Answer:
I take a blood thinner so I don't get clots.
Explanation:
A ventricular dysrhythmia is the disturbance in the typical rhythm of the electrical movement of the heart which arises in the ventricles while Amiodarone is an antiarrhythmic medicine utilized for treating and preventing different of types of irregular heartbeats. This includes ventricular fibrillation (VF), ventricular tachycardia (VT), and wide complex tachycardia, as well as paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia and atria fibrillation.
From the patient's medical history it is not advisable to prescribe an amiodarone dosage.
Answer:
I do take blood thinners , to prevent clotting.
Explanation:
Amiodarone as oral or intravenous intake is used to slowdown or prevent excessive excitation of the heart to reduce irregular heart beats.(arrhythmia), They are therefore commonly refers to as anti-arrhythmia drugs.
Arrhythmia causes accumulation of blood in the vascular system, leading to blood clotting. Therefore blood thinners are usually used by patients with arrhythmia to prevent clot.
However,usage of amiodarone and blood thinner e.g heparin, will make the blood too thin, which may lead to lysis of blood cells and profuse bleeding.
Therefore the nurse should alert the health care provider immediately, she noticed this in medical history, to review the prescription.
The first exercise during Strength Endurance training involves a traditional strength exercise, such as a bench press, that is performed in a stable environment in order to elicit which of the following?A. Fixator strength.B. Antagonist muscle strength.C. Prime mover strength.D. Neutralizer strength.
The correct answer would be Prime mover strength.
Hope this helped have a nice day!
Your mother is considering changing her diet to include only non-meat proteins to reduce her risk of developing heart disease or cancer. What evidence is available to support her decision?a. Vegetarian diets contain greater amounts of heart- protective omega-3 fatty acids.b. Plant-based diets are usually lower in saturated fat and higher in fiber, which reduces risk of heart disease.c. Substituting soy for meat proteins has resulted in a large decrease in heart disease risk.d. Lung cancer never develops in people eating plant- based diets.e. Intakes of fruit and vegetables decrease when meat consumption decreases.
Answer:
b. Plant-based diets are usually lower in saturated fat and higher in fiber, which reduces risk of heart disease
Explanation:
Eating a plant-based diet increases the consumption of mineral, potassium, folic acid, magnesium, vitamins such as vitamins C and E, plant chemicals as carotenoids and flavonoids, a dietary fiber for that would otherwise be reduced, all this helps reduce the consumption of LDS that is bad cholesterol, for heart protection is recommended eat hight fiber whole grain and legumes which are the main sources of protein in a plant-based diet.
Answer:
b. Plant-based diets are usually lower in saturated fat and higher in fiber, which reduces risk of heart disease.
Explanation:
When an individual feeds entirely on plants products of vegetables, legumes,fruits, nuts, with occasional mixture of a few or no animal products, such an individual is on a Plant -based diet. it is different from vegetarian diet which involves the consumption of plants products with diary and eggs only,with no animal products, and Vegan diet with no animal product at all.
Since they are plants products, they do not have low-density lipoproteins, which blocks the vascular system and deposits around the walls of the heart.Therefore plant based diet is good for the woman .
Fibres generally improves gastrointestinal motility, a prevention against colon cancer, aids clearance of toxins from the body, prevent build up of radicals, and rich in antioxidants which help to fight cancers.
Therefore it was a right decision.
A 76-year-old man with known colonic diverticulosis notices bright red blood in his stool. This is an example of which of the following?
a. Melena
b. Hematochezia
c. Diarrhea
d. Hematemesis
e. Fecal occult blood
Answer: B) Hematochezia
Explanation: i think it's B not sure
In poor inner-city neighborhoods, children sometimes eat paint that is flaking off walls. This can sometimes lead to intellectual developmental disorder due to: A. microcephaly. B. encephalitis. C. lead poisoning. D. meningitis.
All of the following are factors likely to affect energy expenditure during exercise EXCEPT: A. fitness level of individual B. duration of the exercise period C. consumption of multi-vitamin supplements D. muscle mass used while exercising
Answer:
C. consumption of multi-vitamin supplements
Explanation:
Consumption of multivitamin supplements can’t affect energy expenditure during exercises because multivitamins are substances ingested to help boost the body’s metabolism.
