Answer:
Baby boom or baby boomers.
Explanation:
After the World war II in the year 1945, there was this period of high birth rate between the years of 1946 and 1964 and this period or should I say the generation of people that were giving birth to during this period is called baby boom generation or baby boomers generation. The baby boom generation did have a powerful impact on American society, since more babies were been giving birth to, more schools and social infrastructures are needed to be built. The baby boom generation also partook in the civil Rights movement. Also, during the period many cultures such as the dressing, hairstyle and so on also changes.
The baby boom generation adolescents were also part of the people that experienced the Vietnam war.
after teaching a group of students about irritable bowel syndrome and antidiarrheal agents, the instructor determines that the teaching was effective when the students identify which of the following as an example of an opiate-related antidiarrheal agent?A)Loperamide (Imodium)B)Bismuth subsalicylate (Pepto-Bismol)C)Kaolin and pectin (Kaopectate)D)Bisacodyl (Dulcolax)Ans:a
Answer:
The answer is A. Loperamide
Explanation:
Antidiarrheals are drugs which are given to treat acute diarrhea by providing symptomatic relief for diarrhea but do not eliminate the cause of the diarrhea.The most common drug used is Loperamide (Imodium) which is an opioid receptor agonist. Loperamide decreases the flow of fluids and electrolytes in the bowel and reduces bowel movement by acting on the mu opioid receptors in the myenteric plexus of the large intestine. However, when taken in large quantities it gives high euphoria similar to opioids.
Summarize the information included on food labels. Then, name and briefly describe at least three (3) types of claims that may appear on food labels. How reliable is each of these types of claims?
Answer:
The information on food label include;
ingredients, manufacturers of the food and Nutrition information panel.
types of claims include:
1. Health claims: this is a statement about a food and what it could do to your health.
2.Nutrient Claim: these are the claims about certain substance in a food.
3. function Claim: this is a claim on the effect that a food has on a normal body.
Most of the claims stated above are reliable because a company could be sued for wrong claims on a food label which could cost it a fortune.
Explanation:
food label: this is a panel found on a package of food which contains different information about the nutritional value of the food item. There are many pieces of information which are standard on most food labels, including serving size, number of calories, grams of fat, included nutrients, and a list of ingredients
Food labels provide information about nutrition and ingredients. Types of claims on food labels include nutrient content claims, health claims, and structure/function claims, with health claims being the most reliable.
Explanation:Food labels provide important information about the nutrition and ingredients of packaged foods. They help consumers make informed choices about what they eat. Some types of claims that may appear on food labels include nutrient content claims, health claims, and structure/function claims. The reliability of each of these types of claims varies, with health claims being the most regulated and reliable.
Nutrient Content Claims: These highlight the amount of a nutrient in a food product (e.g., "low fat," "high in vitamin C"). These claims are regulated and have specific definitions.
Health Claims: These link a food or one of its components to a reduced risk of a particular disease or health-related condition (e.g., "may reduce the risk of heart disease"). Health claims are subject to strict scientific evidence and are considered reliable, as they undergo thorough evaluation by regulatory authorities.
Structure/Function Claims: These describe how a nutrient or dietary ingredient affects the normal structure or function of the body (e.g., "supports healthy digestion"). Unlike health claims, structure/function claims do not require pre-approval by regulatory authorities, and their reliability may vary.
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Prior to an eye exam for possible macular degeneration, the nurse completes a history of symptoms. The nurse is aware that a diagnostic sign of age-related dry macular degeneration is:_______.
Answer:
The appearance of tiny, yellow spots in the field of vision.
Explanation:
The macula is the functional area of the retina, which lines the eye and allows us to see the color of the eye.
A disease which affects the macula of the retina during the old age is known as the age-related macular degeneration.
The person affected with the macular degeneration lose their ability of vision with time and the early symptoms include the blurriness in vision, the white or yellow spots in the vision.
Thus, the appearance of tiny, yellow or white spots in the field of vision and blurred images is the correct answer.
A diagnostic sign of age-related dry macular degeneration is the thinning of the retina, which makes vision more difficult.
