Answer: deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
Explanation:
DNA is the main hereditary material that distinguishes living from non-living things.
It is so because its replication i.e DNA replication can ONLY occur in the cell of a living organism. That is why even virus replicate it's DNA only in a living host not else where.
So, DNA is the answer
Fresh foods lose nutritive value and spoil over time. People in urban areas often live far from the farms where fresh foods are grown. As a result, they can have a hard time accessing nutritious foods. Community gardens in high-density urban areas offer a solution to this problem, in that they allow people to grow their own fresh produce.
Which part of this problem would community gardens most likely solve?
A. Financial cost
B. Aesthetics
C. Safety
D. Public health
Answer:
Community garden would solve the "public health" problem
Explanation:
Community garden is a land where different fruits, vegetables and other plants are grown in shared land so as to meet the kitchen requirement. In the community garden people work combinedly in order to make a beautiful as well as productive space. Community garden idea allows people to interact with neighbors and can spend some time outdoor, able to make new friends in the colony and it can help in maintaining the mental and public health.
Answer:
public health
Explanation:
just finished the test on ap.ex
Part A - Identifying X-linked inheritance in pedigrees
You are investigating the inheritance of two rare conditions (A and B) in an extended family of thoroughbred racehorses. You have constructed the following pedigree for these conditions.
Identify the inheritance mode of each condition by using the labels to complete the table. Labels can be used once, more than once, or not at all.
Condition A Inheritance Mode: _____________________ ?
Condition B Inheritance Mode: _____________________ ?
PICK ANSWER FROM THESE CHOICES:
A) Autosomal Dominant
B) X-linked Dominant
C) X-linked Recessive
D) Autosomal Recessive
Sex-linked inheritance refers to genes linked to the sexual chromosomes, while autosomal inheritance refers to genes placed in autosomal chromosomes. Condition A: Option D / Condition B: Option C
--------------------------
According to the pedigree, we can assume that
Condition A Inheritance Mode is Autosomal RecessiveCondition B Inheritance Mode is X-linked RecessiveLet us first remember a few concepts,
Sex-linked ⇒ Refers to the gene that is linked to one of the sex chromosomes. In general, genes are linked to the X chromosome.
Autosomal ⇒ These genes affect men and women equally because they are located on autosomal chromosomes.
Also, remember that in a pedigree,
Circles represent women or females.Squares represent men or males. Empty symbols are healthy or not affected individuals.Solid symbols represent affected individuals.Each individual can be represented with a letter o a number.Generations are represented with roman numbers.Now, let us analyze each condition
Condition A.
This condition appears only in the female II-6. This female has two brothers, both of them not expressing the condition. Their parents do not express the condition either.If the condition was dominant, at least one of the parents should be heter0zyg0us expressing it. So we can assume that the condition is recessive and that female II6 is h0m0zyg0us recessive for that trait.
If the gene coding for this condition was sex-linked, then the mother of woman II6 should be heter0zyg0us, and the father should be affected.
The fact that individuals I-3 and I-4 (father and mother) do not express the condition, and only individual 6 does, suggests that the gene coding for this trait is autosomal recessive.
Both parents must be heter0zyg0us for the trait, the brothers might be either h0m0zyg0us dominant or heter0zyg0us, and the affected woman is h0m0zyg0us recessive.
So let us make a short cross:
Cross) man I-3 x woman I-4
Parentals) Aa x Aa
Gametes) A a A a
Punnett square) A a
A AA Aa
a Aa aa
F1) 3/4 AA + Aa ⇒ individuals II-5 and II-7
1/4 aa ⇒ individual II-6
According to this analysis, Condition A Inheritance Mode is Autosomal Recessive (Option D).
Condition B.
This condition appears in individuals I-2, III-1, III-3, and IV-2.All the other individuals do not express the condition.The fact that the condition is mostly affecting men, excepting for individual
IV-2, suggests that the gene coding for this trait could be sex-linked.
If it was dominant, at least one of the individuals II-1 and II-2 should carry the dominant allele and should express the trait.
The fact that these individuals do not express the trait, but their III-1 son does, suggests that this is a recessive trait.
According to this analysis, Condition B Inheritance Mode is X-linked Recessive (Option C).
------------------------------------
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Match the following.