Fitness levels of individuals would determine how long the person would exercise. If fitness levels are high the individual will expend more energy before getting tired and if low won’t expend much energy.
Duration of the exercise is also a factor. The higher the duration the more energy expended and the Lower the duration the less energy expended.
Some types of muscle mass supports more energy expenditure than others.
The factor that does NOT AFFECT the energy expenditure during exercise is the consumption of multivitamin supplements (Option C).
Physical exercise refers to the performance of some physical activity to develop and/or maintain fitness and health.
Physical activity accounts for approximately 30% to 40% of the total energy expenditure during a day.
Vitamins and minerals are essential micronutrients but they have no calories and therefore do not affect the energy expenditure during exercise.
In conclusion, the factor that does NOT AFFECT the energy expenditure during exercise is the consumption of multivitamin supplements (Option C).
Learn more in:
https://brainly.com/question/1080637?referrer=searchResults
Which techniques could be used to identify antibodies produced by a patient?
Explanation:
For the detection of the antibody, several methods can be used:
By PeroxidasePeroxidase is an enzyme that uses H2O2 to oxidize its substrates. These substrates are designed in such a way that their oxidation can be detected by light release (luminol), by the formation of a colored precipitate (DAB) or by the transformation of a colorless compound into a colorful compound, can be determined quantitatively by spectroscopy. Luminol, in the presence of H2O2 and peroxidase emits light, which can be captured by X-ray films, being mainly used in immunodetection. Diaminobanzidine (DAB), in the presence of H2O2 and peroxidase, forms a colored polymer brown, precipitating in the place where the peroxidase is found, being mainly used in immunocytochemistry studies. There is a wide variety of compounds that can be used as chromophores, providing the most varied colors, usable in ELISA technique, with ABTS (2, 2'-azino-di (3-ethylbenzthiazoline-6-sulfonate) being an example of dye that turns blue-green in the presence of peroxidase.
By Alkaline phosphataseAlkaline phosphatase is an enzyme that hydrolyzes phosphate bonds. In this way, chromophores are compounds that have phosphate groups, and that with the loss of this group phosphates acquire color, as is the case with p-nitrophenyl phosphate, which turns yellow when phosphate group.
By FluorophoreFluorophore is a compound that emits light of a certain wavelength (λ (coloring) when excited by a light from another λ. Fluorophores with different characteristics make it possible to mark different antigens with different colors in the same tissue or cell, allowing simultaneous observation oftwo or more components.
By Metals with high densityThe main heavy metal conjugated to antibodies is gold. This allows you to locate antigens through electron microscopy, allowing very specific cytological studies
A food processing company considering snack-food opportunities identified three possible market segments and gave them "nicknames": the dieters, the health faddists, and the nutrition-conscious parents. It developed a marketing mix around a line of good-tasting, nutritious children's snacks. The firm is apparently
Answer: Using a single target market approach
Explanation:
In the single target market approach the population is segmented into homogeneous segments bases on the same kind of interest of the audience and the product and service used for the marketing remain the same.
According to the given situation, the marketing of snack food is done on three different homogeneous segments of the society including the dieters, health faddists and nutrition conscious people who have common center of interest that is nutrition.
Shawn knows that it feels good to have a friend take him out to dinner. Which action could he use to show reciprocity? Take one of his friends out to dinner. Ask a friend to take him out to dinner. Tell his friend how much he enjoyed the dinner. Make sure to split dinner checks with his friend in the future.
Answer:
Take one of his friends out to dinner
Explanation:
Reciprocity basically means to give and take so if his friend took him out Shawn would need to take one of his friends out to show reciprocity.
Answer:
take one of his friends out to dinner
Explanation:
since he liked it his friend might like it to
______ neglect includes abandonment; expulsion from the home ("throwaway child"); failure to seek medical help for the child; delay in seeking medical care; inadequate supervision; and inadequate food, clothing, and shelter.
Answer: Physical neglect
Explanation:
Physical neglect refers to the process whereby, parents ignore or refuse to provide basic amenities like shelter, food, medical attention for the child. Physical neglect often leads to child abandonment, expulsion from home, inadequate adult supervision of a child, and rejection of the child. Physical neglect can have a substantial and serious impact on a child's overall health and wellbeing. Some of the effects of physical neglect to a child include; malnutrition, severe dehydration, ongoing and untreated illnesses, and exposure to harm due to being unsupervised are all examples of the consequences of physical neglect.
