endoplasmic reticulum
Which of the following describes pulmonary veins?
a, return blood to the right atrium of the heart
b, transport blood rich in carbon dioxide to the lungs
c, transport oxygenated blood to the left atrium of the heart
d, split off the pulmonary trunk
e, transport oxygenated blood to the lungs
Answer:
C. transport oxygenated blood to the left atrium of the heart
Explanation:
The pulmonary veins are the veins that transfer oxygenated blood from the lungs to the heart. The largest pulmonary veins are the four main pulmonary veins, two from each lung that drain into the left atrium of the heart. The pulmonary veins are part of the pulmonary circulation.
The pulmonary veins transport oxygenated blood to the left atrium of the heart, making them unique as they are the only veins that carry oxygen-rich blood. Hence, the correct answer is C.
After the process of gas exchange in the lungs, where blood gives off carbon dioxide and takes on oxygen, this newly oxygenated blood is returned to the heart via the pulmonary veins. Specifically, these veins carry the blood into the left atrium, marking the completion of the pulmonary circuit. This is a distinct characteristic of the pulmonary veins, as they are the only veins in the human body that carry oxygen-rich blood, in contrast to other veins that typically carry oxygen-poor blood.
Animals need certain compounds for their growth and development. Many of the compounds found in food are larger and more complex than the compounds required by an animal. How does the animal obtain the needed compounds? A. The animal's digestive system absorbs only the simple compounds present in food. B. The animal acquires the required compounds from other animals. C. The animal's digestive system breaks down the complex compounds into simpler compounds. D. The animal acquires the required compounds from air and water.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Animals cannot utilize the compounds in their large size. This because they cannot fit in the gap junction of the organs that absorb these molecules such as the ileum. Therefore, the digestive tract of the animals have enzymes that break down these large molecules into smaller molecules that are able to pass across the epithelium of ileum and become utilized by the body.
Which division of the nervous system has long preganglionic neurons?
Answer:
Parasympathetic nervous system
Explanation:
Parasympathetic nervous system together with sympathetic nervous system is part of the autonomic nervous system. The autonomic nervous system also called the vegetative nervous system is part of the peripheral nervous system which inervates smooth muscle and glands. Thus, it directly affects the function of internal organs and regulates functions such as the heart rate, digestion, respiratory rate, urination etc. This nervous system control is unconscious.
Parasympathetic nervous system works when organism is at rest so it is known as system responsible for "rest and digest functions". On the other hand, sympathetic nervous system works at active and stressful situations and it is known as "fight and flight" system.
The parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system has long preganglionic neurons that travel in cranial and spinal nerves to the target effectors.
Explanation:The division of the nervous system that has long preganglionic neurons is the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system. The preganglionic fibers in the parasympathetic system are long and the postganglionic fibers are short because the ganglia are close to the target effectors. These long preganglionic neurons travel in cranial nerves from the cranial region and in spinal nerves from the sacral region.
Learn more about Parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system here:https://brainly.com/question/33449948
#SPJ11
Will mark brainliest! It also tells me if you are wrong!
Jena is doing research on one of the planets of the solar system. She writes:
"This planet quickly revolves around the Sun and has no rings and no moons. It is also the planet that has virtually no atmosphere.”
Based on information provided in Jena’s research, answer the following questions.
1) Is this planet an inner planet or outer planet? Answer: ______
2) What is the composition of this planet?
Answer: ______
3) What is the identity of this planet?
Answer: ______
Answer: Is this planet an inner planet or outer planet? Answer: inner
What is the composition of this planet?
Answer: rock
What is the identity of this planet?
Answer: Mercury
Explanation:
Answer:
1) Inner planet
2) Metallic rocks
3) Mercury
Explanation:
Solar system has 4 inner planets and 4 outer planets. The inner planets of the system have rocky surface. The outer planets are composed of gases mainly hydrogen and helium. The outer planets have many moons and have ring system.
Given: The planet has no rings and no moons.
Inner planets do no have rings. Of those, two planets do not have moons-Mercury and Venus.
The planet has virtually no atmosphere.
Mercury does not have atmosphere. On the other hand Venus has a very thick atmosphere.
Thus, Mercury fits into the description.
It is an inner planet. It has rocky surface and has no moon and no atmosphere. It is composed of mainly iron.
Blood pressure decreases and a body system responds in a way that causes the blood pressure to decrease even more. Which of the following would fit this statement the BEST?