Part A
1. night blindness
2. color blindness
3. hyperopia
4. myopia
5. astigmatism
Part B
a. trouble distinguishing colors
b. eyeball too short
c. vitamin A deficiency
d. eyeball too long
e. light refracted aspherically
night blindness-vitamin A deficiency
color blindness - trouble distinguishing colors
hyperopia-eyeball too short
myopia-eyeball too long
astigmatism-light refracted aspherically.
Explanation:Night blindness is defined as the disease which involves the mal production of retinol in the rod cells of retina. This leads to the decreased sensitivity of eye to dim light.
Similarly, colour blindness is a genetic disease which is characterised by absence of a particular pigment in cone cells. This restricts the vision of a particular colour.
Hyperopia or hypermetropia is the shortening of eyeball which leads to the focusing of light rays behind the retina. So convex lenses are required to focus them on retina.
Myopia is the opposite of hypermetropia where the eyeball is elongated and the light rays doesn't reach the retina. So concave lens are required to focus the rays on retina.
Astigmatism is the case where the curvature of lens isn't correct, and the lens required for the correction is cylindrical lens
Explain how organisms are placed into the three major cell lineages or domains. View Available Hint(s) Explain how organisms are placed into the three major cell lineages or domains. analysis of ribosomal RNA analysis of DNA metabolic characteristics physical characteristics?
Answer:
The three main domains into which the organisms are classified are archaea, bacteria and eukarya.
Archaea : The archaea is more closely related to eukaryotes. Although they have bacteria like metabolism and have 70'S chromosomes but shows presence of introns and shows similar molecular mechanism like replication, transcription and translation similar to eukaryotes. These are found in the extreme conditions as well.
Bacteria: The bacteria have circular DNA with 70'S ribosomes. The cell membrane has ester linkage and no nucleosome formation occur in bacteria. The transcription and translation are coupled together with no further modification.
Eukarya: The eukaryotes have linear DNA with 80'S ribosomes. The cell membrane has ether linkage and proper nucleosome fprmation occurs in eukarya. The transcription and translation occurs separately in the distinct compartments and further modification occurs.
if a nondisjunction occurs at anaphase I of the first meiotic division, what will the proportion of banormal gametes (for the chromosomes involved in the nondisjunction)?
Correct question:
if a nondisjunction occurs at anaphase I of the first meiotic division, what will the proportion of abnormal gametes (for the chromosomes involved in the nondisjunction)?
Answer:
100%
Explanation:
Nondisjunction at meiosis-I means that two homologous chromosomes of at least one homologous pair fail to separate from each other during anaphase-I. This would result in the formation of one cell with one extra chromosome and the other with one less chromosome by the end of meiosis-I. Meiosis-II in these two cells would maintain this chromosome number in the daughter cells. Therefore, out of the total four gametes formed by the end of the meiosis, two would have one extra chromosome and would be denoted as "n+1". The rest of the two gametes would have one less chromosome and would be denoted as "n-1".
The sympathetic chain contains a group of cell bodies called the sympathetic chain Blank 1. Fill in the blank, read surrounding text. . This structure contains a second cell body for the sympathetic nervous system, the first in the series being found in the Blank 2. Fill in the blank, read surrounding text. lateral horn of spinal segments T1-L2. The purpose of the Blank 3. Fill in the blank, read surrounding text. rami is to carry visceral motor and visceral sensory neurons to and from this sympathetic chain.
Answer:
The sympathetic chain contains a group of cell bodies called the sympathetic chain GANGLIA. This structure contains a second cell body for the sympathetic nervous system, the first in the series being found in the THORACOLUMBAR REGIONS' lateral horn of spinal segments T1-L2. The purpose of the VENTRAL AND DORSAL rami is to carry visceral motor and visceral sensory neurons to and from this sympathetic chain.
Explanation:
The sympathetic trunks (sympathetic chain, gangliated cord) are a paired bundle of nerve fibers that run from the base of the skull to the coccyx.
See the picture attached.
What do you expect if an individual is heterozygous for the sickle-cell trait?
Answer:
Normally He would be asymptomatic but in cases of stressful conditions such as infection or heavy exercise it may causes symptoms as hemoglobin capacity of Red Blood cells is less compare to normal person.
Explanation:
Although the main role of carbohydrates and lipids is to provide energy; vitamins, minerals, and ________ must also be present in the cell.
Answer: Water
Explanation:
There are 6 nutrients in the body which helps in keeping the body healthy. These components are carbohydrates, fats and proteins. These molecules helps in providing energy to the body.