Registered nurse who is orienting a new nursing graduate to the hospital emergency department instructs the new graduate to monitor a client for one-sided chest movement on the right side while the client is being intubated by the health care provider (HCP). Which statement made by the new nursing graduate indicates understanding of the importance of this observation?
Answer:
"the endotracheal tube could enter Right main bronchus if inserted too far"
Explanation:
Based on the information provided it can be said that in this scenario the statemen that would indicate complete understanding would be "the endotracheal tube could enter Right main bronchus if inserted too far". This statement is completely true and occurs because the right bronchus is shorter and wider than the left thus allowing easier passage.
A 15-year-old child is brought to the emergency department with symptoms of hyperglycemia. Based on the fact that the child’s pancreatic beta cells are being destroyed, the client would be diagnosed with what type of diabetes?
Answer: Type 1 diabetes
Explanation:
The destruction of the pancreatic beta cells is indicative of the type 1 diabetes. The type 1 diabetes is associated with the weak immune system as the fighting ability of the body against the pathogens becomes weak. The type 1 diabetes is caused by the genetic factors and environmental factors like virus and other disease causing microbes.
As a result of destruction of the beta cells the insulin decreases, even no insulin is produced in the body. This condition will result in hyperglycemia. As a result of hyperglycemia the level of sugar in the blood will increase as in the absence of insulin secretion the blood sugar level will increase.
After a patient is diagnosed with an illness, what type of information is he or she most likely to want from a medical provider? Explanations about the cause of the disease information about the risks and benefits of each of the treatment options help with navigating medical forms tips for preventing future illness
Answer:
Explanations about the disease.
Explanation:
The meaning of "diagnose' involves the process of finding out the identity of an illness. This can be done through the symptoms or carrying out of different tests.
Most of the time, the information needed for diagnosis are gotten through physical examination or from the patient medical history.
In most cases, after the diagnosis,the first thing the patient will be curious about, is to have a detailed explanation on the illness or disease. This is because, that is the primary aim why he/she seeks medical attention.
The patient will like to know the type of illness present in his/her body, what likely to be the cause and its effect in his/her body.
In a laboratory, smokers are asked to "drive" using a computerized driving simulator equipped with a stick shift and a gas pedal. The object is to maximize the distance covered by driving as fast as possible on a winding road while avoiding rear-end collisions. Some of the participants smoke a real cigarette immediately before climbing into the driver's seat. Others smoke a fake cigarette without nicotine. You are interested in comparing how many collisions the two groups have. In this study, the independent variable is _____________________. the use of nicotine the use of a driving simulator the number of collisions the number of accidents the driving skills of each driver
In the mentioned study, the independent variable is whether the participant smoked a real cigarette with nicotine or a fake cigarette without nicotine. This variable is manipulated to observe its impact on the performance in the driving simulator, measured by the number of collisions.
Explanation:In this study, the independent variable is whether the participant smoked a real cigarette with nicotine or a fake cigarette without nicotine. This variable is considered independent because it is the one being manipulated or changed in the experiment to observe the impact it might have on the dependent variable - in this case, the number of collisions.
The aim of this study is to evaluate the effect of nicotine on driving performance, specifically the number of collisions, which serves as the dependent variable.
It's crucial to understand that the driving simulator, the number of accidents, or the driving skills of each driver are not the independent variables in this specific study as they are elements involved in the experiment but not actively changed to observe some consequential difference.
Learn more about Independent Variable here:https://brainly.com/question/32711473
#SPJ6
What is the difference between spilling solid koh on your skin
Answer:
Solid KOH is at best an irritant since it begins to dissolve quickly from pellets to liquidi n air
Explanation:
KOH in any form is an irritant to the skin. It should be avoided. KOH solution is frequently used by dermatologist for treatment in very low concentrations to treat fungi etc. KOH in the form of triethyleneglycol is best to be avoided since KOH will cause chemical burns. The way this works is by denaturing the proteins that make up the surface of the skin.
Lian, a chinese american, was asked by her clinician if she could speak English fluently. The clinician took into account Lian's cultural, ethnic, and racial background. What was performed by Lian's clinician?
Answer: Multicultural assessment
Explanation:
The multicultural assessment can be defined as the assessment which is based on the cultural context. In this various aspects of culture and religion are examine and it also checks how people of different cultures interact with each other.
