Answer: Law of Independent Assortment
Explanation:
The example only shows that the alleles the offspring received for one gene does not influence the allele for another gene, since the curly/ strait haired gene clearly does not affect the white/ brown hair gene.
The mating of two curly-haired brown guinea pigs resulting in offspring with different variations in hair color and type illustrates Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment.
Explanation:The mating of two curly-haired brown guinea pigs resulting in offspring with different variations in hair color and type illustrates Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment.
This law states that genes do not influence each other with regard to the sorting of alleles into gametes, and every possible combination of alleles for every gene is equally likely to occur.
For example, in the case of the guinea pigs, the gene for hair color and the gene for hair type are inherited independently of each other, resulting in the various combinations of brown and white hair colors and curly and straight hair types in the offspring.
The segment of the uterine tube in which fertilization typically takes places is the
Fertilization typically occurs in the oviduct/fallopian tubes of the female reproductive system.
I hope I helped!
There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another?
Amino acids specialize in their aspect of production, for instance one type of Amino Acid could code for a specific trait and another codes for another trait and so on. So, Amino Acids specialize in establishing in coding for one part of a gene.
Please help!!
Create three relevant questions that you would like answered or clarified about the role of
DNA and chromosomes. Focus on the following areas as you generate questions:
i. The cause and effect relationship between the genetic code and gene expression
ii. Mechanisms of gene regulation
iii. The role of DNA segments that do not code for proteins
Answer:
1) How is DNA compacted to form a chromosome?
2) How to cells undergo differentiation to form the numerous types of cells in the body?
3) What are some functions for non-coding DNA [e.g. Centromere, telomere, promoter, terminator, silencer, enhancer, introns (alternative splicing)]
Explanation:
1) involves packing of DNA that involves DNA associating with H1, H2a, H2b, H3, H4 histone, scaffolding proteins and link genes)
2) since all somatic cells are genetically identical, differentiation involves silencing certain genes through different chemical signals that the stem cell's environment is in, resulting in certain genes related to its function being expressed while other genes are silenced.
3) non coding sequences although the bulk of DNA, has numerous importsnt roles. ( centromere allow for association of kinetochore proteins to form kinetochore that acts as site of attachment for microfibrils during mitosis or meiosis) (telomere act as sacrificial DNA that prevents erosion of Coding DNA during every round of semi-conservative DNA replication)...
Answer:
Question 1- who 64 codon is responsible for the formation of all types of protein? who a codon expresses itself to form an amino acid?
Question 2- what is lac operon?
Question 3 - what are the exon and intros in the Hnrna and what are their functions?
Explanation:
Answer 1- A codon is a group is three nitrogenous bases that together code a specific amino acid. These base pairs arrange themselves in a new order to code for a new amino acid.
Answer 2- Lac operon is a regulation unit present in the nucleus, which helps in the regulation of the formation of the protein in the presence of the inducer unit.
Answer 3- exons and introns are the codings and non-coding sequences of the DNA respectively. These introns are removed under the modification setup so that Rna can make protein without any hindrance.
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Different ratios occur in crosses with single gene pairs or two gene pairs. What types of ratios are likely to occur in crosses dealing with a single gene pair?
Answer:
Genotype ratio: 1, 1:1, 1:2:1
Phenotype ratio: 1, 3:1
Explanation:
Single gene pair cross is also known as monohybrid cross. This means that only one gene usually with two alleles is observed and it express one trait.
For example, if we name the gene for a certain trait with A, the possible genotypes are AA (dominant homozygous), aa (recessive homozygous) and Aa (heterozygous). Possible crosses are:
P: AA x AA
F1 : all of them are AA
The same is with aa x aa (all of the offspring are with aa genotype)
P: AA x Aa
F1: AA Aa AA Aa (genotype ratio 1:1) (phenotype ratio 3:1)
The same genotype ratio is in aa x Aa (offspring will have aa Aa aa Aa-(genotype ratio 1:1) (phenotype ratio 1:1)
P: Aa x Aa
F1: AA Aa Aa aa (genotype ratio 1:2:1) (phenotype ratio 3:1)
P: AA x aa
F1: Aa Aa Aa Aa (1)
Final answer:
In genetics, single-gene pair crosses often result in simple Mendelian ratios, such as a 3:1 phenotype ratio and a 1:2:1 genotype ratio in a monohybrid cross with complete dominance. Two-gene interactions can lead to more complex ratios, such as 9:3:3:1 in a dihybrid cross, and are characterized by a phenotypic ratio totaling 16 parts when genes are assorting independently into gametes.