Explanation:A diagnostic sign of age-related dry macular degeneration is the retina has thinned with age, making vision more difficult. This condition occurs due to the degeneration and thinning of the macula, which is responsible for central vision. As the macula becomes thinner, it can affect vision clarity and sharpness.
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After analyzing her data, Professor Nelson discovers that a correlation coefficient of +.75 exists between the amount of coffee a person drinks and the degree of stress the person experienced. Professor Nelson can safely conclude that:a. drinking coffee produces stress.
b. as coffee consumption increases, stress also increases.
c. stress causes people to drink coffee.
d. there is no relationship between stress and coffee consumption.
Answer:
B.
Explanation:
While a correlation can not prove that one incident is caused by another, the coefficient of .75 shows that the two variables have a pretty good correlation and that one changes somewhat proportionally to the other.
Answer:
b. as coffee consumption increases, stress also increases.
Explanation:
Pavlov's concept of ______________ explained behavior as a result of observable stimuli and observable responses.
Answer:
Classical conditioning.
Explanation:
Pavlov described his classical conditioning theory in which he explains how an observable stimuli produces an observable response. This theory is famous because his experiments with dogs. In those situations he stimulated dogs to produce a reaction. Then he expected the same answer to the same stimuli every time this happened. In conclusion, there is a learned response.
Answer:
Classical conditioning.
Explanation:
You are trying to better understand the relationship between leptin and weight. One thing you do know is that most obese people have high blood levels of leptin, and you learn that the issue is that, as a result of leptin _____, the normal mechanisms by which leptin regulates body weight and energy balance are disrupted.
Answer:
Leptin resistance
Explanation:
Leptin is produced by fat cells and it is called the starvation hormone. Low leptin level, sends a starvation signal to the brain and optimal leptin level, indicates the body has enough energy.
Leptin resistance is a condition characterized by high leptin level, indicating that there is a lot of fat present in the body but the brain can't sense it. The mechanism put in place for the brain to realize that there is enough energy available in the body is disrupted and the brain is starved.
In people with leptin resistance, the urge to eat doesn't go away no matter how much or how rewarding the food previously eaten might be.
Consumption of large amounts of food, very frequently is what leads to the accumulation of more and more fat, leading to obesity.
Decision making in the international environment is __________ it is in a purely domestic environment.
Anthony is sick of writing papers and studying for tests, but he knows he needs a college degree if he wants to be successful in his chosen career. So every morning Anthony gives himself a dressing down-in essence, yelling at himself-to make himself get out of bed and go to classes, and every evening he does the same thing to get himself to do his work. According to Freud, which personality structure is in control here?a) id
b) ego
c) unconscious
d) superego
The correct answer is option (B) because ego represents the conscious mind and is responsible for mediating between the demands of the id and superego.
In Freud's psychoanalytic theory, the ego represents the conscious mind and is responsible for mediating between the demands of the id (instinctual drives) and the superego (internalized moral standards). Anthony's behavior of self-criticism and self-motivation to fulfill his academic responsibilities reflects the functioning of the ego.
The ego strives to balance the id's desires for immediate gratification with the superego's moral and societal standards, hence enabling Anthony to navigate his academic duties while recognizing the importance of his long-term goals."
Hence, B. is the correct option.
After the release of the mature egg, it is guided by the fimbria into the ___________________. uterus. vagina. fallopian tubes. endometrium
Answer:
The correct answer is- fallopian tube
Explanation:
Fimbria is a finger-like projection which is present at the end of the oviduct or fallopian tube and is located near the ovary. When the ovum is released by the ovary fimbria catches that egg and guide it into the fallopian tube.
The fertilization of the unfertilized egg takes place in the fallopian tube and then the fertilized egg is guided towards the uterus. In the uterus, the egg gets attaches to the uterine lining and develop into the uterus. Therefore mature is guided by fimbria into fallopian tube after its release.
Your little sister picks up objects, feels every part of them, and then puts them in her mouth. What stage of Jean Piaget's model of cognitive development does this behavior suggest she is in?
Your little sister is in the sensorimotor stage of Jean Piaget's cognitive development model. This stage, from birth to 2 years, involves learning through senses and motor behavior. An important milestone in this stage is the understanding of object permanence.