The vitamins minerals and water is equally important for the cells as it helps in carrying out various types of reactions inside the body.
All the macro and micro nutrients are important for keeping the body healthy.
how the endocrine system and nervous systems become involved when a student feels stress--such as that associated with an upcoming exam. Be detailed and cite sources in this weeks posting.
Answer:
The endocrine system and nervous system work together for the maintenance of the homeostasis of the organisms. Endocrine system release hormones whereas nervous system includes the release of neurotransmitters.
The stress condition in the body generates the fight and flight mechanisms of the body. The hypothalamus releases the hormone known as epinephrine that activates the sympathetic parts of the autonomic nervous system. This generates the different changes like increase in the blood flow, pupil dilation and perspiration to prepare the body for stress situation.
Six-year-old Austin is hyperactive and has been tested for ADHD. A school psychologist suggests that Austin's hyperactivity might reflect the influence of some prenatal substance that did not affect his physical development, but instead influenced the development of his brain. Austin might be showing the effects of behavioral _____ that his mother ingested while he was in the womb.
Answer:
teratogens
Explanation:
The factors or any of the agent that can cause malformations in the development of the embryo are termed as teratogens. Behavioural teratogens are the ones that can cause harm to the development of the brain at the prenatal stage due to which the intellectual ability and the emotional functioning of the child can be affected in the future. The time the effect shows up in the future depends on the stage of the embryo/foetus development at which the child got exposed to the teratogen. In the given situation Austin is suffering from ADHD and hyperactivity that reflects a faulty brain development due to the exposure of teratogens that his mother consumed while he was conceived.Final answer:
Austin's hyperactivity may be due to prenatal exposure to teratogens like nicotine, which can lead to developmental issues such as ADHD, with factors like maternal stress also playing a role.
Explanation:
Six-year-old Austin is hyperactive and might be showing the effects of behavioral teratogens that his mother ingested while he was in the womb. Teratogens are agents, like chemicals or viruses, that can cause harm to the developing fetus, leading to birth defects or developmental issues such as ADHD. Research has demonstrated that certain substances consumed during pregnancy can have significant impacts on child behavior and development. Notably, exposure to nicotine from cigarette smoke and maternal stress are associated with an increased risk of ADHD symptoms in children. Additionally, environmental toxins and factors such as lead exposure and high levels of prenatal stress from adverse life events are linked to ADHD. However, several misconceptions about ADHD's causes, including sugar intake, food allergies, and poor parenting, have been debunked through research.
If the onset of a light reliably signals the onset of food, a rat in a Skinner box will work to turn on the light. In this case, the light is a ________ reinforcer.a) partial
b) primary
c) negative
d) conditioned
e) delayed
Answer:
The correct answer is option d) "conditioned".
Explanation:
A conditioned reinforcer is an external stimulus that helps an animal to perform certain activity or develop certain behavior. Conditioned reinforcement requires a learning process, which most likely was necessary in order to make the rat to turn on the light looking for food. Therefore, in this case the light is a conditioned reinforcer.
Final answer:
The light in a Skinner box experiment that reliably signals the onset of food becomes a conditioned reinforcer. This is because it gains the power to reinforce behavior through its association with a primary reinforcer, like food, established through the process of classical conditioning.
Explanation:
If the onset of a light reliably signals the onset of food, a rat in a Skinner box will work to turn on the light. In this case, the light is a conditioned reinforcer.
A conditioned reinforcer, also known as a secondary reinforcer, is a previously neutral event that has become associated with a primary reinforcer through classical conditioning. Primary reinforcers are stimuli that are naturally preferred or enjoyed by the organism, like food, water, and relief from pain. Through the conditioning process, the formerly neutral stimulus (in this case, the light) becomes a signal for the primary reinforcer (food) and gains the ability to reinforce behavior because of its association with the primary reinforcer.
In operant conditioning experiments, like those with a rat in a Skinner box, a light might be turned on every time food is delivered as a consequence of the rat pressing a lever. Eventually, the rat learns to associate the light with the delivery of food. Even without the immediate presence of food, the light being turned on becomes enough to increase the likelihood of the lever-press behavior, making it a conditioned reinforcer.