Explanation:
In genetics, when dealing with crosses involving a single gene pair, the typical ratios observed are a result of the modes of inheritance such as complete dominance, incomplete dominance, or co-dominance. For example, in a monohybrid cross of heterozygote parents with complete dominance (Aa x Aa), the expected phenotype ratio for the dominant versus recessive trait is 3:1, and the genotype ratio is 1:2:1 (where the genotypes are AA:Aa:aa). However, in situations involving epistasis or other gene interactions, even when considering a single gene pair, the phenotypic ratios can differ from the expected simple Mendelian ratios.
It's important to differentiate between single-gene crosses and two-gene interactions. A phenotypic ratio that totals 16 is indicative of a two-gene interaction, such as observed in Mendel's dihybrid cross which gives a 9:3:3:1 ratio. However, for a single-gene pair, we typically do not encounter ratios that total 16, unless modified by gene interactions or epistasis.
Investigations were carried out in a science lab to explore the topic of chemical and physical changes. Investigation A Step 1. Add 5 tsp. Salt to 100 ml warm water and stir until most or all of the salt is no longer visible. Step 2. Heat the salt solution on a burner until only a white solid remains. Investigation B Step 1. Mix 10 tsp. White sugar into 100 ml water and stir until most or all of the sugar is no longer visible. Step 2. Heat the sugar solution on a burner until the solution thickens and turns brown. In which step(s) did a chemical change most likely occur? Investigation A, Step 1 and Investigation B, Step 1 Investigation A, Step 2 and Investigation B, Step 2 Investigation A, Step 2 only Investigation B, Step 2 only
Answer:
a
Explanation:
on edge
In Investigation A, a physical change occurs in Step 1 when salt is dissolved in water, followed by a chemical change in Step 2 when the solution is heated until only a white solid remains. In Investigation B, sugar dissolving in water (Step 1) is a physical change but the solution thickening and turning brown when heated (Step 2) is a chemical change.
Explanation:A chemical change occurs when a new substance is formed through a chemical reaction, while a physical change does not involve any substance's identity change, such as changes in state or phase transitions. For Investigation A, when salt is dissolved in water (Step 1), it is a physical change. But when the salt solution is heated until only a solid remains (Step 2), that suggests a new substance has been formed, hence indicating a chemical change.
For Investigation B, the sugar dissolving in water (Step 1) would be a physical change. However, in Step 2, where the sugar solution thickens and turns brown on heating, suggests a change in substance and hence is a chemical change. This brown substance is often referred to as caramel, which has a different composition than the original sugar.
Data from lab investigations, like the examples given with phase transitions and the spontaneous chemical change experiment, serve as the foundational understanding behind these chemical and physical changes.
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Which of the following is an abiotic factor that affects plant growth?
A.)taller plants
B.)bees
C.)worms
D.)temperature range
Temperature range is the factor
Temperature range is the answer
Which best explains the importance of nitrogen in the cycling of energy and
matter?
A Nitrogen increases protein production in plants.
B Nitrogen decreases protein production in plants.
C Nitrogen decreases the effectiveness of photosynthesis.
D Nitrogen increases the effectiveness of photosynthesis.
Answer:
The correct option is A.
Explanation:
Nitrogen is a gas that is present in high quantity in the atmosphere. This gas contribute significantly to the growth and development of plants and that of animals. Nitrogen in the atmosphere usually get incorporated into the soil via lightening and it is typically fixed by nitrogen fixing bacteria. This nitrogen is then used as part of the nutrients that plants need to grow and develop and it is also used in the production of protein in plant parts. Animals use these plants as source of proteins in their diets. Ultimately the waste products derived from protein is return to the soil where they are broken down by decomposers to nitrogen forms that plants can use. Thus, nitrogen increases the production of proteins in plants.