A) Homeostasis
B) Negative feedback
C) Positive feedback
D) Regulation
C. Positive Feedback
This is because a response to a stimulus( low blood pressure) acts in the same direction as the stimulus ( even lower blood pressure).
This is opposed to negative feedback where the response would go in the operate direction of the stimulus ( I.e. blood pressure increasing in response to low blood pressure)
Auxins _____.promote cell elongation and cell division in stemsstimulates seed growth and fruit developmentpromotes cell divisionregulates the opening and closing of stomata
Option A. Auxins promote cell elongation and cell division in stems.
Auxins are plant hormones that primarily promote cell elongation, particularly in stems. They play a crucial role in the growth and development of plants by stimulating cell division and elongation, especially in the stem regions.
Auxins also help in the formation of roots and influence the differentiation of vascular tissues. They regulate various processes such as phototropism (growth towards light) and gravitropism (growth in response to gravity).
By controlling these growth responses, auxins are vital in shaping the plant's structure.
Complete question
Auxins _____. A. promote cell elongation and cell division in stems B. stimulates seed growth and fruit development C. promotes cell division D. regulates the opening and closing of stomata
Which are supposed to be healthier for humans to consume, saturated fats or unsaturated fats? Hypothesize what the types of bonds in the fats might have to do with this.
Answer:
saturated fat
Explanation:
it is less vnlnerable to rancidity
Why do we need to use bacteria for gene cloning?
Answer:
It is used in the step of transformation, in order to make more plasmid DNA and consequently more gene product of interest
Explanation:
DNA cloning, as a method in molecular biology, is used for the multiplication of gene (or other piece of DNA). It usually includes steps of DNA insertion into plasmid (prokaryotic circular piece of DNA). That plasmid is than introduced into bacteria via process called transformation. Transformed bacteria can produce large amount of a product of a certain gene, because of their fast gene expression.
The first capillary bed associated with the nephron A. filters.B. reabsorbs nutrients.C. adjusts pH.D. forms urine.E. reverses the flow of blood
The first capillary bed will A. Filter out the blood
The first capillary bed associated with the nephron, the glomerulus, filters the blood. This filtrate then proceeds through the nephron where solutes are reabsorbed and wastes are secreted. Finally, urine is formed for disposal, completing the nephron's process of filtering the blood and maintaining homeostasis.
Explanation:The first capillary bed associated with the nephron, also known as the glomerulus, is primarily responsible for filtration of the blood. It forms a tuft of high-pressure capillaries where small solutes are filtered from the blood based on particle size. The filtrate, which consists of everything but the proteins, then continues to the rest of the nephron for further processing.
In the next steps, the filtrate proceeds to the renal tubules where most of the solutes are reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule through a process called tubular reabsorption. This effectively recovers most of the solutes and water, returning them to the circulation. Furthermore, additional solutes and wastes are secreted into the kidney tubules during tubular secretion, which is essentially the opposite process of tubular reabsorption.
Lastly, the nephrons form urine for disposal, effectively cleansing the blood and balancing the constituents of the circulation. They accomplish this through their three main functions: filtration, reabsorption, and secretion. Overall, their principal task is to balance the plasma to homeostatic set points and excrete potential toxins in the urine.
Learn more about Nephron here:https://brainly.com/question/38325224
#SPJ5
True or false? One possible way to alter chromatin structure such that genes could be transcribed would be to make histone proteins more positively charged.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The histones that are more positively charged, tight hardly to negatively charged DNA. So, enzymes, such as acetyltransferases, that reduce the positive charge of histones promote transcription.
Chromatin structure and its modifications can change the package of the DNA and consequently, alter the gene expression. The most common modifications of the chromatin are covalent modifications such as acetylation/deacetylation (by acetyltransferases and eacetylases), methylation (by methyltransferases), and phosphorylation (by kinases). This is the way of gene expression regulation.
The effects of modifications are different, for example methylation promotes condensation of the chromatin and as a consequence, prevents binding of transcription factors to the DNA (transcription is repressed).
Acetylation loosens the association between nucleosomes and DNA (because it neutralizes the positive charge of histones) and consequently promotes transcription. Deacetylation is a process opposite to acetylation.
False, increasing the positive charge of histone proteins would make the chromatin more condensed, preventing gene transcription. To facilitate transcription, histone proteins need to be less positively charged, allowing the chromatin to open and the DNA to be accessible for RNA polymerase and transcription factors.