There are a number of properties that all organisms share. In humans, exposure to ultraviolet light can result in a darkening of the skin. What kind of property is this?
a. energy processing
b. response to the environment
c. regulation
d. growth and development
Answer:
b. response to the environment
Explanation:
The ozone layer filters out most of the sun's harmful UV( ultraviolent) radiation. But when various environmental stresses and other human anthropogenic factors occurs, depletion of the ozone layer sets in and excessive production of Ultraviolent light emerges as well. Exposure to these ultraviolent light have the tendency and capability of causing damage to the skin cells which in turn cause wrinkles and darkening to the skin, damage to the melanin or sometimes skin cancer.
A researcher asks participants to identify red shapes presented on a video screen. Following this, novel objects of various colors are depicted on the screen. Participants correctly identify red objects more quickly than objects of a different color. The result illustrates:
Answer:
Priming
Explanation:
Priming is a technique where exposure to one thing can alter behavior or thoughts. This occurs by exposure to a stimuli influences the response of a subsequent stimuli.
The participants were asked to identify red object on a video screen therefore when shown new objects of various colors on the screen it was easier for them to identify red objects. It is due to initial exposure of stimuli to red color that leads to subsequent stimuli to recognize red more easily.
The enacting of right-to-die legislation by a state government will become an environmental ______ for hospitals and doctors in that state
Answer: Environmental force
Explanation:
Environmental force in medicine are external force which cannot be controlled by the medical practitioners.
Government enactment (right-to-die) can be either economic or social influence on the medical practitioners and punishment can be awarded when there is no compliance.
The genetic center of the eukaryotic cell is the __________.
Answer:
Nucleus
Explanation:
The nucleus is the genetic center of the eukaryotic cell because it contains the genetic material (DNA, RNA) used for the storage of genetic information
The genetic center of the eukaryotic cell is the nucleus, an organelle that contains most of the cell's DNA and serves as its control center. It is enclosed by a double membrane and regulates gene expression and protein synthesis.
The genetic center of the eukaryotic cell is the nucleus. The nucleus is a membrane-enclosed organelle found in most eukaryotic cells. It contains the genetic material of the cell in the form of DNA, which is organized into chromosomes. The primary function of the nucleus is to regulate gene expression and control protein synthesis. The nucleus is distinct from the nucleoid region found in prokaryotic cells, where the DNA is not enclosed within a membrane.
The structure of the nucleus involves a double membrane, known as the nuclear envelope, which separates the contents of the nucleus from the cytoplasm. Inside, a substance called nucleoplasm is similar to the cytosol outside the nucleus. While most eukaryotic cells contain a single nucleus, there are exceptions, such as muscle cells which may contain multiple nuclei, and red blood cells which lack a nucleus altogether.
The organelle plays a crucial role during cell division, where it breaks down during mitosis and meiosis, allowing chromosomes to be organized and divided between new daughter cells. Moreover, it is involved in the transcription of various types of RNA which are critical for protein synthesis and gene regulation.
The normal prion protein is: Multiple Choice a) bound to the ribosomes of neurons. b) bound to the cell membrane of neurons. c) found in the nucleus of neurons. d) found in the mitochondria of neurons. e) found in the synapse between neurons.
Answer: B) Bound to the cell membrane of neurons
Explanation:
The cellular prion protein (PrPC) is a cell surface protein expressed in a variety of different organs and tissues with high expression levels in the central and peripheral nervous systems.
PrPC attaches to the outer surface of the cell membrane by a glycosylphosphatidylinositol anchor but researchers have proposed roles in cell signalling and formation of synapses.
The tree in your backyard is home to two cardinals, a colony of ants, a wasp's nest, two squirrels, and millions of bacteria. Together, what do all of these organisms represent?
Answer:
A community
Explanation:
In ecology, a community is used to describe a group of organisms of different species populations that live and interact together at a particular time in a common habitat or ecosystem.
The two cardinals, colony of ants, a wasp’s nest, two squirrels, and the millions of bacteria represent a community of different organisms dwelling at the backyard tree.
The organisms living in the tree represent a biological community. This is an ecological concept that refers to all the various species living in the same area and interacting with each other.
Explanation:The tree in your backyard with its inhabitants - two cardinals, a colony of ants, a wasp's nest, two squirrels, and millions of bacteria - together represent a biological community. A biological community, in ecological terms, refers to all the various species living in the same area and interacting with each other. The tree provides a habitat for various organisms and their interactions make up the biological community. For instance, the cardinals may eat the ants, while the bacteria may break down fallen leaves from the tree, contributing to nutrient cycling.