Option A) Nitrogen increases protein production in plants, vital for growth and development, making it crucial in the cycling of energy.
The best explanation for the importance of nitrogen in the cycling of energy and matter is that nitrogen increases protein production in plants (Option A). Nitrogen is a critical macronutrient, essential for the synthesis of proteins, nucleic acids, and chlorophyll. Plants require these compounds for growth and development, and insufficient nitrogen can lead to stunted growth and chlorosis (yellowing of leaves). Atmospheric nitrogen (N₂) is abundant but not directly usable by plants; they rely on nitrogen fixation processes to convert it into biologically available forms like ammonia (NH3). Nitrogen is thus crucial for the primary productivity of plants and the overall health of ecosystems.
Feather color in budgies is determined by two different genes. True or False
Answer:
the answer is true.
For a short lived climate pollutants (SLCPs) persist in the atmosphere for a few days to a few __
Answer:
The given blank can be filled with few decades.
Explanation:
The SLCPs or the short-lived climate pollutants remain in the atmosphere for a few days to a few decades, and they are the prime reason for global warming. The tropospheric ozone, black carbon, hydrofluorocarbons, and methane are all regarded as SLCPs, as these pollutants exhibit atmospheric lifetimes of a few days to few decades. These short-lived pollutants are responsible for 40 to 45 percent of global warming.
Answer:
Short-lived climate pollutants (SLPs) persist in the atmosphere for a few days to a few decades, and they make the climate warm.
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding water intake and output by the body?
An increase in the amount of beverages taken by mouth would increase the urine output.
An increase in fluid taken by mouth would reduce the amount produced by metabolism.
An irritation to the colon that leads to diarrhea would increase the proportion of water lost through feces.
The proportion of fluid lost by the body as sweat would increase during exercise.
Answer:
The correct option is this: AN INCREASE IN FLUID TAKEN BY MOUTH WOULD REDUCE THE AMOUNT PRODUCED BY METABOLISM.
Explanation:
Generally, the amount of water consumed by a person normally leads to increase in the amount of urine that the person will excrete, that is, the higher the quantity of water consumed, the higher the quantity of the urine that will be excreted under normal circumstances. Thus, the statement given in option B is false. The statements given in Option C and D are right; during exercise the quantity of sweat produce and lost by the body is higher than the one that is produced when one is not exercising. Also, diarrhea usually lead to loss of water from the body.
Which stage of cellular respiration produces the most atp?
Answer:
Electron transport Chain (Oxidative phosphorylation)
Explanation:
Cellular respiration can be defined as the process that involves the breakdown of glucose molecules into CO2 and H2O to generate energy inform of Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP). Also, cellular respiration usually takes place in the cells of an organism by converting biochemical energy present nutrients into Adenosine Triphosphate. Furthermore, it takes place in three stages which includes: glycolysis, TCA cycle and Electron transport (Oxidative phosphorylation). Thus, oxidative phosphorylation is the final stage of aerobic cellular respiration that produces maximum ATPs.
The oxidative phosphorylation stage of cellular respiration produces the most ATP. This stage utilizes an electron transport system to create an electrochemical gradient, which facilitates the production of ATP. Although other stages also produce ATP, about 90% is made during oxidative phosphorylation.
Explanation:The stage of cellular respiration that produces the most ATP is the Oxidative Phosphorylation stage. During this stage, NADH and FADH2, made in glycolysis, the transition reaction, and the Krebs cycle, transfer their electrons to an electron transport system (ETS). This series of reactions is facilitated by protein complexes located in the inner membrane of a cell's mitochondria. The energy from the transferred electrons then creates an electrochemical gradient across the membrane, leading to the production of ATP through chemiosmosis, also known as oxidative phosphorylation.
It's important to note that while other phases such as glycolysis and the Krebs cycle also produce ATP, the bulk, about 90%, is generated during oxidative phosphorylation. This makes oxidative phosphorylation the most ATP-rich stage of cellular respiration.