Explanation:The behavior your little sister is displaying aligns with the sensorimotor stage in Jean Piaget's model of cognitive development. This stage lasts from birth to about 2 years old, and it is during this time that children learn about the world through their senses and motor behavior. For instance, a baby might put objects in their mouth to determine if they're edible, or shake them to see if they make noise. This exploration helps them form an understanding of their environment.
Between 5 and 8 months, they develop object permanence, the understanding that things continue to exist even when they are out of sight. Piaget's stages of cognitive development are fundamental in understanding how children grow and learn.
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Final answer:
The little sister's actions suggest she is in the sensorimotor stage of Piaget's cognitive development, where children learn from sensory inputs and motor interactions, including developing an understanding of object permanence.
Explanation:
The behavior described by the student suggests that the little sister is in the sensorimotor stage of Jean Piaget's model of cognitive development. This is the first developmental stage, lasting from birth to about 2 years old. During this period, children explore and learn about the world through their senses and motor behavior, such as staring, grasping, sucking, and manipulating objects. They develop their first schemas, which are cognitive frameworks for understanding the world around them.
One of the key developments during the sensorimotor stage is the concept of object permanence, which typically develops between 5 and 8 months old. Object permanence is the understanding that objects continue to exist even when they cannot be seen, heard, or touched. Piaget argued that young infants do not remember objects once they have been hidden from their sight, but as they grow, they start to show understanding that the hidden object still exists.
Drag the tiles to the correct boxes to complete the pairs. Match the term with the correct equation.
Stroke volume is regulated by:
a. Preload Contractility of the individual ventricular muscle fibers
b. Afterload or the pressure that must be exceeded before ejection of blood from the ventricles can occur
All of these regulate stroke volume
Answer:
Stroke volume is regulated by:
All of these regulate stroke volume
Explanation:
Both pre-load contractility of the individual ventricular muscle fibers
and after-load or the pressure that must be exceeded before ejection of blood from the ventricles can occur contributes to how stroke volume is regulated.
According to psychologist Martin Seligman, the combined effect of positive emotions, engagement, relationships, meaning, and achievement constitutes ______.
Answer:
Overall well being.
Explanation:
Psychology is the field of science that mainly deals with the study of the human mind and behavior. The different fields of psychology are cultural psychology, social psychology and development psychology.
Martin Seligman is the famous psychologist that explain the important factors for the positive psychology and the overall well being of the individual. The individual can be fit if individual has positive thoughts, emotions and achievements in his life. The wellness of an individual focuses both on the positive factors of the society as well as of the individual.
Thus, the answer is overall well being.
A nursing student is learning how to adequately use an otoscope to examine the ear. What method should the instructor educate the student to use when examining with an otoscope?
The provided question lacks the appropriate options, however the correct options are as follows:
A)Otoscope should be held in the examiner's right hand, in a pencil-hold position, with the examiner's hand braced against the patient's face.
B) Otoscope should be held in the examiner's left hand, with a full hand grasp to be able to guide the scope into the internal ear.
C) Otoscope should be held in the examiner's dominant hand, with a full hand grasp to be able to guide the scope into the internal ear.
D) Otoscope should be held in the examiner's left hand, in a pencil-hold position, with the examiner's hand braced against the patient's face.
Answer:
The correct answer is - option A.
Explanation:
Otoscope is an instrument that is used as medical device to look into the ears. ENT specialist or healthcare providers use otoscope to check for disease or ear related problems.
The risght way to use it as it should be held in the examiners right hand like a pencil while hand braced against the patient's face. This position is best for examining tympanic membrane and auditory canal.
Thus, the correct answer is - option A.
Which axis of the DSM-IV-TR contains an overall judgment made by the psychological professional of the person’s mental health and adjustment based on a scale from 0 to 100?
Answer: Axis V (Global Assessment of Functioning )
Explanation:
Diagnostic and statistic manual of mental disorder is a publication for the classification of mental disorder using common language and standard criteria. It is used by clinician, researchers, psychiatric drug regulation agencies, health insurance companies, legal system and policy makers. Axis V (Global Assessment of Functioning) is a numeric scale used by mental health clinicians and physicians to rate subjectively the social, occupational, and psychological functioning of an individual, e.g., how well one is meeting various problems-in-living. Scores range from 100 (extremely high functioning) to 1 (severely impaired).