Explanation:False, making histone proteins more positively charged would not result in genes being transcribed. The structure of chromatin is affected by the charge of histone proteins that the DNA is wound around. DNA is a negatively charged molecule, so changes in the charge of histone proteins influences how tightly it is wound. However, to facilitate gene transcription, histones need to have a neutral or less positive charge, as this allows the DNA to unwind and become accessible for the machinery of transcription, such as RNA polymerase and transcription factors. This is achieved through the addition of chemical modifications like acetyl groups to histones; these modifications decrease the positive charge, helping to open the chromatin structure. Therefore, making the histone proteins more positive would actually make the chromatin structure more closed, preventing gene transcription.
Learn more about Histone Proteins and Gene Transcription here:https://brainly.com/question/32577072
#SPJ12
When are feedback loops used in any system?
A. When the system needs more of something.
B. When the system needs an enhanced outcome.
C. When a stimulus causes the system to move out of balance.
D. Only in emergency situations.
Feedback loops are used in any system when a stimulus causes the system to move out of balance. Therefore, option (C) is correct.
In order to keep the system in a stable and balanced state, a feedback loop is used to monitor and modify the system's response to a changing environment.
Feedback loops are triggered to return a system to a balanced state when an external input disturbs it. For instance, in the case of a thermostat that regulates the temperature of a room, the thermostat will engage a feedback loop to turn on the heater and increase the temperature back to the correct level if it falls below the desired level. The thermostat will start another feedback loop when the target temperature has been attained in order to turn off the heater and keep the temperature constant.
Not only to improve or increase anything, but also for a number of other purposes, feedback loops can be used. The reaction of the system, for instance, in a negative feedback loop is intended to lessen or reverse the initial stimulus and maintain a stable state, as opposed to enhancing or amplifying it. As a result, choice C is the right response.
Learn more about feedback loop, here:
https://brainly.com/question/29189523
#SPJ3
Match the definitions to the terms:
Terms:
Hypotonic Solution
Isotonic Solution
Hypertonic Solution
Diffusion
Facilitative Diffusion
Active Transport
Passive Transport
Concentration Gradient
Equilibrium
Osmosis
Definitions:
1. Movement of material across the cell membrane with energy
2. The environment outside of the cell has a lower concentration of dissolved material than the inside of the cell. This causes the cell to swell, and it may even burst.
3. A difference in the concentration of a substance across a distance
4. Movement of material across the cell membrane without energy
5. The environment outside of the cell has more dissolved material than inside of the cell. If a cell is placed in a this type of solution, water will leave the cell. This can cause a cell to shrink and shrivel (crenation).
6. The movement of particles from regions of higher density to lower density regions
7. Diffusion of water across a selectively permeable membrane
8. Concentration of a substance is the same throughout a space
9. A solution in which the amount of dissolved material is equal both inside and outside of the cell. Water still flows in both directions, but an equal amount enters and leaves the cell.
10. The movement of large molecules through a membrane protein channel along the concentration gradient.
1.Active Transport
2. Hypotonic Solution
3.Concentration Gradient
4. Passive Transport
5. Hypertonic Solution
6. Diffusion
7.Osmosis
8. Equilibrium
9.Isotonic Solution
Enzymatic catalysis of the peptide bond between the growing polypeptide and the next incoming amino acid takes place in which binding site?
a. A siteb. P sitec. E sited. combined A and P sites
Answer:
a. A site
Explanation:
During the process of translation, ribosomes play a major role in connecting mRNA codons with tRNA anticodons. Ribosomes are composed of two subunits which consist ofproteins and rRNA. The tree sites of ribosomes are:
P site or peptidyl site-this site binds to the tRNA which holds the growing polypeptide chain.A site or acceptor site-this is a site of peptide bond formation between the growing polypeptide and the next incoming amino acid E site or exit site-the site for the final binding of t-RNA .The peptide bond formation between the growing polypeptide chain and the next incoming amino acid is facilitated by enzymatic catalysis at the P site of the ribosome.
Explanation:The peptide bond formation between the growing polypeptide chain and the next incoming amino acid occurs at the P site of the ribosome. The P, or peptidyl site, is where the hold tRNA molecule carrying the growing polypeptide chain is held. The process involving these peptide bonds is called enzymatic catalysis and is carried out by an enzymatic component of the ribosome called peptidyl transferase. So the right answer is choice b. P site.