For every oxidized NADH in the electron transport chain (ETC), approximately three ATP are produced, and around two ATP are produced for each oxidized FADH2. Consequently, one glucose molecule that enters the aerobic respiration process can net roughly 36 ATP in total.
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Which of the following macromolecules are a prominent part of animal tissues that function in insulation, helping animals conserve heat?
carbohydrates
lipids
proteins
nucleic acids
Answer:
Option B = Lipids
Explanation:
Lipids include waxes, fats, steroids and oils. These are found in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes. Lipids play important role of energy storage, membrane formation, cell division and protection.
Structure of lipids:
Lipids are made up of triglyceride which are further consist of fatty acids and alcohol glycerol. Because of great diversity more than 10,000 lipids are discovered. Lipids are smaller than the protein.
Example:
Fatty acids are the lipids and act as a building blocks for other kind of lipids. The carboxyl group (-COOH) in fatty acids attached to the carbon chain trough attached hydrogen and make the chain water soluble. There are two kinds of fatty acids saturated and unsaturated. The saturated fatty acid has single bonds and unsaturated fatty acids have double bonds. The unsaturated fatty acids yield oils when combine with triglycerides.
Function of lipids:
Lipids play important role in organism. Some are important roles are given below:
1. They make protective barrier.
2. They take part in the formation of cell wall of plants and cell membrane.
3. They are also act as an energy storage device.
4. They take part in the formation of Golgi apparatus, nuclear envelop and other cellular compartments.
5. They provide the insulation against harsh environment to the vital organs
Suppose a cancerous tissue with an initial cell division rate of 52% has since undergone several successful radiation treatments. Based on the data in Table 1, what is the likely percentage of resting cells in the tissue after it has been treated?
7%
40%
80%
99%
Likely percentage of resting cells after treatment is 80%, as radiation reduces actively dividing cells significantly.
To solve this problem, let's go through each option and justify whether it is correct or not based on the given information.
Given:
Initial cell division rate = 52%
We know that the remaining cells after treatment will mostly consist of resting cells, as radiation primarily affects actively dividing cells.
Option 1: 7%
If only 7% of the cells were resting, it would imply that 93% of the cells are still actively dividing after treatment. This is unlikely because radiation treatments tend to reduce the population of actively dividing cells significantly. Therefore, Option 1 is unlikely.
Option 2: 40%
If 40% of the cells were resting, it would imply that 60% of the cells are still actively dividing after treatment. While radiation treatments do reduce the population of actively dividing cells, it's possible that a significant portion may still remain. Therefore, Option 2 is plausible but not necessarily the most likely.
Option 3: 80%
If 80% of the cells were resting, it would imply that only 20% of the cells are still actively dividing after treatment. This seems more likely because radiation treatments are designed to target actively dividing cells, leading to a higher percentage of resting cells remaining. Therefore, Option 3 is a plausible choice.
Option 4: 99%
If 99% of the cells were resting, it would imply that only 1% of the cells are still actively dividing after treatment. While radiation treatments do reduce the population of actively dividing cells significantly, it's highly unlikely that such a small percentage would be left. Therefore, Option 4 is unlikely.
Based on the given data and reasoning, the most likely percentage of resting cells in the tissue after treatment is Option 3: 80%.
If an allele makes up one fourth of a population's alleles for a given trait, its relative frequency is
.25
This is because 1/4 = .25
To find the allele frequency, you need to find the decimal representation of the fraction.
For example: If an allele makes up four twentieths of a population's alleles, then the frequency would be .2 (4/20 = .2)
An alternative form of genes that are variant and are responsible for conferring the phenotypic character is called an allele. A single allele gets inherited to the offspring from each parent. The allele can make purebred or heterozygous traits.
The relative frequency is 25%.
What is the relative frequency and how it is calculated?A chance or probability of the occurrence of the gene carrying the specific allele in the percentage of a certain population is called relative frequency.
The allele is the question that makes up the [tex]\dfrac{1}{4} \rm th[/tex] population hence,[tex]\begin{aligned} & = \dfrac{1 }{4} \\\\& = 0.25\end{aligned}[/tex]
For calculating it in percentage:[tex]\begin{aligned} & =0.25 \times 100\\\\& = 25 \%\end{aligned}[/tex]
Therefore, 25% is the relative frequency.