The given situation is an example of multicultural assessment. This is because of the fact that culture, racial and ethnic background of people are examined, and assessed. This has been done because Lian is a chinese american and was asked by the clinicians to speak english and to observe other parameters.
Mr. S. has stage IV lung cancer and was admitted to your unit yesterday because of shortness of breath. His breathing has improved with treatment and you tell him you are hoping to get to know him better so you can provide the best care possible. Which of the following statements reflects your interest in getting to know him? A) "Can you tell me what has given your life meaning?" B) "Do you know much about your disease?" C) "Is your cancer treatment helping you?" D) "If I can do anything to help you, let me know."
Answer:
A) "Can you tell me what has given your life meaning
Explanation:
Mr. S. has stage IV lung cancer and was admitted to your unit yesterday because of shortness of breath. His breathing has improved with treatment and you tell him you are hoping to get to know him better so you can provide the best care possible. By asking him to tell me what has given his life meaning which will reflect my interest in getting to know him better because he will be able to Express his self by opening up about certain issue, condition or difficulty that he has faced in life thereby making me to provide the best care possible to him.
Final answer:
The statement that best reflects genuine interest in Mr. S.'s experiences and personal values is "Can you tell me what has given your life meaning?" as it invites him to share his life story and facilitates a deeper nurse-patient connection.
Explanation:
To establish a strong nurse-patient relationship with Mr. S. who has stage IV lung cancer, it is important to convey genuine interest in him as a person beyond his illness. Among the options presented, A) "Can you tell me what has given your life meaning?" most effectively demonstrates a desire to understand Mr. S. on a personal level by inviting him to share his values and experiences, which can help provide tailored and compassionate care.
B) "Do you know much about your disease?" focuses more on the clinical aspect rather than the personal connection. C) "Is your cancer treatment helping you?" again centers on treatment effectiveness, not on getting to know Mr. S. as an individual. Lastly, D) "If I can do anything to help you, let me know." is a supportive statement but does not directly express an interest in learning more about the patient's life.
When communicating with patients nearing the end of life, it is crucial to balance truthful information with sensitivity to their needs and desires. Acknowledging the patient's feelings, normalizing the uncertainty, and actively listening are all components of effective end-of-life communication.
During a mental health intake interview, a young adult client who lives with his family rent free says, "I’m tired of not being able to offer my friends a beer just because my folks don’t believe in taking a drink socially." Which nursing response would be therapeutic?
Answer: it seams that your parents expect you to follow their rules since you live under their roof.
Explanation:
This is because, she lives with her parents, so there are certain rules being set by her parents, one of those rules being set is not taking of alcohol. Since she lives under the same roof with her parents, she is expected to abide by those rules. So her friends visiting her would not be able to take alcohol since she still lives with her parents, the rules of her parents prohibit the taking of alcohol.
During a rest stop while hiking, Phil was bitten by a black widow spider. Shortly after being bitten, he started having breathing difficulties, then experienced muscle spasms. The symptoms he experienced occurred because the black widow spider's venom:________.
Answer: caused acetylcholine to be continuously released by the motor neurons.
Explanation:
The black widow spider releases a venom on the bite. The name of the venom is the alpha-latrotoxin. The alpha-latrotoxin is a neurotoxin produced by the venom of the spiders. This venom is responsible for the release of latrodectism. The person experiences the release of acetylcholine in excess from the motor neurons due to the venom.
The release of excess acetylcholine causes contraction of the muscles and the person may experience a muscle spasm.
If a person takes an aspirin and the aspirin makes a headache go away, then the person becomes more likely to take an aspirin for a headache in the future. This example illustrates that the aspirin acts as a(n):
Answer:
negative reinforcer
Explanation:
In operant conditioning which involves learning being brought about by the consequence of a behavior, a negative reinforcer increases the likelihood of a behavior to be exhibited by the removal of an unpleasant or aversive stimulus.
Aspirin in the example given, is a negative reinforce that removes the headache, and as such increases the likelihood of the person taking aspirin in future when such aversive stimulus occurs.
Answer:
Negative reinforcer
Explanation:The negative reinforced is a reinforcing type of removal stimulus which its prescence make tends to stop or reduce or decreased the likelihood of the agent or body that produced it.