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Which correctly matches a group with an adaptation to life on land that this group pioneered? Refer to the phylogeny as you evaluate the options.
Answer: The question is not complete, we do not know the group that we are going to match with the the pioneered group. Not to worry we will figure something out for you to be able to answer similar question(s). Check below.
Explanation:
PHYLOGENY deals with the history of evolution of plants and animals of different species. It involves the use of comparative anatomy, paleontology and embryology to determine the evolution of different species of plants and animals.
According to scientific researches, there are claims that plants started not on the terrestrial habitat/LAND but in water(aquatic habitat). According to the Researches made, the first plant actually came from Green algae. Plants are photosynthetic organisms but, the first organisms to photosynthesize were bacteria living inside water(aquatic habitat).
It was until about 350 million years (or less) that plants were successfully adapt to life in terrestrial habitat)/LAND.
ADAPTATIONS OF PLANTS TO LIFE ON LAND:
In order for plants to survive on LAND, several adaptations has to be developed. They are giving below:
==> Development of cuticle and stomata.
===> Development of vascular tissue.
===> Alternation of generation.
A good example is ANGIOSPERM PIONEERED PLANTS.
Please help!! Punnett squares (biology)
Answer/Explanation:
For the woman to be blood type B, she must either have 2 B alleles (homozygous, BB) or 1 B allele (heterozygous, BO). We can draw two punnett squares to show each of the potential outcomes when she has children with an AB man.
The two punnett squares are attached. In order to have a child that is type A, she needs to be heterozygous, BO. Even then, there was only a 25% chance that their child would have type A blood. If she were homozygous BB, it would be impossible for her to have a type A child with an AB man.
With incomplete dominance a likely ratio of phenotypes in the F2 generation resulting from a monohybrid cross between two true-breeding parents would be?a) 1:2:1b) 3:3c) 3:1d) 9:3:3:1e) 1:2:2:4
Answer:
A) 1:2:1
Explanation:
Incomplete dominance is an effect observed in the organisms in which the neither of the two alleles controlling a trait is dominant or recessive instead produces a phenotype formed by the mixture of the effect of the two alleles. Therefore in incomplete dominance, a new trait is produced which is formed by both the alleles.
In the given question, if incomplete dominance is observed in a monohybrid cross which results in two homozygous genotypes and two heterozygous genotypes. In F2 the phenotypic generation produced will be 1:2:1 as the heterozygous genotype will form a new phenotype.
Thus, Option-A is the correct answer
A student observed a stained specimen of bacteria using bright-field microscopy. At 100x magnification, there appeared to be only one cell in the field of view, but at 1000x it was clear that there were two cells close together. The ability to distinguish these two cells as separate entities is called __________. View Available Hint(s) A student observed a stained specimen of bacteria using bright-field microscopy. At 100x magnification, there appeared to be only one cell in the field of view, but at 1000x it was clear that there were two cells close together. The ability to distinguish these two cells as separate entities is called __________. A.wavelength B.cell division C.resolution D.magnification
Answer:
Resolution (C)
Explanation:
The ability of a microscope to distinguish between two separate points is known as resolution. if a microscope is focused at two separate points. but can only see them as a point then the microscope can not resolve or give details of the two points.Hence it has poor magnification. Thus the greater the amount of details of object showed by the microscope the higher the resolution e.g light microscope with resolution of 200nm. can not separate or resolve specimens where the distance of separations is more than 200nm. The reason fro this is that:
the limit of resolution is one-half of the wavelength of light of the microscope used to view it, if a specimen is smaller than half of the radiation used to view it then it can not be resolved by the microscope.
For example from last paragraph, the resolution of light microscope is 200nm, because the shortest wavelength of visible light is 400 nm, thus any specimens that is closer together than half of 400nm that is (200nm) can not be resolved by light microscope.
Electron microscopes have higher resolution than light microscope because they makes use of electrons instead of light. Electrons have grater wavelength therefore more energy,
and
they are negatively charged so they can easily be used to focus on an object by deflection of beam of electrons with magnetic in electromagnets component of the microscope for alerting the resolution.
With these features of electrons two types of electron microscope are the the scanning and transmission electron microscope
.Electron microscopes have resolution close to 0,5nm, hundred times grater than the light microscope because of the electron features.
Discuss the effect of each of the following factors on RBC count. Consult an appropriate reference as necessary, and explain your reasoning.