Paris has just found out that her company is downsizing their staff and that she is highly likely to lose her job at any moment. Her heartbeat is increasing, she feels warm, and she has to take several deep breaths to try to calm down. The part of her body that is currently 'speeding her up' is called the ________ nervous system.
Answer:
sympathetic
Explanation:
The sympathetic nervous system is one of the main components of the autonomic nervous system that controls involuntary movement functions such as heart rate, dilation of pupils etc. The sympathetic nervous system specifically controls such involuntary functions unconsciously when the body senses a threat or stressor. It is responsible for initiating the body’s “flight or fight response.
The threat of Paris losing her job is what her body senses as distress signal, which leads to the activation of the sympathetic nervous system by the hypothalamus. Hormones such as adrenaline is pumped into the bloodstream to elevate the body’s alertness and heart rate as a response to the distress signal.
Answer:
Sympathetic
Explanation:
The sympathetic nervous system is also referred to as the fight, flight response. The sympathetic nervous system is a division of the autonomic nervous system and the other being the parasympathetic system. The autonomic nervous system regulates involuntary physiological processes.
The sympathetic nervous system is activated when there is intense physical activity, the sympathetic nervous system stimulate the body to respond in such a way that there is increased heartbeat, increased respiratory.
Why prevalence and risk factors associated with club drugs?
Answers:
They are consumed with alcohol which only adds to the risk of dehydration and overdose. Also, the dangers of taking drugs in clubs is increased due to the fact that many club drugs are laced with other substances.
Answer:
Sex Factors; Substance-Related Disorders/epidemiology
Explanation:
Nancy has just been diagnosed with multiple sclerosis. As the disease progresses, neural communication from the brain to some of her muscles may slow down and she could lose some muscle control as a result of the degeneration of the:
Answer:
Nerves.
Explanation:
The brain is becoming slower and so the nerves are affected causing some degeneration of the nerves.
In multiple sclerosis, the immune system attacks and damages the myelin sheath, which disrupts the efficient transmission of nerve impulses, leading to a range of neurological symptoms and impairments.
The myelin sheath is a protective covering made up of fatty substances that surrounds and insulates nerve fibers, or axons, in the nervous system. Its primary function is to enhance the efficiency of nerve impulse transmission. Nerve impulses, which carry signals from the brain to various parts of the body, are transmitted along the length of axons. The myelin sheath acts like an insulating layer, allowing the impulses to travel faster and more efficiently by preventing electrical signals from leaking out or being disrupted by neighboring nerve fibers.
In multiple sclerosis, the immune system mistakenly targets and attacks the myelin sheath in the central nervous system (the brain and spinal cord). This autoimmune response results in inflammation, demyelination (loss of myelin), and subsequent scar tissue formation, known as sclerosis. As the myelin sheath is damaged, the nerve impulses that travel along the affected axons become slower and less efficient. This leads to disruptions in neural communication, causing a wide range of neurological symptoms depending on the location of the damage.
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A client is admitted for a coronary artery bypass graft. The client states that the preoperative teaching materials contain information about pacemaker wires being inserted during surgery as a precautionary measure. The client asks, "What is the purpose of the pacemaker?
Answer:
Coronary artery disease may be defined as the blockage of the coronary artery due to the deposition of the hard material or deposits of the cholesterol in the artery.
The bypass graft is used for the treatment of the coronary artery disease. The pacemaker is used during the surgery to manage the heart rate that are abnormally slow. The pacemaker is inserted into the chest for the proper regulation of the heart beat. The electrical pulse is used by the pacemaker for the regular heart beat.
________ sustainability practices include performance excellence, financial management, resource management, and emergency preparedness.1, Social 2, Technological 3, Economic 4, Environmental
Answer:
3. Economic
Explanation:
Just to mention financial management suggests we are talking about Economic Sustainability. Resource management, for example, is considering an efficient use of resources so we don’t waste money and time. Emergency preparedness refers to the fact that we have to be prepare to many issues and problems so we reduce the risk and performance excellence is a little bit similar to resource management.