Learn more about Enzymatic Catalysis here:https://brainly.com/question/30889279
#SPJ3
When energy changes from one form to another, some energy is always changed to A. Electricity. B. Heat. C. Sound. D. Light.
Some energy is always changed to heat (B)
Answer:
heat
Explanation:
Feather color in budgies is determined by two different genes Y and B, one for pigment on the outside and one for the inside of the feather. YYBB, YyBB, or YYBb is green; yyBB or yyBb is blue; YYbb or Yybb is yellow; and yybb is white.Two blue budgies were crossed. Over the years, they produced 22 offspring, 5 of which were white. What are the most likely genotypes for the two blue budgies?a. yyBB and yyBBb. yyBB and yybbc. yyBB and yyBbd. yyBb and yybbe. yyBb and yyBb
Answer:
e. yyBb and yyBb
Explanation:
The blue budgies have the genotype either yyBB or yyBb. After their cross they produced some of the white offspring. This means that in their genotypes must be recessive alleles (because white genotype is yybb). So the genotypes of the "parents" are: yyBb and yyBb.
Cells in your hair follicles produce the protein keratin, but cells in your liver do not produce keratin. Which statement explains these differences
A). Hair follicles contain recombined DNA, which create the protein keratin
B). Genes are expressed differently in liver cells and hair follicles
C). Hair follicle cells contain different genes from liver cells
D). Hair follicle cells do not produce DNA, but liver cells do
Answer:
B). Genes are expressed differently in liver cells and hair follicles
Explanation:
In given organisms all the cells of the body have the same number of genes, however, their activity varies due to differential expression of genes.
The differential expression of genes is regulated by several factors, such as histone modifications, DNA, etc. which may silence or activate the genes differentially in different cells.
Since the hair cells and liver cells of the organisms will have the same genes, they only vary due to the differential expression fo the genes.
Answer:
B) Genes are expressed differently in liver cells and hair follicles
Explanation:
Cell differentiation helps produce different cells with different functions that express different genes in the genome.
Liver cells and hair follicles are an example of cell differentiation creating different functions in multi-celled organisms.
The concept of natural selection is a mechanism of evolution where environmental pressures select for phenotypes that exist in populations based on genetic variation. Which process below would not contribute to the genetic variation in a population of mice?
A) mitotic growth
B) sexual reproduction
C) mutations resulting from errors in DNA synthesis
D) crossing over of homologous chromosomes during meiosis
Answer:
Mitotic growth
Explanation:
Mitosis produces two identical daughter cells, which should have no new diversity as a result. Meiosis (including crossing over), sexual reproduction (including fertilization), and mutations (from changes to the DNA) all contribute to genetic diversity and new phenotypes.
The concept of natural selection is based on genetic variation so mitotic growth would not contribute to the genetic variation in a population of mice. Hence option 4 is the correct option.
What is mitotic growth?At the time of mitosis, a cell duplicates all of its contents, including its chromosomes, and splits to form two identical daughter cells without variation.
The concept of natural selection is a mechanism of evolution where environmental pressures select for phenotypes that exist in populations based on genetic variation is a property of meiosis or physical reproduction.It allows genetic variation by a process of gene shuffling which happens when the cells are dividing. Where the sperm and egg cells unite, and contribute 23 chromosomes each to result an embryo.
Hence, as mitotic growth does not show genetic variation, option 4 is the correct option.
To know more about genetics refer to the following link:
brainly.com/question/12985618
#SPJ2
Much of what is known about the large-scale climatic fluctuations of the pleistocene ice age is based on analysis of __________.
a. tree growth-rings
b. documentary evidence such as journals
c. deep-sea sediment cores
d. thermometer-based records
e. none of the above is correct.
C- Deep-sea sediment cores
Hope this helps!
Each replication fork requires both leading and lagging strand synthesis. Why?
Answer:
Because each strand acts as a template for the synthesis of a new, complementary strand.
Explanation:
This is known as semiconservative DNA replication. Leading and lagging strands are complementary, antiparallel strands (one is 3'-5' while other is 5'-3- direction) which are replicated differently. The leading strand is replicated continuously while the lagging strand is replicated in fragments-Okazaki fragments. Replication of both strands is performed by DNA polymerase.
You are performing cpr on a victim and an assisting responder arrives. Which of the following is most appropriate for the assisting responder to do first?
