meaning.
Explanation:
Cancer is one of the most deadly disease that has killed large number of individuals. Cancer might occur due to the mutation in the tumor suppressor gene and the genes that regulate the progression of the cell cycle.
The cancer can be treated by the surgical as well as chemotherapy treatment. As the health care profession, the individual must know about the life and medical history of the patient. The struggles that are faced by the cancer patient and their their problems will help them to treat the patient properly. The statement about the life meaning illustrates the interest of both the patient and care taker.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
Tani Becker is a 23-year-old college student majoring in equine studies. Tani has been riding horses since she was 5 years old. This evening, the equine team is practicing for the upcoming competition with events in barrel racing, pole bending, keyhole,showmanship, and trail classes. Tani does not have her helmet with her. She tells her friend she inadvertently left her helmet in the car and her sister has taken the car to work. Tani knows the team policy states that the members must wear protective headgear while riding; she has always worn a helmet. Her riding coach is teaching a class and is not at the practice. With the pressure of the upcoming competition, Tani decides to practice just this one time without a helmet. As she was rounding her first barrel, the horse swerves quickly, throwing her off.Tanis vital signs remain stable. She is drowsy, but easily aroused. She continues to complain of a headache. Which assessment findings would you need to report to the health care provider immediately?
Answer: "Medical Necessity"
Explanation: "Medically Necessary" or "Medical Necessity" means health care services that a physician, exercising prudent clinical judgment, would provide to a patient. The service must be: For the purpose of evaluating, diagnosing, or treating an illness, injury, disease, or its symptoms.
Answer:
i would go for medical necessity as well good luck
Explanation:
The antivenom used to treat a venomous snake bite is an antibody produced in an animal such as a horse. Suppose these antibodies are injected into a patient who has been bitten by a venomous snake. How would you classify the resulting humoral immunity?
Answer:
Passive artificially acquired immunity
Explanation:
Passive immunity is the immunity in which antibodies that fight against the antigen is acquired from outside the body. The passive immunity can be divided into natural passive immunity and artificially acquired passive immunity.
In natural immunity naturally produced antibody from mother goes into baby through breastfeeding and in Passive artificially acquired immunity the antibodies are synthesized artificially in some animals and introduced in the person.
For example, antivenoms are passive artificially acquired immunity because in this case the antibodies from horse serum which was raised against that venom is introduced into the person who is bitten by the venomous snake.
The humoral immunity produced by injecting antivenom containing antibodies is an example of passive immunity, providing immediate but temporary protection.
Explanation:The humoral immunity involved in treating a venomous snake bite through the injection of antivenom, which contains antibodies produced in another animal like a horse, would be classified as passive immunity. This is because the antibodies are introduced from an external source rather than being produced by the patient’s own immune system. Passive immunity provides immediate protection, but it is not long-lasting, as these antibodies will eventually be cleared from the patient's system.
The resulting humoral immunity can be classified as passive immunity. When the antivenom, which contains antibodies produced in a horse, is injected into a patient who has been bitten by a venomous snake, it provides immediate protection without the patient's immune system having to mount its own response. This is because the injected antibodies directly neutralize the venom and prevent further harm.
What theory argues that punishments for rule violators are unequally distributed, with those near the top of society subject to more lenient rules and sanctions than those at the bottom?
Answer:
conflict theory.
Explanation:
Conflict theories are perspectives in sociology and social psychology that emphasize a materialist interpretation of history, dialectical method of analysis, a critical stance toward existing social arrangements, and political program of revolution or, at least, reform. Conflict theories draw attention to power differentials, such as class conflict, and generally contrast historically dominant ideologies. It is therefore a macro-level analysis of society.
Karl Marx is regarded as the father of social conflict theory, which is a component of the four major paradigms of sociology. Certain conflict theories set out to highlight the ideological aspects inherent in traditional thought. While many of these perspectives hold parallels, conflict theory does not refer to a unified school of thought, and should not be confused with, for instance, peace and conflict studies, or any other specific theory of social conflict.