Answer:
Athletic training increases red blood cell count.
A permanent move from sea level to high altitude increases red blood cell count.
Explanation:
Athletic training increases red blood cell count.
An athlete has a comparatively increased muscle mass and requires an efficient oxygen means of transportation to the muscles during the course of the athlete running 4 to 5 miles a day over a period of 6 to nine months training or execrise.
A permanent move from sea level to high altitude increases red blood cell count.
The air is less dense at high altitudes and would posses a reduced amount of oxygen. The body make up for this lower concentration of oxygen in the air by yielding more RBCs to ensure that the same corresponding level of oxygen can be acquired or accumulated and then its transported by the blood.
___________________________
The complete question
Discuss the effect of each of the following factors on RBC count. Consult an appropriate reference as necessary, and explain your reasoning: The long-term effect of athletic training (for example, running 4 to 5 miles a day over a period of 6 to nine months, and a permanent move from sea level to a high-altitude area.
Final answer:
Factors affecting RBC count include blood loss, faulty RBC production, and excessive RBC destruction, which can be analyzed by kinetic or morphological approaches. Polycythemia is a condition where RBC count increases due to various causes.
Explanation:
Effects of Factors on Red Blood Cell (RBC) Count
Changes in the levels of RBCs can significantly affect the body's oxygen delivery system. Factors affecting RBC count can be categorized blood loss, faulty RBC production, or excessive RBC destruction.
For example, blood loss through trauma or internal bleeding would lead to a decreased RBC count as the body loses its cells. On the other hand, inadequate production might be due to bone marrow disorders, nutritional deficiencies, or chronic diseases interfering with hematopoiesis. Excessive destruction of RBCs can occur in conditions like hemolytic anemia or infections.
Diagnostic methods like the kinetic approach analyze the production and removal rates of RBCs, whereas the morphological approach focuses on appearance and size, using metrics like the mean corpuscle volume (MCV). Polycythemia, an increase in RBC count, can be caused by dehydration, living at high altitudes, or bone marrow diseases like polycythemia vera.
Scott made a model of the water cycle by filling a tub with water, covering the tub with clear plastic, and placing a heat lamp over the tub. After a few days, he observed water droplets collecting on the plastic wrap.What do the water droplets represent?
a. precipitation
b. condensation
c. transpiration
d. evaporation
Answer: B
Explanation:
When water is heated is changes from the liquid state of matter to the gas(vapour) state which is known as vaporization. While condensation is the change from the gas state to the liquid state, and it is the reverse of vaporization.
Condensation is the change in the state of water from its gaseous form into liquid water. When water is heated warm air rises (water vapor), when it cools and looses its capacity to hold water vapor, it forms changes back to the liquid state which is seen inform if water droplets on the plastic wrap.
Answer:
b. condensation
Explanation:
Condensation is a phenomenon which describes the physical change of matter from a gaseous form to a liquid form, when the matter in its gaseous state comes in contact with humid air. It is a kind of recycling process of water.
In the model of water cycle made by Scott, the water droplets observed that was collecting on the plastic wrap represents condensation. As water becomes vaporized in the tub, the gaseous form of the water comes in contact with humid air, which leads to condensation as seen in the collection of water droplets. The water vapor is converted back to the liquid form of water.
When you sneeze, air is forcefully exhaled from your nose. As the air exits the nose, what is the last structure the air will pass through?
The last structure the air will pass through will be External nares
Explanation:
The upper portion of the respiratory tract is the nasal cavity and the nose. The external nose forms the first and foremost respiratory tract area. Nose is the major part that is responsible in exchanging air with the atmosphere. It is responsible for the human survival.
There are two openings in a nose. These are called as nostrils. They are also called as exterior nares. The air from the atmosphere when inhaled it enters into the nostril. from there is is sent to the nasal cavity. Nasal cavity is the place where the air that is inhaled will be purified and it is transported to various human parts. thus, when air contains any dust or impurities it will make you to sneeze thereby the air gets out of the nose through External nares
What does Dr. Ally Hextall tell Dr. Ellis Cheever that "…somewhere in the world the wrong pig met up with the wrong bat" as they are discussing the protein structure of the contagion?
Answer:
It's the race for finding a cure i.e., Vaccine
Explanation:
"…somewhere in the world the wrong pig met up with the wrong bat"
This explains that the contagion is a airborne virus that has a potential of killing it's host within days after a infection. The problem comes now when those scientists are trying their best in finding the cure i.e., a vaccine that can cure the disease spread by the virus. It is a type of competition in which the race between several parties for cure are going on.
