Answer:
is asnwer B
Explanation:
The hydrophilic regions of a membrane protein are most likely to be found EXPOSED on the surface of the membrane.
A membrane protein is a protein that is attached to a biological lipid membrane.The membrane proteins can be divided into integral membrane proteins (permanently attached to the membrane)peripheral membrane protein (temporarily attached to the membrane)Membrane proteins have hydrophilic domains that are in contact with water (H2O) molecules on the outside of the lipid bilayer. These hydrophilic regions are composed of hydrophilic amino acids such as glutamic acid, lysine and arginine. Moreover, membrane proteins have hydrophobic regions when they are incorporated into the hydrophobic portion of the lipid bilayer.In conclusion, the hydrophilic regions of a membrane protein are most likely to be found EXPOSED on the surface of the membrane.
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A group of small fish live in a lake with a uniformly light-brown sandy bottom. Most of the fish are light brown, but about 10% are mottled. This fish species is often prey for large birds that live on the shore. A construction company dumps a load of gravel in the bottom of the lake, giving it a mottled appearance. Which of these statements presents the most accurate prediction of what will happen to this fish population? 1. The proportion of mottled fish will increase over time.2. In two generations, all the fish will be mottled.3. There is no way to predict the result.4. As the mottled fish are eaten, more will be produced to fill the gap.5. The ratios will not change.
1. The proportion of mottled fish will increase over time.
Explanation:
The mottled appearance of the bottom of the lake provided a survival benefit to the mottled skinned fishes. This is because a mottled background allows the mottled fishes to camouflage against it and escape predation . On the other hand light brown fishes will become more distinct and visible to the birds and will be hunted. So, soon the proportion of mottled fish in the lake will rise.
All of the following would likely be the location for a biodiversity hotspot EXCEPT: Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. Answer choices tropical biome. mountain ecosystem. island ecosystem. tundra biome.
Explanation:
All of the given option can be the biodiversity hotspots EXCEPT:
Tundra biome.
Biodiversity is defined as the total number of species present within a biogeographic region.
A biodiversity hotspot is that geographic area where significant biodiversity exists.
A tropical biome, a mountain ecosystem and an island ecosystem can have a significant biodiversity depending on the climate and other environmental condition.
A tundra biome is totally covered with snow and have a very few areas of vegetation and could support only a few species So it cannot be a choice for Biodiversity hotspot.
When the diet lacks fiber and the volume of residues in the colon is small, the colon narrows and its contractions become more powerful, increasing the pressure on its walls. That promotes formation of __________.
Explanation:
Diverticula are little, protruding pockets that can shape in the covering of your stomach related framework. They are discovered regularly in the lower some portion of the internal organ (colon). Diverticula are normal, particularly after age 40, and only from time to time cause issues. Once in a while, notwithstanding, at least one of the pockets become aggravated or contaminated. That condition is known as diverticulitis Diverticulitis can cause serious fever, nausea, abdominal pain. Mellow diverticulitis can be treated with rest, changes in your eating routine and anti-infection agents.Lack of dietary fiber can lead to the formation of diverticula, known as diverticulosis, and inflammation of these pouches is known as diverticulitis. Dietary fibers are crucial for maintaining colon health and reducing the risk of colon cancer by providing bulk and stimulating peristalsis.
Explanation:When the diet lacks fiber and there's decreased volume of residues in the colon, this can cause the formation of diverticula, a condition known as diverticulosis. When these diverticula become inflamed, the condition is known as diverticulitis, similar to how an inflamed appendix is called appendicitis.
The colon responds to a diet lacking in fiber by narrowing and increasing the pressure within its walls. This is a result of the colon contracting more powerfully to move the smaller volume of fecal matter, which can contribute to the development of diverticulosis and potentially lead to diverticulitis if inflammation occurs.
Regular intake of both soluble fiber, like inulin, and insoluble fiber, which includes nondigestible carbohydrates that do not dissolve in water, is important for colon health. These types of dietary fiber help maintain regularity, soften stools, and enhance the strength of colonic contractions, thereby reducing the risk of conditions like diverticulosis. Moreover, fiber intake is inversely associated with the risk of colon cancer.
Why is the archaea domain closer to eukarya than bacteria?
Answer:
Archaea domain is closer to eukarya than bacteria because genetically they are more similar to Eukarya than Bacteria.
Explanation:
Options for this question are:
They both lack a nucleus and contain cytoplasm. The unique functional adaptations of Archaea are more similar to Eukarya adaptations. They both evolved in the same geological time period. Genetically, the Archaea are more similar to Eukarya than Bacteria. They both have membrane-bound organelles. Archaea is not closer to Eukarya because it contains prokaryotic cells just like Bacteria.Archaea are unicellular prokaryotic organisms, which share many characteristics with bacteria, however, the existence of metabolic functions and genes similar to eukaryotic organisms suggest that there is a genetic link between the two. Even the enzymes responsible for genetic processing, such as transcriptases and translation enzymes, are similar to those in eukaryotic cells.
The theory that establishes the relationship between Archaea and Eukaryotic suggests the existence of a common ancestor, whose later evolution allowed an Archaea to join a protobacteria to form a eukaryotic cell, and hence their genetic relationship.
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Jerry enters a hospital blood lab and notices a metal canister with the symbol above printed on all four sides. The symbol is MOST LIKELY a ______ caution sign.\
Answer:
caution sign seems the most reasonable.
Explanation:
Final answer:
The caution sign Jerry notices in the hospital blood lab indicates the presence of radioactive materials, used in nuclear medicine but requiring careful handling.
Explanation:
The symbol that Jerry notices most likely indicates the presence of radioactive materials, which are commonly used in the nuclear medicine department of hospitals. This symbol serves as a caution sign to alert individuals that specific safety precautions are necessary when around these substances. Radioactive materials hold importance in diagnosing and treating many diseases; however, they can be hazardous if not handled appropriately. Only those with special training should handle these materials, as they can be dangerous, but they should be respected rather than feared.
This symbol indicates the presence of radioactive materials that require special safety precautions for handling.
As a result of chronic stress associated with an intense high school weight-lifting program, a 15-year-old boy suffers an avulsion fracture of the greater tubercle of the humerus. In the ER, he displays difficulty initiating abduction of the upper limb. Which muscles was involved in this fracture?
Answer:
The correct answer is: supraspinatus.
Explanation:
Many muscles insert in the humerus - in its greater tubercle, where the fracture took place, is where three of the four rotator cuff muscles insert: supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and teres minor. Avulsion of the greater tubercle could result in detachment of any of these 3 muscles but if we take into account that the 15-year-old boy had difficulty initiating abduction of the upper limb, we can infer that the damaged muscle is the supraspinatus because its main action is to start the abduction the upper limb.
In a hypothetical situation, a certain species of flea feeds only on pronghorn antelopes. In rangelands of the western United States, pronghorns and cattle often associate with one another. If some of these fleas develop a strong preference for cattle blood and mate only with other fleas that prefer cattle blood, then over time which of these should occur, if the host mammal can be considered as the fleas' habitat
OPTIONS:
1. reproductive isolation
2. sympatric speciation
3. habitat isolation
4. prezygotic barriers
Answer:
All of the above
Explanation:
First, let us consider the definition of the above listed terms in the question and see each come to play in the hypothetical situation.
Reproductive isolation occurs when two similar species become prevented from mating together as a result of environmental barriers. This can be seen in the flea population, as they become separated by ecological barrier, since some now live on pronghorn antelopes, while others live on cattle.
Sympatric speciation is a speciation that occurs when new species evolved from an ancestor that they share the same geographical region together, but dwell in overlapping different ecological area.For example, fleas that have preference for cattle blood evolved from pronghorn antelopes fleas, as their ancestor. The two species both dwell in overlapping ranges but still in the same rangeland.
Habitat isolation is a barrier that prevents two species from interbreeding as a result of differences in where they live. For example, fleas on cattle cannot interbreed with fleas on pronghorn antelopes.
Prezygotic barriers are reproductive mechanisms that prevent fertilization. Habitat isolation is an example of prezygotic reproductive mechanism that prevents fertilization to take place between fleas on cattle and fleas on pronghorn antelopes.
Your sister-in-law is amazed at her 9-year-old son. She can remember when her son was not able to sit and listen to a story for very long and now he is able to listen intently and remember the story in very good detail. What two advances occur during middle childhood in information processing abilities that assist with his newly developed abilities?
Answer: Attention and memory
Explanation:
Attention and memory are the two skills developed in the body which is led to the development of abilities.
As a child he had a good memory that is the reason he remember the whole story. This happened at the time when he was not able to sit.
When he grew up he started taking interest in the story and paid attention to the story again.
This is the reason the child remembers the story very well.
The apoplast in plant tissues consists of:________. a. cell walls, extracellular spaces, and vessel elements b. cell walls, extracellular spaces, and plasmodesmata c. vessel elements, plasmodesmata, and extracellular spaces d. cell walls, plasma membrane, and cytosol
The apoplast in plant tissues consists of cell walls, extracellular spaces, and vessel elements
Explanation:
In plant cells, apoplasts refer to the extracellular space present outside the plasma membrane. These are formed by continuous cell walls arranged adjacent to each other.
The main function of apoplasts is transportation of water and other solutes between tissues and organs by free diffusion of molecules via the plasma membrane.
This pathway called the apoplastic pathway constituted by its vessel elements, cell walls, and extracellular space aids in passive absorption by roots
The apoplast in plant tissues consists of cell walls, extracellular spaces, and vessel elements, option a is correct.
The apoplast in plant tissues is composed of cell walls, extracellular spaces, and vessel elements, enabling the transport of substances like water and minerals. The apoplast allows for the transport of water and minerals through cell walls, the xylem, and the intercellular space between cells. Plasmodesmata, on the other hand, are channels that pass between cell walls of adjacent plant cells, connecting their cytoplasm and enabling the transport of materials from cell to cell within the symplast.
The enzyme phosphofructokinase catalyzes the conversion of fructose-6-phosphate and adenosine triphosphate (ATP) to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate and adenosine diphosphate (ADP). Adenosine monophosphate (AMP) activates the enzyme phosphofructokinase (PFK) by binding at a site distinct from the substrate-binding site. This is an example of:__________.
Answer: This is an example of allosteric regulation or modulation.
Explanation: Allostery is a process by which a ligand binds to a site on the enzyme that is different from the substrate binding site. This site is different from the active site and it is called allosteric site. Allostery can be positive or negative. If the binding of the ligand to the allosteric site of the enzyme activates the binding of the substrate to the active site of the enzyme, it is known as positive allostery but if the binding of a ligand to the allosteric site of the enzyme inhibits the binding of the substrate to the enzyme active site, it is known as negative allostery or allosteric inhibition. The binding of ADP to the allosteric site of phosphofructokinase (PKF) activates the enzyme, it is therefore a positive allostery.
Which of the following is not true of pyrimidines?
A. example: thymine
B. have a single ring structure
C. example: cytosine
D. example: adenine
Final answer:
The statement that lists adenine as a pyrimidine is incorrect because adenine is actually a purine with a two-ring structure.
Explanation:
The question regarding pyrimidines aims to identify which statement is not true about them. Pyrimidines, which include thymine and cytosine, are characterized by having a single ring structure. This is opposed to purines like adenine and guanine, which consist of two carbon-nitrogen rings. Given this information, the statement that is not true of pyrimidines is the one that lists adenine as an example (option D), as adenine is actually a purine, not a pyrimidine.
A client with chronic arterial occlusive disease undergoes percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA) for mechanical dilation of the right femoral artery. After the procedure, the client will be prescribed long-term administration of which drug?A. Aspirin or acetaminophen (Tylenol).B. Pentoxifylline (Trental) or acetaminophen (Tylenol).C. Aspirin or clopidogrel (Plavix).D. Penicillin V or erythromycin (E-Mycin)
Explanation:
(C) Aspirin or clopidogrel (Plavix) is Right Answer.
Aspirin medicine or clopidogrel (plavix).method of reasoning after PTCA ,the client begins long term aspirin or clopidogrel treatment to forestall thromboembolism. Doctors request heparin for anti coagulation during this methodology. A few doctors release customers with a medicine for long haul warfarin (coumadin) or low-sub-atomic weight heparin treatment. Pentoxifylline, a vasodilator used to treat ceaseless blood vessel impediment, isnt required after PTCA on the grounds that the technique itself opens the vessel. The doctor may arrange transient acetaminophen treatment to oversee fever or distress, however drawn out treatment isnt justified. The client may require an anti-infection, for example, penicillin or erythromycin.If a bacterial cell culture contains 2 cells at time zero, 8 cells one hour later, 32 cells after 2 hours, and 128 cells after 4 hours, then which of the following describes the growth of this culture?
A) g = 0.5 h, v = 5 h^-1
B) g = 0.5 h, v = 2 h^-1
C) g = 2 h, v = 0.5 h^-1
D) g = 1 h, v = 1^-1
Answer:
B) g = 0.5 h, v = 2 h^-1
Explanation:
Generation time is the time taken for a bacterial cell to divide and produce an offspring. Bacterial cells divide exponentially.
The total number of cells is given as =2n x initial number
[n = number of generations]
So if the total is 8 cells:
8=2n x 2
2n=4
n=2
That means 2 generations have arose
Generation time is given as [tex]\frac{t}{n}[/tex]
where t=the time taken
if t=1hour and n=2
Generation time = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] = 0.5hour
Generation time, g =0.5h, and the rate of generation (growth rate), v is 2 per hour
As part of your summer research project, your professor has asked you to perform comparative genomic hybridization (CGH). He gives you DNA from one person who you know nothing about (referred to as the test subject). You use this DNA as a template to make green fluorescent DNA. You also make red fluorescent DNA with DNA from a control person. When you perform CGH, you are surprised to find that the ratio of green to red fluorescence is 2 along all of chromosome 18. You conclude:____________.A. the control person must be missing chromosome 18.
B. the test subject is likely to have cancer.
C. the test subject likely has Edward Syndrome.
D. the test subject likely has Down Syndrome.
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Edward syndrome is also called as trisomy which is a genetic disorder. This disorder is caused due to the third copy of the all the part of the chromosome number 18.
The babies that are born is small and have heart defects. They have overlapping fingers.
The ultrasound cannot detect the problem but the process of amniocentesis can confirm the syndrome.
The 2:1 ratio of green to red fluorescence in comparative genomic hybridization suggests that the test subject has an extra copy of genetic material on chromosome 18, which likely indicates Edwards Syndrome, not Down Syndrome, option D is correct.
When performing comparative genomic hybridization (CGH), observing a ratio of green to red fluorescence that is consistently 2 along an entire chromosome, as described for chromosome 18 in this scenario, indicates a DNA copy number variation. In this case, a 2:1 ratio suggests that the test subject has gained extra genetic material on chromosome 18. The correct conclusion would be that the test subject likely has Down Syndrome. This is incorrect, as Down Syndrome is characterized by an extra copy (trisomy) of chromosome 21, not 18. An increased copy number on chromosome 18 could suggest other types of chromosomal abnormalities such as trisomy 18, also known as Edwards Syndrome and not Down Syndrome.
Imagine that you have discovered a new species that has the ability to consume other organisms for energy and also contains chloroplasts. What would these properties tell you about the organism
Answer:
This organism is both autotroph and heterotroph
Explanation:
The animals which have the ability to get energy by consuming the other organism are called heterotrophic organisms and the organism can make their own energy are called autotrophs.
So if an organism has the ability to consume another organism for energy and also have chloroplasts than that organism will be considered both autotroph and heterotroph because through chloroplast it can convert sunlight energy into chemical energy like plant do and by consuming other organisms it can also get food or energy.
Explain what a haploid cell is as if you were talking to an 8-10-year-old. (Please help, I'm working on a storybook about meiosis for children. Let's learn about how you came to be, children-os!)
Answer:
A haploid cell can be described as a type of cell which comprises of only a complete set of chromosome. Haploid cells are present in the gamete cells or sex cells. A sperm cell and an egg is haploid.
Diploid cells can be described as a type of cell which comprises of two sets of chromosomes. A zygote is diploid. All somatic cells of the body are diploid.
Answer:
chromosomes
Explanation:
Speciation occurs when populations of a species become so different over time that they can no longer interbreed. Which of the
following best describes the relationship between speciation and biodiversity?
A.
An increase in biodiversity generally results in a decrease in speciation rate.
B. Ecosystems with low biodiversity always have a low rate of speciation.
C.
Speciation results in an increase in overall biodiversity.
D.
Speciation can only occur in ecosystems with low biodiversity
Reset
Submit
Answer: C
Explanation:
speciation results iIn more species, therefore a greater biodiversity
Speciation results in an increase in overall biodiversity. The correct option is C.
What is speciation?The process by which populations develop into different species is known as speciation.
In contrast to anagenesis, which refers to phyletic evolution within lineages, cladogenesis, the separation of lineages, was first described by the scientist Orator F. Cook in 1906.
Rivers change their courses, mountains rise, continents drift, organisms migrate, and what was once a continuous population is split into two or more smaller populations.
According to scientists, who believe that geographic isolation is a common method for the process of speciation to start.
The most frequent type of speciation, allopatric speciation, takes place when populations of a species become geographically isolated. Gene flow between populations stops when they are divided.
The amount of biodiversity as a whole rises as a result of speciation.
Thus, the correct option is C.
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Match the definitions with their vocabulary terms. Not all terms will be used. a. ______process in which organisms with extreme expressions of a trait are removed.b. ______process in which shift of a population toward an extreme version of a beneficial trait.c. ______process in which individuals with average traits are removed, creating two populations with extreme traits
Answer:
1. Stabilizing selection
2. Directional selection
3. Disruptive selection
Explanation:
Natural selection is a process that is considered the mechanism of evolution. The natural selection selects the species in one of the three ways: directional, stabilizing and disruptive selection.
1. Stabilizing selection- occurs when nature favors the average phenotype of the species and the extreme phenotype of the traits is not favored.
2. Directional selection-takes place when one of the extreme traits of a population of a species favored the most and the allele frequency sifts to that direction.
3. Disruptive selection-occurs when both the extreme traits are favored by nature and the population evolves into two separate populations.
Suppose the government has imposed a price floor on the market for soybeans. Which of the following events could transform the price floor from one that is not binding into one that is binding?a. Farmers use improved, draught-resistant seeds, which lowers the cost of growing soybeans.b. The number of farmers selling soybeans decreases.c. Consumers' income increases, and soybeans are a normal good.d. The number of consumers buying soybeans increases.
Answer:
The correct answer is - option A.
Explanation:
Price floor is a minimum price determined by the government at which a particular item can be sold. It is legal to sell the item on the minimum price which is often imposed by the government when farmers or sellers of the item convince that market price is not fair without a price floor.
In this case the farmers are farmers use improved, drought resistant seeds, which lowers the cost of growing soybeans which can transform the price floor.
Thus, the correct answer is - option A.
In the context of a government-imposed price floor on soybeans, an increase in the number of consumers buying soybeans could potentially transform a non-binding price floor into a binding one. This is because the rise in demand could drive the equilibrium price above the current price floor, making the floor price binding.
Explanation:In the context of this question, a price floor is a minimum price set by the government at a level above the market equilibrium price. If the government sets a floor price on soybeans, it sets a price that it will not allow the price of soybeans to fall below, even if market conditions would require it to. If the floor price is set above the equilibrium price, it is known as a binding price floor.
The scenario that could transform the price floor from not binding to binding would be Option D: 'The number of consumers buying soybeans increases.' This event could push the market demand for soybeans up, pushing up the equilibrium price. If this new, higher equilibrium price exceeds the price floor, then the price floor becomes binding. The government would then need to buy the surplus soybeans that are not sold in order to keep the market price at the floor price.
Conversely, if farmers use better seeds (Option A) or the number of farmers decrease (Option B), this could increase supply, which would lower the equilibrium price and make a price floor less likely to bind. Similarly, if consumers' incomes increase and soybeans are a normal good (Option C), this could also increase demand, but depending on the elasticity of the demand for soybeans, it may not increase the price enough to make a price floor binding.
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Eukaryotes have their DNA arranged in numerous double-stranded, linear DNA molecules bound with proteins; these structures are called ___________
Answer:
In eukaryotes, the genome comprises several double-stranded, linear DNA molecules bound with proteins to form complexes called chromosomes
A Drosophila fruit fly cell with 2N = 8 chromosomes—two of each kind—is called a cell. a. haploidb. diploidOne_____of each_____is located on each chromosome.a. gene, alleleb. gene, genec. allele, gened. allele, allele Drosophila fruit flies produce gametes with one of each kind of chromosome. These gametes are called______cells.a. diploidb. haploid These cells contain_____chromosomes.a. 4Nb. 2Nc. Nd. 1/2 N
Answer:
1. Diploid
2. Allele, gene
3. haploid
4. N
Explanation:
1. The ploidy of a cell represents the number of chromosomes present in the cell. Since the fruit fly has 2N = 8 where n represents the number of chromosomes but in pair, as 2N represents, therefore, is a diploid organism
2. The gene present on the chromosomes is present in the form of its alternative form called alleles which are present on each chromosome
3. The gamete is formed by the process of meiosis which reduces the ploidy to half thus diploid forms the haploid gamete.
4. The ploidy of gametes is represented as "N" as the gametes are formed by the meiosis.
There are two types of cells on the basis of the number of chromosomes.
These cells are as follows:-
DiploidHaploidHence, according to the question.
A Drosophila fruit fly cell with 2N = 8 chromosomes DIPLOID two of each is called a cell.
One ALLELE of each GENES is located on each chromosome.
Drosophila fruit flies produce gametes with one of each kind of chromosome. These gametes are called HAPLOID cells.
These cells contain HALF NUMBER OF chromosomes.
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What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign dna into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium?
Answer:
Explanation:
Step 1 - Extract plasmid DNA from bacteria.
Step 2 - Cut this plasmid DNA with the help of restrictions enzyme so that gene of interest can be ligated in it.
Step 3 - Create gene of interest.
Step 4 - Combine gene of interest to plasmid creating recombinant DNA.
Step 5 - Grow transgenic bacteria carrying this plasmid.
The process of photosynthesis probably originated _____.
Answer:
In prokaryotes
Explanation:
The process of photosynthesis probably originated in prokaryotic organisms.
Photosynthesis is the process whereby organisms manufacture their own food in the presence of sunlight, carbon dioxide and water.
The process is an advancement in the history of evolution of plant species on earth. It also furnished a new way of life for other organisms. It is widely suggested that some prokaryotes infolded their plasma membrane and it serves as modern day version of chloroplasts.Photosynthesis began between 3.5 and 2.5 billion years ago with cyanobacteria, fundamentally changing the Earth's atmosphere by releasing oxygen. This key evolutionary step allowed organisms to harness energy from sunlight, leading to a diverse and complex biosphere.
Explanation:The process of photosynthesis likely originated on Earth between 3.5 and 2.5 billion years ago, during the Archaean Eon. Cyanobacteria, single-celled organisms capable of photosynthesis, appeared around 2.5 billion years ago and dramatically altered the composition of the Earth's atmosphere and the course of biological evolution. By capturing light energy from the sun, these organisms were able to generate carbohydrates for stored energy and release oxygen as a by-product. This evolutionary step was a monumental biological innovation because it allowed life forms to derive energy directly from sunlight rather than depending solely on chemical sources present on Earth or from space.
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What is genetic drift? View Available Hint(s) What is genetic drift? The motion of continental plates over time The physical splitting of a habitat The production of an evolutionarily independent group of organisms
Genetic drift is a random change in allele frequencies that occurs in a small population. It can lead to the elimination of an allele from a population by chance. This process can occur more quickly in small populations and can be magnified by natural or human-caused events.
Explanation:Genetic drift is a random change in allele frequencies that occurs in a small population. It is the effect of random chance on a population, where the allele frequencies in the offspring differ from the allele frequencies in the parents. Genetic drift can lead to the elimination of an allele from a population by chance. This process can occur more quickly in small populations, and it can also be magnified by natural or human-caused events, such as disasters or migrations.
Since animals have nerve and muscle tissue and plants do not, which of the following events in earth’s history would be associated with adaptive radiation of many groups of animals, and not particularly that of plants?
A. increase in atmospheric O2
B. great increase in land mass area
C. changes in global ocean temperatures
D. meteorite impacts and volcanic eruptions
E. earthquake activity causing increased barrier formation
Answer:
The correct option is A) increase in atmospheric O2
Explanation:
The nerve cells and the muscle cells suggest that the the presence of oxygen in the atmosphere was an adaptive radiation which brought the existence of different animals. The conditions became favorable for different animals to survive on Earth only when the availability of oxygen improved in the atmosphere. As animal cells like the muscle cells require a constant supply of oxygen, we can hence say that increase in atmospheric oxygen was the adaptive radiation for supporting many group of animals.
How do the nutrients that enter our cells compare with the food we eat? A. The food we eat is broken down into individual, microscopic nutrient molecules which enter the cell. B. The nutrients that enter our cells are exactly the same as the food we eat, just smaller pieces. C. The nutrients that enter our cells are in the same form as the food we eat. D. The nutrients that enter our cells do not come from the food we eat.
Answer:
Option-A
Explanation:
The cell requires nutrients for the growth, development and to survive. The body gets the nutrients from what we eat.
The food material eaten by humans has to be digested by the digestive enzymes or the complex molecules are broken down into the smaller molecules. These simple molecules are absorbed by the intestine through diffusion and get transported into the blood.
From the blood, the nutrients reach to different cells of the body and hence are absorbed by the cell.
Thus, Option-A is correct.
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
The foods that we take are in the form of complex carbohydrates, fats and proteins. These food particles are broken down inside the body in order to attain simpler forms.
These simpler forms of food are easily absorbed inside the body. The organism absorbs these microscopic nutrients which is then converted into adenosine tri phosphate.
This is how the energy from the food is used by the body.
"He was awakened in the middle of the night by a low growling that sounded as if it was coming from just outside his tent. In response, the cells of his adrenal medulla began to secrete epinephrine, causing his palms to sweat, his heart to race, and his hair to stand on end." Epinephrine is involved in what type of signaling as described in this passage
Answer: Adrenaline, also known as epinephrine, is a hormone and medication. Adrenaline is normally produced by both the adrenal glands and a small number of neurons in the medulla oblongata, where it acts as a neurotransmitter involved in regulating visceral functions (e.g., respiration).It plays an important role in the fight-or-flight response by increasing blood flow to muscles, output of the heart, pupil dilation response and blood sugar level. It does this by binding to alpha and beta receptors.[
Epinephrine is involved in endocrine type of signaling as described in this passage. Thus, the correct option is D.
What is Endocrine signaling?Endocrine cells produce hormones to communicate with the remote target cells which are found in other organs of the body. The hormone that reaches these distant areas using the circulatory system in the body. This exposes the whole organism to the hormone however, only those cells which are expressing hormone receptors or target cells are affected in an organism. Thus, the endocrine signaling induces slow responses from the target cells but these effects also last longer than usual.
Epinephrine or adrenaline is a hormone which is also known as fight-or-flight hormone. This hormone increases the energy during the emergency condition.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
He was awakened in the middle of the night by a low growling that sounded as if it was coming from just outside his tent. In response, the cells of his adrenal medulla began to secrete epinephrine, causing his palms to sweat, his heart to race, and his hair to stand on end." Epinephrine is involved in what type of signaling as described in this passage?
A. Autocrine
B. Paracrine
C. Juxtacrine
D. Endocrine
E. Contact Mediated
In a large population of randomly breeding foxes, a dominant allele results in a soft, brown pelt, while a recessive allele results in a rough, grey pelt. The dominant allele is found in 80% of the population while the recessive allele is found in 20%. There is no migration, drift, or selection in the population. When human beings enter this habitat, they selectively hunt foxes with brown pelts. After many generations of this activity, how will this population change? Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button.
Answer:
The frequency of the recessive allele which codes for grey pelt character will rise above 20%, while the that of the dominant allele that confers brown pelt character will decrease below 80%.
Explanation:
Since the population of foxes with brown pelts are being selectively hunted by humans, the population of foxes with brown pelts will keep reducing while the population of foxes with grey pelt will thrive in its place.
Hence, the the frequency of the recessive allele which confers grey pelt attribute will rise above original 20% within the population, while the dominant allele will decrease below 80%.
nutrition student who is learning that a balanced diet involves consuming diverse foods that have a variety of vitamins in them every day. Why is it advisable to consume vitamins in the form of whole foods every day
Answer:
Answered below.
Explanation:
Vitamins are one of the food nutrients required for a balanced diet. This is because vitamins play a vital role in the functionality and the structural development of our body systems. Vitamins are sometimes referred to as micronutrients because they are needed in smaller amounts by the body.
Vitamins are classified into essential and non-essential vitamins. The non-essential vitamins are readily produced by the body and do not require taking them from external sources while the essential vitamins must be taken in as the body does not either produce them, or doesn't produce them to the amounts it actually need.
The essential vitamins include;
Vitamins A, D, E, K, C and the B vitamins which include vitamins B1, B2, B3, B5, B6, B7, B9 and B12.
These vitamins are further divided into fat-soluble (ADEK) and water-soluble(B vitamins and C)
It is advisable to take at least the recommended dietary allowance of these vitamins in our foods, everyday as they are not synthesized in the body to required amounts. These vitamins are needed for the many metabolic processes occurring in the body and a deficiency of them lead to various diseases examples being;
Scurvy from vitamin C deficiency.
Anemia from folate deficiency.
Night blindness from vitamin A deficiency.
Muscle weakness and fatigue from vitamin D deficiency and many more.
During glycolysis, when glucose is catabolized to pyruvate, most of the energy of glucose is a. retained in the pyruvate. b. transferred directly to FADH2. c. transferred to ADP, forming ATP. d. stored in the ADP produced.
Answer:
a. retained in the pyruvate
Explanation:
Glycolysis is a cytoplasmic pathway that converts glucose into two pyruvate, releasing a modest amount of energy captured in two substrate-level phosphorylations and one oxidation reaction.
Following are the important enzymes in it :
HexokinasePhosphofructokinasePyruvate kinaseAerobic glycolysis yields 2ATP/glucose plus 2NADH/glucose but most of the energy is retained in pyruvate which is then converted into Acetyl-CoA and enters the kreb's cycle.
Most of the energy of glucose is : ( A ) retained in the pyruvate
Glycolysis is a process ( cytoplasmic pathway ) through which glucose is converted into 2 pyruvate molecules and a little amount of energy generated during this process is released into the two-substrate level phosphorylations and an oxidation reaction.
Most of the energy is retained in the pyruvate during aerobic glycolysis and 2ATP / glucose is produced as well.
Hence we can conclude that most of the energy of glucose is retained in the pyruvate.
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