A client has presented to an ambulatory clinic complaining of a persistent headache. What assessments should the clinician conduct to differentiate between rhinosinusitis and alternative health problems? a. Take a sputum sample for culture and sensitivity. b. Compare the oral, tympanic, and axillary temperatures and order a white blood cell count. c.Palpate the lymph nodes and inspect the ears with an otoscope. d. Perform transillumination and ask the client if bending forward exacerbates the headache.
Answer:
The answer is: letter d, Perform transillumination and ask the client if bending forward exacerbates the headache.
Explanation:
"Rhinosinusitis" is an inflammation of the nasal cavity of the sinuses. Persons having this condition experiences the following symptoms: nasal congestion, facial pain or dental pain, headache, postnasal discharge, cough, etc.
In order to know whether the patient is truly experiencing such condition, it is best to perform transillumination. This will allow the physician to check whether the sinuses are intact and not inflamed.
Asking the client to bend forward will also allow to rule out other conditions. Pain from the sinuses is exacerbated when bending forward. This is because the "sinus passages" are inflamed.
Thus, this explains the answer.
Which country fears it might now have too many doctors and nurses?
Answer:
D. England
Explanation:
Answer:
c. China
Explanation:
The _____ is the specific region of the brain responsible for higher-order cognitive functions such as planning and reasoning.
Answer:
frontal lobe
Explanation:
The frontal lobe is involved in reasoning, motor control, emotion, and language. It contains the motor cortex, which is involved in planning and coordinating movement; the prefrontal cortex, which is responsible for higher-level cognitive functioning; and Broca's area, which is essential for language production.
The prefrontal cortex is responsible for higher-order cognitive functions such as planning and reasoning.
The prefrontal cortex is the specific region of the brain responsible for higher-order cognitive functions like planning and reasoning. It is located in the front of the brain in the frontal lobe and is associated with decision-making and cognitive control.
After David sustained a traumatic brain injury, he has discovered that he can't remember anything that happened in the last four years, but he can learn new information just as well as he did before the injury. David is likely experiencing ___________ amnesia.
Answer:
regional
Explanation:
_____ emphasized the interaction among behavior, conscious cognitive processes, and social experiences in his personality theory called _____.
The interaction among behavior, conscious cognitive processes, and social experiences is described in his personality theory, called the socio-cognitive theory, and is given by Albert Bandura.
What is the significance of the socio-cognitive theory?Socio-cognitive theory is a theory that explains how people's thoughts, feelings, and behaviors are influenced by their social interactions and the environment in which they live, it suggests that people's thoughts and behaviors are shaped by the interaction between their individual cognition and their social context, and this theory has been used to explain a wide range of phenomena, including how people learn, form and maintain relationships, make decisions, etc.
Hence, the interaction among behavior, conscious cognitive processes, and social experiences is described in his personality theory, called the socio-cognitive theory, and is given by Albert Bandura.
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The ability to see the similarities and the connections among various data and events is called ________. a. convergent thinkingb. divergent thinking c. transformational thinking d. illumination
Answer:
The answer is Convergent
The ability to see the similarities and the connections among various data and events is called convergent thinking. Thus, the correct option for this question is A.
What are the characteristics of convergent thinking?The characteristics of convergent thinking are as follows:
It significantly highlights speed, logic, accuracy, and focus.It is a type of reapplying technique that accumulates stored information. This type of thinking involves searching for concrete and familiar solutions to problems.Convergent thinking just illustrates the process of finding a unique and best solution to a particular problem that an individual is trying to solve. For this process, several tests are utilized such as multiple-choice tests, math quizzes, spelling tests, standardized tests, etc.
Therefore, convergent thinking is the ability to see the similarities and connections among various data and events. Thus, the correct option for this question is A.
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The Edict of Worms:_____.
a. contained Luther's refutation of Johann Eck's accusations.
b. expressed Luther's rejection of Pope Innocent I's spiritual authority.
c. called Luther to appear before Emperor Charles V to recant his "heresies."
d. made Luther an outlaw within the Holy Roman Empire.
e. led to Luther's forcible removal to Rome.
Answer:
Option D, made Luther an outlaw within the Holy Roman Empire.Explanation:
As the influence of Martin Luther started to threaten the Holy Roman Empire, Emperor Charles V issued the Edict of Worms decree against Martin Luther on 25 May 1521.
Martin Luther was a German religious reformer who started the Protestant Reformation in the 16th century. He criticized the arbitrary power of the Empire and the church and demanded reform of the church. He was one of the most influential and controversial figures in the history of Christianity.
The Diet of Worms of 1521 was an imperial order which forbade anyone from supporting, either by words or by deeds, or defending and favoring Martin Luther and his reforms. This decree directly upheld Martin Luther as an outlaw who threatened the Holy Roman Empire.
The Edict of Worms was an imperial decree that declared Martin Luther an outlaw within the Holy Roman Empire, thereby making option (d) correct.
Explanation:The Edict of Worms is a key event in the period of Reformation history. From the options provided, the correct answer is that it made Martin Luther an outlaw within the Holy Roman Empire. This means option (d) is correct. It was an imperial decree issued on 25th May 1521 by Emperor Charles V after the Diet of Worms, where Martin Luther was asked to recant his 'heresies'. Instead of recanting, Martin Luther stood by his beliefs which led to this edict. This edict not only declared Luther an outlaw but it also banned the reading or possession of his writings.
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Which of these people is more likely to experience stress?
A.
Mr. Green is loved by all his friends. They can always count on him as he never says no to anything.
B.
Mr. Wong is considered rude by some because he doesn't go out of his way to help anyone. However, he does help his friends when possible.
C.
Mrs. Parker bakes cakes for a living. If she cut back on her piano practice and accepted more cake orders, she could earn
Answer:
Mr. Green.
-----------------------------------------
Answer:
C
Explanation:
She has a lot going on she wants to have more piano practice but she would have to cut back on making cakes a little bit. But thats her job so shes not able too so easily.
A person being treated for agoraphobia is gradually learning to leave home and to enter crowded public places. Additionally, the therapist hopes that "outside world" experiences will become more rewarding for the person. The treatment described BEST reflects what theoretical orientation?
Answer:
Behavioral.
Explanation:
Theoretical orientation may be defined as the important factor for both the counselor as well as for the client. Different individuals require different therapy depending on the individual situation.
The theoretical orientation includes the behavioral orientation as well. The behavioral orientation is one of the approach used in the sport psychology that believes that environment and outside world acts as the determinant of the behavior and especially comes from the outside world experience. The outside world experience can be beneficial in the treatment of agoraphobia ( fear from a situation).
Thus, the answer is behavioral.
A 58-year-old client with osteoarthritis is admitted to the hospital with peptic ulcer disease. Which findings are commonly associated with peptic ulcer disease?
a) Tachycardia
b) History of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) use
c) Epigastric pain that is relieved by antacids
d) Nausea and weight loss
e) Low-grade fever
f) Localized, colicky periumbilical pain
Answer: b) History of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) use
c) Epigastric pain that is relieved by antacids
d) Nausea and weight loss
Explanation:
Peptic ulcer disease can be defined as the disease which results in painful sores or ulcers in the stomach lining or in the small intestine. It is characterized by the symptoms of melena, hematemesis, nausea, weight kiss and epigastric pain on the left side of the abdomen develop after 1 to 2 hours of eating and this can be relieved through antacids.
The use of NSAID is associated with the peptic ulcer disease. The NSAID is responsible for inhibition of the COX-1 gene in the gastrointestinal tract that leads to the reduction in the secretion of prostagladin as a result of this gastric mucosa becomes susceptible to injury.
Answer:
Option (b), (c) and (d).
Explanation:
Osteoarthritis may be defined as the medical condition in which the cartilage of the body that covers the end of the bones wear down. Millions of people are affected by this disease.
The common symptoms of the peptic ulcer are melena, nausea, weight loss and gastric pain. The use of NSAID increases the chances of the peptic ulcer. The epigastric pain might occur after eating and can only be released by eating antacids.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b), (c) and (d).