Begin giving ventilations to the victim.
Call for a change in position to assist with CPR.
Check to see whether more advanced medical personnel have been called.
Have the first rescuer stop CPR to allow for victim reassessment.
Answer:
The most appropriate action for the assisting responder to take is to CHECK TO SEE WHETHER MORE ADVANCED MEDICAL PERSONNEL HAVE BEEN CALLED.
Explanation:
Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) is an emergency medical technique that is often used to assist those in cardiac arrest pending the time that qualified medical personnel can attend to them. The CPR procedure is a life saving procedure that is made up of series of chest compression and ventilation, which are targeted at keeping the brain functioning pending the time that blood circulation and breathing will be restored.
if two responders are present at the emergency scene, one should perform the CPR while the other call appropriate lines to get the needed emergency medical attention. In the scenario presented in this question, the second responder has to ensure that the necessary needed medical help have been called for.
The assisting responder should first check if more advanced medical personnel have been called. After confirming, they can assist with chest compressions or ventilations. Thus 3rd option is correct.
When performing CPR and an assisting responder arrives, the most appropriate first action for the assisting responder is to check to see whether more advanced medical personnel have been called. Ensuring that professional help is on the way is crucial for the victim's survival. Once that is confirmed, the assisting responder can help by taking over chest compressions or giving ventilations as needed.
Steps to Follow During CPR
Confirm advanced medical personnel have been called.Coordinate with the first responder for a change in position or duties.Continue providing high-quality chest compressions and ventilations if needed.It is essential to maintain uninterrupted chest compressions until the arrival of advanced medical support.
When viral DNA combines with the host cell's DNA, the viral DNA becomes a
Answer:
Prophage
Explanation:
Prophage is a viral genome (e.g. bacterihage genome) which is inserted into host genome (e.g. bacterial genome). Such integrated genome-prophage is in its latent phase, because there is no lysis or disruption of host cell. After the latent period, prophage induction occurs in which viral replication begins.
When a client demonstrates the technique for self-administering nph insulin, which action indicates that the client needs additional teaching?
Answer:
Pulling the syringe plunger out immediately the needle reaches the subcutaneous tissue shall indicate that the client needs additional teaching.
Explanation:
The syringe should not be pulled out immediately, the patient should wait for about five seconds after injection then pull out.
This is to allow the syringe contents to fully drain into the patients system.
Buy pulling it out immediately, the patient shall have shown that he or she has not fully mastered the nph insulin administration process.
Rita has finished her art project. What is a scientific question that she could ask about her art supplies?
A.
Where are the scissors put away?
B.
Why does Katie like art class?
C.
Is blue crayon prettier than red crayon?
D.
What if glue dries by itself on a piece of paper?
Answer:
Explanation:i say B hope this helps
A new process for removing heavy metals and acid sulfate pollution from mine leachate water is ________. treatment with chlorine or ozone deep-well injection surface impoundments sulfate-reducing bacteria filtration and sedimentation
Answer:
Sulfate reducing bacteria
Explanation:
The contemporary method for purifying mine leachate water from heavy metals and acid sulfates involves the use of sulfate-reducing bacteria, offering a bioremediation alternative to traditional physical and chemical treatments.
The new process for removing heavy metals and acid sulfate pollution from mine leachate water is treatment using sulfate-reducing bacteria. These bacteria can remove contaminants such as arsenic from acidic mine waters through bioremediation methods, transforming heavy metals and sulfate into less harmful substances. Unlike other methods such as disinfection with chlorine or ozone, which aim to kill microbes, or filtration and sedimentation, which physically remove particulates, sulfate-reducing bacteria can change the chemical composition of contaminants to reduce pollution in an environmentally friendly way. This environmentally benign bioremediation strategy underscores a paradigm shift towards sustainable pollution mitigation, leveraging natural microbial processes to ameliorate environmental degradation in mining operations.
Why should a female butterfly choose a vibrantly colored male for mating?
Answer:
It attracts the male butterfly
Explanation:
A fish is in an environment where sexual reproduction would be stressful. What type of asexual reproduction could fish use to reproduce?
A. Parthenogenesis
B. Meiosis
C. Budding
D. Binary fission
Answer:
A. Parthenogeneise
Explanation:
In this zygote is formed without fertilisation.
Answer:
Option A, Parthenogenesis
Explanation:
Parthenogenesis is an asexual mode of reproduction in which an organism develop embryo without fertilization. The embryo starts developing from an unfertilized egg.
This reproduction strategy is adopted when the surrounding environmental conditions are not suitable for carrying out sexual reproduction.
Animals such as wasps, bees, ants , reptiles , fishes and plants are capable of reproducing in this manner.
hence, option A is correct
Which of the following statements are true regarding olfaction? Check all that apply. a)Smell is a chemical sense. b)Odorant molecules dissolve in mucus before stimulating a receptor. c)Humans can only distinguish up to 200 odors. d)Olfactory receptors have hairs on the apical surface that respond to stimuli. e)When olfactory receptors are stimulated a receptor potential is created.
Answer:
A.) Smell is a chemical sense.
B.) Odorant molecules dissolve in mucus before stimulating a receptor
C.) Olfactory receptors have hairs on the apical surface that respond to stimuli
The statements that are true regarding olfaction are: smell is a chemical sense, odorant molecules dissolve in mucus before stimulating a receptor, and olfactory receptors have hairs on the apical surface that respond to stimuli.
Three statements are true regarding olfaction:
Smell is a chemical sense. Like taste, olfaction responds to chemical stimuli.Odorant molecules dissolve in mucus before stimulating a receptor. As airborne molecules are inhaled through the nose, they pass over the olfactory epithelial region and dissolve into the mucus before binding to a receptor protein.Olfactory receptors have hairs on the apical surface that respond to stimuli. Olfactory sensory neurons have dendrites with hair-like extensions that trap odor molecules.Therefore, statements a), b), and d) are true regarding olfaction.
Learn more about olfaction here:https://brainly.com/question/36774168
#SPJ3
Feeling tired after a long day of work, you walk across a parking lot at night to get to your car. As you approach the car you see a shadow extending behind the back of the car. You immediately feel a rush of energy, your heart starts pounding, and you feel wide awake and alert. You slowly circle around to the back of the car and see that the shadow is coming from a parking lot sign above your car. You breathe a sigh of relief and start to calm down. You think about how you just felt in that scary situation and realize that you had the same reaction when you were called on in class to answer a question in front of everyone. Your teacher used that exercise to describe that the hormone ________ can be produced in fearful situations by ________.
Answer:
Epinephrine and adrenal gland.
Explanation:
A person with Down Syndrome has an additional #21 chromosome in every somatic cell. This condition is also called trisomy 21. The cause of this syndrome A) is not known B) is due to crossing over of genes during Prophase 1 of meiosis C) is through the union of a normal gamete with the haploid amount of chromosomes (n) and another gamete with an extra #21 (n + 1) D) is through a mutation during DNA replication of mitosis in a somatic cell, and this mutation spreads to all other somatic cells in the body
Down Syndrome is caused by the union of a normal gamete with a gamete that has an extra chromosome 21, a condition resulting from chromosomal nondisjunction during meiosis.
Explanation:The cause of Down Syndrome, which is characterized by the presence of an additional chromosome 21 in every somatic cell (also known as trisomy 21), is through the union of a normal gamete with the haploid amount of chromosomes (n) and another gamete with an extra #21 (n + 1). This occurs due to a process called chromosomal nondisjunction during meiosis, which is the most common cause of this syndrome. Trisomy 21 leads to a variety of physical and developmental features, and the risk increases with maternal age, particularly in women over 36 years old.
Meiosis starts with a single diploid cell and produces
Answer:
false
Explanation:
Meiosis begins with a single diploid cell and results in four haploid daughter cells. The process involves two rounds of division, Meiosis I and Meiosis II, reducing the number of chromosomes to half of that of the parent cell. This contributes to genetic diversity in sexual reproduction.
Explanation:Meiosis commences with a solitary diploid cell and produces four haploid daughter cells.
The first round of division in meiosis, known as Meiosis I, begins with the duplicated chromosomes from the parent cell being rearranged and separated into separate daughter cells. This first division process results in a nucleus with only half the original number of chromosomes – a transition from diploid to haploid cells.
Following Meiosis I, there is a second round of nuclear division, Meiosis II, which results in four haploid daughter cells. Each of these resultant cells contains half the number of chromosomes as the original parent cell. This process ensures the production of genetically unique cells which play a crucial role in sexual reproduction.
Learn more about Meiosis here:https://brainly.com/question/30614059
#SPJ3