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Approximately how many kg of carnivore biomass can be supported by a field plot containing 1,000 kg of plant material?
A) 10,000
B) 1,000
C) 100
D) 10
E) 1
1,000 i think I’m not sure
The location of the first nucleotide read by rna polymerase is the
Answer:
Promoter site (region)
Explanation:
RNA polymerase is known to be an enzyme that is involved in the synthesis of RNA from DNA by polymerizing the RNA from the 5’ to 3’ end. The process of RNA transcription from DNA begins at the promoter site (region) which is a designated base sequence that marks the beginning of transcription process on the long DNA strand.
When we look at islands across the planet (think the islands of the Galápagos and Hawaii) we see that there are a remarkable number of island endemic species, species that are found nowhere else. What is a possible explanation for this observation?Sympatric speciation on islands is easier than in mainland environments because rates of chromosomal evolution are higher on islands.Extinction rates are lower in islands so species that have gone extinct elsewhere persist on islands.Sympatric speciation on islands is easier than in mainland environments because levels of disruptive selection are higher on islands.Vicariance events are more common on islands than in mainland environments.Island isolation promotes allopatric speciation.Island isolation promotes allopatric speciation.
Answer:
Island isolation promotes allopatric speciation.
Explanation:
Allopatric speciation is a form of speciation (creation of new species) that occurs as a result of geographic isolation. This means that a part of population becomes physically separated from the initial main population. There is no gene flow between these two populations and as a result the two populations reach a high level of genetic divergence. They can no longer interbreed which means they become two different species (speciation).
New populations evolve as result of mutation, genetic drift and natural selection.
For example, Galapagos finches are isolated from others by the ocean (geographic isolation). Because of the isolation, the finches don’t breed with one another. So, they developed unique characteristics and became endemic.
A complicated biological system with many specialized species is a ______________likely to experience a catastrophic crash.
A complicated biological system with many specialized species is a orthogenesis likely to experience a catastrophic crash.
A complex biological system with high biodiversity is less likely to crash, but becomes more vulnerable when disrupted by environmental changes and human-driven extinctions. Population biology is crucial for understanding and conserving such systems.
Complex Biological Systems and Vulnerability to Catastrophic Crashes
A complicated biological system with many specialized species is less likely to experience a catastrophic crash due to its biodiversity. Biodiversity contributes to ecosystem resilience, meaning the ecosystem can better withstand environmental changes and disturbances like climate change, natural disasters, or human-driven extinctions. However, when these systems are compromised, possibly due to environmental stochasticity or human activities, they become more vulnerable to collapses and invasions by generalist and exotic species. Population biology is a key field that helps us understand the dynamics of such systems, and this knowledge is essential for conservation efforts aimed at preventing further harm to our planet's biodiversity.
Environmental stochasticity, such as unpredictable natural catastrophes and the resulting habitat changes, can significantly increase the risk of extinction for species, especially those with restricted ranges. Human activities, such as deforestation and hydraulic fracturing, can exacerbate these risks by causing 'lake burps' or by influencing other factors that lead to population declines. The study of population biology can offer insights into the management and preservation of vulnerable species and systems, aiding in developing
Land-based plants must have mechanisms to disperse and scatter their seeds so that new plants don't grow in the shadow of old plants. Which of the following do gymnosperms, such as pine trees, rely on to disperse fertilized seed cones? A. Wind B. Animals that eat the seeds C. Animals, seed wings, and wind D. Seed wing structures
Answer:
Its c ,animals ,seed wings and wind
Explanation:
There are mainly 2 ways the seeds of gymnosperms are dispersed :-
The gymnosperms that are old become rip and their cones open up and the seeds are dispersed by the wind.There are small seed wings present on seeds that take the seed to long distance places The fruit of the gymnosperms gets eaten by the animals in different places as its their source of food .The seeds are not digested by the animals and excreted as a result the seed is dispersed far away from the sourceWhy is living in a large pride beneficial to lions?