"The statement made by Dr. Ally Hextall to Dr. Ellis Cheever, "somewhere in the world the wrong pig met up with the wrong bat," refers to the zoonotic origin of the fictional virus in the movie "Contagion."
This phrase suggests that the virus, which has a unique protein structure, likely emerged through a cross-species transmission event where a pig (susceptible to both avian and human influenza viruses) came into contact with a bat (known to harbor many viruses, including coronaviruses). Such an event could lead to the creation of a novel virus through genetic recombination or reassortment, which could then jump to humans and potentially cause a pandemic. This scenario is a nod to real-life epidemiology, where many emerging infectious diseases originate from animal hosts.
In the context of the movie, this dialogue underscores the concept of zoonotic spillover, a process by which a pathogen jumps from a non-human animal to a human. The "wrong" in this context implies an unfortunate and rare combination of events that leads to the emergence of a highly virulent and transmissible virus capable of causing a global outbreak. The protein structure of the virus would be unique as a result of this interspecies mixing, making it a novel threat that the human population has no pre-existing immunity against, and thus, it could spread rapidly and cause significant morbidity and mortality."
According to developmental psychologist Kenneth Dodge, successful __________ proceeds through a series of steps that correspond to the child's information-processing strategies.
a) status managementb) conflict resolutionc) social competenced) social problem solving
Answer:
Option d) social problem solving
Explanation:
Psychologist define learning capacity of child by the use of small set of process including observational skills, problem solving skill, conditioning and other reflexes. According to psychologist a child having ability to solve a problem indicates that child has developed in-cognitive abilities well and his brain capability is higher than non-problem solving children.
Kenneth Dodge's theory relates to social problem solving, which is a sequence of steps based on children's information-processing. Various conflict management strategies such as competition, avoidance, accommodation, compromise, and collaboration are critical in the development of these skills.
According to developmental psychologist Kenneth Dodge, successful social problem solving proceeds through a series of steps that correspond to the child's information-processing strategies. This concept is part of a broader framework called psychosocial development, a process proposed by Erikson in which social tasks are mastered as humans move through eight stages of life from infancy to adulthood. Understanding conflict resolution and management is crucial in this developmental process.
There are various strategies for managing conflict, including competition, avoidance, accommodation, compromise, and collaboration. These strategies reflect the concern we place on self versus others and are influenced by our upbringing and experiences. Effective conflict resolution can deescalate conflict, and the approach used in conflict situations often depends on the context and learned behavior.
After teaching a client about taking daily oral iron preparations for a moderate iron deficiency anemia, which statement by the client indicates to the nurse that additional instruction is needed?
Answer:
I will call the doctor if my stools turn black
Explanation
Iron supplements are given to patients who have iron deficiency related diseases such as anemia. There are a number of iron preparations that can be given to patients to manage these conditions. These supplements causes the stool to turn black or even green
For example the said client was given oral iron preparations for moderate iron deficiency anemia. When he says he will call a doctor if his stool turns black indicates he will need additional instructions.
Agar is a useful compound in the microbiology lab because it is an excellent nutrient for bacteria. Agar is a useful compound in the microbiology lab because it is an excellent nutrient for bacteria. A. TrueB. False
Answer:
A)True
Explanation:
Nutrient Agar is a nutrient medium used for the growth of microbes supporting growth of a vast number of organisms. Nutrient agar is popular because it can grow a variety of types of bacteria and fungi, and contains many nutrients needed for the bacterial growth.Nutrient agar provides these resources for many types of microbes, from fungi like yeast and mold to common bacteria such as Streptococcus and Staphylococcus. The microbes that can be grown on complex media such as nutrient agar can be described as nonfastidious organisms.
Agar is falsely believed to be a nutrient for bacteria; it's actually a solidification agent used in growth media to provide a physical matrix for bacterial cultures, not a nutritional one.
Explanation:The statement that agar is an excellent nutrient for bacteria is false. Agar is a polysaccharide derived from red algae, used commonly in microbiology laboratories for culturing bacteria and other microorganisms; however, it is not a nutrient source for them. Instead, agar serves as a solidification agent in growth media, providing a stable matrix to embed the nutrients that bacteria require for growth but itself does not contribute nutritionally. The primary role of agar in these media is to form a gelatinous solid matrix upon cooling, which bacteria cannot digest, making it ideal for observing the growth and behavior of microorganisms on a solid surface. Agar is mixed with various nutrients and then poured into petri dishes, test tubes, or other containers to solidify into agar plates, agar slants, and agar deeps, serving different purposes in microbial cultivation.
Salvador would like to take a paternity test to determine if he is Pilar’s father. He asks Pilar’s mother, Antonia, to provide DNA samples for both her and Pilar. Which technique will most likely be used to compare the three DNA samples?
Answer:
d. Autoradiographies
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the technique that is mainly used for this are Autoradiographies. This is a technique that is mostly used for X- ray film to visualize molecules or fragments of molecules that have been radioactively but are also used for analyzing the length and number of DNA fragments using a special method called gel electrophoresis which is then used to compare the various DNA samples.
A wild-type tomato plant (Plant 1) is homozygous dominant for three traits: solid leaves (MM), normal height (DD), and smooth skin (PP). Another tomato plant (Plant 2) is homozygous recessive for the same three traits: mottled leaves (mm), dwarf height (dd), and peach skin (pp). Two plants. Plant 1 has solid leaves (two uppercase M), normal height (two uppercase D), and fruits with smooth skin (two uppercase P). Plant 2 has mottled leaves (two lowercase m), dwarf height (two lowercase d), and fruits with peach skin (two lowercase p). In a cross between these two plants (MMDDPP x mmddpp), all offspring in the F1 generation are wild type and heterozygous for all three traits (MmDdPp). Now suppose you perform a testcross on one of the F1 plants (MmDdPp x mmddpp). The F2 generation can include plants with these eight possible phenotypes:________. Assuming that the three genes undergo-independent assortment, predict the phenotypic ratio of the offspring in the F2 generation.
a. solid, normal, smooth.
b. solid, normal, peach.
c. solid, dwarf, smooth.
d. solid, dwarf, peach.
e. mottled, normal, smooth.
f. mottled, normal, peach.
g. mottled, dwarf, smooth.
h. mottled, dwarf, peach.
Answer: In this type of cross between MmDdPp and mmddpp, the phenotypic ratios in the eight possible phenotypes are as follow; a. solid, normal, smooth = 1:8
b. solid, normal, peach = 1:8
c. solid, dwarf, smooth = 1:8
d. solid, dwarf, peach = 1:8
e. mottled, normal, smooth = 1:8
f. mottled, normal, peach = 1:8
g. mottled, dwarf, smooth = 1:8
h. mottled, dwarf, peach = 1:8
Explanation: The number of gametes that can be formed from a particular genotype is given as 2^n where n is the number of heterozygous loci. In the genotype MmDdPp, n = 3. Therefore, 8 gametes can be formed.
In genotype mmddpp, n = 0. Therefore, only one type of gamete can be formed.
Crossing the two genotype (MmDdPp and mmddpp) as shown in the attached image, 8 possible offsprings can be achieved. Phenotypes of these offspring had been stated earlier. The phenotypic frequency of each of these offspring is one out of eight (⅛).
The eight possible phenotypes resulting from a cross between an F1 plant (MmDdPp) and a homozygous recessive plant (mmddpp) are equally probable (1:1:1:1:1:1:1:1) due to the principle of independent assortment. This principle indicates that each trait segregates independently.
Explanation:The tomato plant question deals with the principle of independent assortment in genetics, which states that the alleles for different genes get sorted into gametes independently of one another. In the testcross with an F1 plant (MmDdPp) and a plant homozygous recessive for all traits (mmddpp), the F1 plant can provide either the dominant or recessive allele for each trait, resulting in eight possible phenotypes in the F2 generation.
To predict the phenotypic ratio of the offspring in the F2 generation, we could use the Punnett Square method or probability concepts. As each trait has a 1:1 ratio (for example, solid:mottled leaves), this results in equal chance (50%) for each trait to be either dominant or recessive. Applying this to all three traits and considering them independently, the expected phenotypic ratio would be 1:1:1:1:1:1:1:1 for the eight phenotypes:
solid, normal, smoothsolid, normal, peachsolid, dwarf, smoothsolid, dwarf, peachmottled, normal, smoothmottled, normal, peachmottled, dwarf, smoothmottled, dwarf, peachLearn more about Independent Assortment here:https://brainly.com/question/32921835
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