If an individual takes in aspirin and it makes the headache go away, the likelihood of the headache going away by taking aspirin again in the future is a clear example of negative reinforcer.
Eldon Martin is a 75-year-old retired Marine Corps officer. He smoked cigarettes most of his adult life, but quit 10 years ago when he learned he had allergy-induced asthmatic lung disease. He comes to the hospital today with a high fever, productive cough, and pain in his chest. He is diagnosed with pneumonia.
What additional assessment findings would be important for the nurse to gather in relation to oxygenation concerns?
A. Pulse oximetry reading
B. Arterial blood gas
C. Normal diet
D. Lung sounds
E. Number of years of smoking
Answer:
A,B,D and E.
Explanation:A. Pulse oximetry reading
B. Arterial blood gas
D. Lung sounds
E. Number of years of smoking
In relation to oxygenation concerns,
The options listed above are the additional assessment findings that would be important for the nurse to gather.
Registered nurse who is orienting a new nursing graduate to the hospital emergency department instructs the new graduate to monitor a client for one-sided chest movement on the right side while the client is being intubated by the health care provider (HCP). Which statement made by the new nursing graduate indicates understanding of the importance of this observation?
Answer:
The correct Optons were not given in the question. Correct options should be:
1. Call the health care provider (HCP).
2. Place the tube in a bottle of sterile water.
3. Replace the chest tube system.
4. Place a sterile dressing over the disconnection site.
The answer should be;
2. Place the tube in a bottle of sterile water.
Explanation:
Presence of fluctuation of the fluid level in the water seal chamber indicates a patent drainage system. With normal breathing, the water level rises with inspiration and falls with expiration.Fluctuation stops if the tube is obstructed, if a dependent loop exists, if the suction is not working properly, or if the lung has re-expanded.
Now, If the chest drainage system is disconnected, the end of the tube is being placed in a bottle of sterile water positioned below the level of the chest. The HCP may need to be notified, but this is not the initial action. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.
Jaden has a horrible pain on his right side, a symptom that is prototypical of appendicitis. Even though he does not have any of the other symptoms of appendicitis, he is convinced he has it and goes to the emergency room. He is mortified to learn that all he had was a bad case of gas. Because Jaden's error was based on the prototype of the symptom he had, he relied on the ______________ heuristic.
Answer:
representativeness heuristic
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that in this scenario Jaden seems to have relied on the representativeness heuristic. This term refers to assessing something based on the similarity of the objects and organizing them based on that specific category. Which is what Jaden has done in this scenario by assuming that he had appendicitis solely due to the fact that he had one similar symptom.
Jaden's error was due to the use of the representativeness heuristic, where he judged his condition based on the prototype of appendicitis symptoms. This led him to incorrectly believe he had appendicitis despite lacking other symptoms. This cognitive shortcut can lead to incorrect conclusions by focusing on limited matching characteristics.
The heuristic Jaden relied on is the representativeness heuristic. This cognitive shortcut involves making a judgment about the probability or classification of an event based on how closely it matches the typical case or prototype.
In this scenario, Jaden experienced a severe pain on his right side, which is a well-known symptom of appendicitis. Even though he lacked other symptoms, his evaluation was influenced primarily by how closely his symptom matched the common signs of appendicitis described in medical literature.
Understanding the Representativeness Heuristic
The representativeness heuristic can be useful in making quick decisions, but it can also lead to errors when other important information is overlooked. In Jaden's case, he overlooked other possible causes of his pain, such as gas, which led to a misdiagnosis.
For instance, a classic example of this heuristic might involve someone assuming that a person who wears glasses and reads a lot must be a librarian because they match the stereotype, even though they might actually be a computer programmer or another profession.
Observations that people may actually process and manipulate information rather than simply store it for brief periods of time challenged the conceptualization of Group of answer choices the phonological similarity effect. short-term memory. the persistence of vision. the physiological approach to coding.
Answer: Short term memory
Explanation:
Short-term memory is the memory that has ability to store short observation, information and memories for small period of time but cannot be modified or manipulated.
Other options are incorrect because vision persistence ,physiological approach and phonological similarity effect are not factors that confront observation in memory for short while along with ability to modify it.Thus, the correct option is short term memory.
The observation challenges the classic understanding of short-term memory as a simple storage system, asserting instead that it is also active in the processing and manipulation of information. Concepts like encoding, semantic encoding, and suggestibility and misattribution effects on memory perception support this reconsideration.
Explanation:The observation that people might process and manipulate information instead of just storing it briefly challenges the traditional understanding of short-term memory. Short-term memory, also referred to as working memory, has traditionally been considered a storage system that maintains and manages information over short periods. However, the concept that short-term memory might be more dynamic--involved in not only storing but also processing and manipulating information--emerged with the introduction of ideas such as encoding, semantic encoding, and the effects of suggestibility and misattribution on memory perception.
In the process of encoding, for example, information is transformed into a format that the mind can understand and use, which may involve deeper level processing and not just superficial storage. Semantic encoding takes this a step further, suggesting that people also assign meaning to the information they process, making it more memorable. Suggestibility and misinformation can also play a role in how we remember events, with external factors potentially distorting or creating false memories.
In summary, the assumption that short-term memory is only a temporary storage system has been challenged by ideas suggesting it might also be involved in the active processing and manipulation of information. This reevaluation of short-term memory contributes to a broader understanding of how memory works, including how we encode, store, and retrieve information over different periods of time.
Learn more about short-term memory here:https://brainly.com/question/7095837
#SPJ3
To reduce her intake of added sugars, Isabelle should A) consume energy drinks instead of coffee. B) increase her intake of beverages sweetened with high-fructose corn syrup. C) consume more refined sources of carbohydrates. D) replace regular soft drinks with plain water.
Answer: C) consume more refined sources of carbohydrates
Explanation:The consumption of sugar seems to lead to several health issues.such as tooth decay,type 2 diabetes. Isabelle should source for food that has natural source of carbohydrates.such as
Honey
Coconut sugar
Date paste
Monk fruit extract
Stevia extract
Isabelle should replace regular soft drinks with plain water to reduce her intake of added sugars. Sweetened beverages are linked to various health issues, and healthier alternatives include fruits, seltzer water, or diluted fruit juice.
To reduce her intake of added sugars, Isabelle should D) replace regular soft drinks with plain water. Consuming energy drinks instead of coffee, increasing her intake of beverages sweetened with high-fructose corn syrup, or consuming more refined sources of carbohydrates would actually increase her added sugar intake, which is not conducive to a healthy diet. By choosing plain water, she avoids the excess calories and health risks associated with added sugars found in sugary beverages. Moreover, consumption of sugary soft drinks and other sweetened beverages has been linked to an increased risk for dental caries, obesity, Type 2 diabetes, and cardiovascular disease.
For a healthier alternative, Isabelle could calm her "sweet tooth" by eating fruits or replacing sugary drinks with seltzer water, unsweetened tea, or a small amount of 100 percent fruit juice diluted with soda water. To further support her efforts, aiming for an overall healthy diet which includes limiting the amount of added sugar and opting for whole over refined grains should be considered.
A child 4 years of age has a mother who is employed and works from home. To accomplish her daily work, she allows the child to watch television for 6 to 8 hours a day. Based upon this information, what nursing diagnosis would be applicable to this?
Answer:
Impaired parent-child interaction
Explanation:
In this unfortunate situation which is a feature of the age of information. Parents often opt to work from home in order to save resources and provide an extra income. In doing so the stay at home parent is often tasked with child rearing. This means that there is not enough attention given to either work or child care. Here we see that the child is placed in front of a television and is left there for over 6 hours each day. This action does not provide any stimuli for the child or it does not encourage parent-child interaction. There is also the lack of sensory development since there are no other means of learning coming to the child.
Answer:
impaired parenting associated with failure to provide stimuli for growth
Explanation:
Holistic development of a child, depends on good parent-child interactions implemented by the parents,and the need to engage in mutual practises that stimulate and promote healthy developments of the child.These practices stimulate the behavioural, cognitive, and societal interactions in child.
Generally, based on nature and nurture debate, a child development depends on the interaction between biological(brain) and societal or environmental stimuli acquired. Thus external stimuli acquired from interaction with the parents and the society are important to provide sensory inputs to complement biological development and growth in a child.
Therefore a child who is deprived of these sensory input s from lack of good parent-child interactions, with no mutual practices with the parents or the society will be impaired with needed stimuli for normal childhood growth and healthy developments.
Television does not provide stimuli for brain's growth, because it is not interactive, rather, it stimulates the pleasure area of the brain, which is not important for cognitive and behavioural development for growing child
You are checking a person experiencing a breathing emergency and notice that the person is breathing quite rapidly. The person tells you that it feels like they cannot get enough air. You suspect which of the following?
A. Respiratory distress
B. Emphysema
C. Vomiting
D. Hyperventilation
Answer: D - Hyperventilation.
Explanation: Hyperventilation is breathing in excess or overbreathing more than what the body needs.
Fast and deep breathing occurs when one's rate of breathing removes more carbon dioxide than the body can produce. This can change what is in the blood due to the reduction in the concentration of carbon dioxide dissolved in the blood which can cause the blood pH to rise, leading to respiratory alkalosis.
Some conditions which can bring about hyperventilation include Anxiety disorder, Panicattack, Asthma,Stress, effect of drugs, head injury etc.
Since resource allocation is one of the most pressing issues in health care, what are some steps that providers can take to address this issue, increase efficiency, and make the most of what is available and effective while conserving resources
Answer: step 1: Allocating resources to healthcare versus other social needs.
Step 2: Allocating resources within the healthcare sector.
Step3: Allocating resources among individual patients.
Explanation:Step 1.Allocating resources to healthcare versus other social needs. At this level community member decides on how to share fund amongst one or more of the program. For example, should the fund be allocated to an under-funded program,or should the fund be shared between two or more program.
Step 2: Allocating resources within the healthcare. Here,community members is faced with the decision of how to direct the spending among competing healthcare interest. Should most or all of the money go to healthy lifestyle, such as,providing the pressing need of the community such as immunization or should most or all of the money go to the purchase of hospital equipment.
Step 3: Allocating resources among individual patients. In this level of decision making involves the distribution of finance among patients,such as,who sees Doctor first in an emergency room were others are waiting,or who gets the available heart transplant.
Select the correct answer.
Which type of leader focuses on people more than the goal?
Answer:
I would go with D because to coach is like to mentor or tutor which is helping a person.
Explanation:
Answer:
D
Explanation:
An individual with a health issue visits a traditional healer and reports an improved condition even though the visit did not include any explicit treatment. What term best applies to this scenario?
Answer:
The term which applies to this type of scenario is Placebo effect.
Explanation:
In Placebo effect an individual reports an improved health condition without undergoing an actual treatment. Mind plays a pivotal role in placebo effect and deeply influences our body too. Our mind has the ability to trick our body into believing that a fake treatment can heal our heal.
Placebos, which are pills having no therapeutic benefit, can powerfully influence our body to mimic the action of a real medical treatment.
The statement on a feed package indicating whether the feed meets nutritional requirements from a feed trial using AAFCO nutrient profiles for the life stage indicated is the nutritional _______ statement.
Answer: Nutritional adequacy or purpose.
Explanation: The "AAFCO statement of nutritional adequacy or purpose" also called a "nutrition claim" is a statement that indicates the food is complete and balanced for a particular life stage, such as growth, reproduction, adult maintenance or a combination of these, or if the food does not meet the complete and balanced requirements than it is intended for intermittent or supplemental feeding only. Under AAFCO regulations, this statement must be substantiated by the state and the pet food manufacturer.
The "complete and balanced" claim may be met in any of three ways:
Formulation: If a pet food has been formulated to contain every nutrient the pet needs as specified in the AAFCO Dog Food (or Cat Food) Nutrient Profiles, which are based on the nutritional recommendations of the National Research Council (NRC) for dogs and cats. While the AAFCO Nutrient Profiles list the "minimum" levels (and some maximum levels), pet food manufacturers can formulate and market their products for a specific life stage, provided the nutritional profile of the pet food still meets the levels specified in the appropriate AAFCO Nutrient Profile.
Feeding Trial: If a pet food undergoes an animal feeding trial using AAFCO Dog and Cat Food Feeding Protocols. The AAFCO Protocols mandate factors such as the length of the trial and the diagnostic tests which determine if the feeding trial was successful. This "protocol testing" also requires that the food be fed during the period — often gestation, lactation and growth — for which the claim is made.
Product Family Establishment: If the lead product member of a pet food passes a feeding trial using the AAFCO Protocols and is deemed nutritionally similar to the lead product by meeting specific nutrient and calorie criteria. In essence this method combines the formulation and feeding trial methods for determining nutritional adequacy.