Larger prides never experience scarcity of food.
Male lions in a pride learn better hunting skills than males living alone.
Hunting success in a pride increases as the number of females increases.
Female lions in a pride can take care of the cubs while the males hunt.
Answer:
male lions have females that they can mate with to relive all that tension in their balls that has been building up
Explanation:
#ballsdeepnosleep
Larger prides never experience scarcity of food.
The sporophyte generation is:a. diploidb. haploidc. polyploid
Answer:
a. diploid
Explanation:
After the fertilization process between haploid egg cell and haploid sperm cell, diploid zygote is formed. Zygote has two sets of chromosomes (one from each gamete) which means it is diploid. Sporophyte stage of life cycle will develop from diploid zygote. During the life cycle of a plant (or algae) sporophyte phase alternates with a gametophyte phase which is haploid. In both, seed plants and flowering plants sporophyte phase (roots, stem, leves, cones/flowers) is more prominent than gametophyte phase (pollen, embryo sac).
Sporophyte phase produces spores via meiosis that develop into gametophte.
54. Where would you most likely find a glacier?
Low elevation areas near 20 degrees latitude
High elevations and near 60 degrees latitude
In the desert
Australia
Answer:
High elevations and near 60 degrees latitude
Explanation:
The glaciers need special conditions to form. They need very cold and relatively dry climate throughout the whole year. This type of conditions can be found only on the high elevations, and on the high latitudes. Depending on the latitude, the elevation on which a glacier can form goes up or down. The elevation needed at the low latitudes is higher because it is warmer, while on the mid-latitudes and higher latitudes it is lowering because it is colder. The high latitudes provide suitable conditions for glaciers to exist throughout the whole year, as it is either constantly winter, or it is winter for 10-11 months of the year.
Which best describes connectedness in handwriting analysis?
The letters are either above, below, or on a baseline.
The height-to-width ratio is uniform.
The capital letters and lowercase letters smoothly run together without lifting the pen.
The downstrokes and upstrokes are even width.
Connectedness is defined as, “the state of being joined or linked.” In handwriting, connectedness would be when somebody’s letters are linked together.
Answer: The capital letters and lowercase letters smoothly run together without lifting the pen.
Answer: The capital letters and lowercase letters smoothly run together without lifting the pen.
Explanation:
Handwriting is a neuromuscular task which involves the activity of the brain which thinks what to be written and specifically done by the movement of muscles of hand.
Connectedness in handwriting can be define as continuity in writing which is executed by the continuous pen flow. It is typically observed in cursive writings. In this type of writings the capital and lowercase letters smoothly run together without lifting the pen. Usually the writing is connected by the connecting strokes.
Which type of star acts like a “lighthouse” that periodically emits radio waves into space?
a. black hole
b. neutron star
c. pulsar
d. supernova
Answer: B
Explanation:
had this in earth and space
What is the floor of an aquatic biome called? benthic zone photic zone marine zone aphotic zone
Answer: The floor of an aquatic biome is called the benthic zone.
Explanation:
Benthic zone is called as the floor of an aquatic biome. So, the correct option is A.
What is Benthic zone?The benthic zone is defined as the lowest ecological zone in a water body, usually consisting of sediments on the ocean floor, where these sediments play an important role in providing nutrients for the organisms that live in the benthic zone.
Benthic zone is called as the bottom zone of a water body, fresh or marine where the light penetration is nil. Benthic animals include the polychaetas which live in or on the bottom while the animals that live in or on the bottom of the Bay are called the benthic community.
Despite being hidden, the benthic zone is a crucial component of lake ecosystems. Many aquatic species can breed, forage, and find shelter in this area alone. The shallow coastal waters' benthic zones offer optimum environment for animal and amphibian breeding.
So, the correct option is A.
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Which of the following is often provided by anthropologists and biologists as a possible explanation for the development of bipedal hominids? A. Standing upright allowed for better tree climbing B. Standing upright allowed for more efficient movement C. Standing upright allowed for sightlines over tall grasses and savannah shrubbery D. Standing upright allowed for better foraging of tree fruits
Answer:
C. Standing upright allowed for sightlines over tall grasses and savanna shrubbery
Explanation:
One of the most accepted theories about the development of bipedalism of the hominids is that it was mostly because of the tall grasses and shrubs, so standing upright was providing them with better view. Once the environment changed, and the tropical rainforest was turned into savanna, the hominid ancestors had to adapt in order to survive. Being helpless against the large predators, they needed something in order to be able to detect them from bigger distance so that they can avoid them. The solution seemed to be to be able to see above the tall grasses and shrubs, which meant that they started to use their legs more and more in order to stand up taller. This gradually led to better development of legs for upright standing and walking, also causing changes in the structure of the body, providing the hominids with an adaptation that enabled them to survive in the very dangerous environment.
Answer:
The answer is "C. Standing upright allowed for sightlines over tall grasses and savanna shrubbery"
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The length of time required for half of the radioactive atoms in a sample to decay is its
Answer:
HALF LIFE.
Explanation:
The half life of a radioactive element refers to the length of time that is required for the half of the atoms of a particular sample of radioactive element to decay. For instance a radioactive element that a mass of 120 g and a half life of 2 years will be reduce to 60 g in two years. Half life is usually used to measure the rate of disintegration of an unstable isotope. The principle of half life of radioactive elements can be used to determine the relative ages of rocks.
A chromosomal mutation where a segment breaks off, flips, and then reattaches itself is called a(n): reciprocal translocation. translocation. inversion. duplication. deletion.
Answer:
Inversion
Explanation:
This type of mutation is not as lethal on addition of deletion mutations. This is because it does not cause a frame-shift mutation. Inversion only reverses the order of nucleotides in a section of a DNA strand and the genes in this regions may produce defective proteins.
How is the location of the nares an adaptation to living in water
When the frog is submerged in water, they can be closed using a sphincter muscle to stop water from getting into the mouth and therefore the lungs.
What is the adaptation of the nares to living in water?Their skin can absorb oxygen dissolved in water when kept moist. Their lungs allow them to breathe more easily when they are on land.
The term “nares” refers to the pair of apertures in the vertebrate nasal cavity (nostrils). Every vertebrate has an opening to the outside world called an external nare, which in some animals is on the nose.
Only air-breathing vertebrates, such as lungfish, have internal nares (also known as choanae), which open into the mouth cavity.
Therefore, By having nostrils above water and in a small spot, all frogs need to keep above water are the nares - helps with camouflage.
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The nares in aquatic organisms are adaptively located to detect scents in water and for some species, to facilitate air breathing while submerged.
The location of the nares in aquatic organisms is a critical adaptation for living in water. The nares, or nostrils, of bony fishes are positioned far forward on the head, enabling them to detect new scents as they move through the water. Evolutions such as the development of internal openings to the nostrils allow some lobe-finned fishes, such as modern lungfishes, to breathe air with the mouth closed. This modification supports survival in aquatic environments where surfacing for air is necessary. Additionally, fish have evolved other adaptations such as a stream-lined body for efficient swimming, gills for extracting oxygen from water, and a swim bladder for buoyancy control. These adaptations altogether enhance the aquatic living capabilities of fish. Adaptations in organisms, such as the production of urea instead of ammonia by lungfishes during drought conditions or the ability of marine iguanas to expel high salt concentrations through sneezing, show the diverse ways organisms have evolved to conserve water and maintain solute balance, which is vitally important in the aquatic environment.
The rate at which blood flows through the human body changes in response to many factors. Which statement describes one of these factors and its effect on blood flow?
A. A high viscosity of blood causes an increased resistance in the blood vessels and leads to slow blood flow.
B. A low blood pH decreases the rate of diffusion through the blood vessels and leads to slow blood flow.
C. The changing of the shape of red blood cells to a crescent shape decreases resistance and lead to a faster blood flow.
D. The narrowing of blood vessels increases pressure and leads to a faster blood flow.
Answer:
Im waiting on an answer aswell.
Explanation:
Answer:A. A high viscosity of blood causes an increased resistance in the blood vessels and leads to slow blood flow.
Explanation: