Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The first -pass effect occurs with the orally passed drugs. The drugs that are taken orally moves to different parts of the body.
The drug administered inside the body is reduced in concentration before it reaches the systematic circulation of the body.
It can be defined as the loss of fraction of drug during the process of absorption which is related to liver and gut wall.
Hence, the correct answer is option B
Skeletal muscle is _____.
a. "voluntary" because its contraction is deliberate
b. classified as a subtype of cardiac muscle
c. also known as smooth muscle
d. "involuntary" muscle and its movement is not deliberate
e. made up of cells with a single nucleus
Answer:
it should be A
Explanation:
Answer: Option A
Voluntary because its contraction is delibrate
Explanation:
Skeletal muscles are voluntary muscles that are controlled by the somatic nervous system (SNS). They are mostly found in the muscles and are muscles that are attached to bones. Attachment to bones is done by tendons which is made up of many bundles of collagen fibers. Contraction of skeletal muscles are deliberate i.e. voluntary and they are also involved in movement.
What is the diploid chromosome number for your karyotype
Answer:
For example, a haploid human nucleus (i.e. sperm or egg) normally has 23 chromosomes (n=23), and a diploid human nucleus has 23 pairs of chromosomes (2n=46). A karyotype is the complete set of chromosomes of an individual.
Explanation:
In humans, the diploid chromosome number for a karyotype is 46, consisting of 23 pairs of chromosomes, including 22 pairs of autosomes and 1 pair of sex chromosomes.
Explanation:In humans, the diploid chromosome number for a karyotype is 46. This means that each somatic cell in the human body has 46 chromosomes, arranged in 23 pairs. These pairs include 22 pairs of autosomes (non-sex chromosomes) and 1 pair of sex chromosomes.
In females, both sex chromosomes are X chromosomes, so their karyotype is written as 46,XX. In males, the sex chromosomes are one X chromosome and one Y chromosome, so their karyotype is written as 46,XY.
A karyotype is a picture of an individual's chromosomes, organized in homologous pairs. It can be used to study chromosomal aberrations, cellular function, taxonomic relationships, and medicine.
Who was the first african american to be on a u.S. Postage stamp
Answer:
Booker T. Washington
Explanation:
The first African American to be on a U.S postage stamp is known as Booker T. Washington.
Booker T. Washington lived between April 5, 1856 – November 14, 1915. He served in the capacity as an adviser to many American presidents. An orator and educator that excelled and prospered the national cause of the black race in multi-racial America.
He was self educated American slave.
At the time when white heroes were predominantly featured on the postage stamp, Booker T. Washington broke through the ranks in 1940s.
The blood leaving the aorta reaches the circle of Willis, a collection of arteries that supplies blood to the brain. Assume that it takes 600 ms for blood to reach the circle of Willis and that its average velocity is reduced to 61 cm/s. What is the average acceleration experienced by the blood?
Answer:
Option D
Explanation:
Please see the attached image for initial velocity and the options for this question are
A.−67.0 cm/s2
B.−0.670 cm/s2
C.0.670 cm/s2
D.67.0 cm/s2
Solution
Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity or speed.
Mathematically it can be represented as
[tex]da = \frac{dv}{dt}[/tex]
where a represents the acceleration, v represents the velocity and t represents the time taken.
Given
time is equal to [tex]600[/tex] ms
or
[tex]0.6[/tex] seconds
Substituting the given values in above equation we get
[tex]a = \frac{101-61}{0.6} \\= 66.67 \frac{m}{s^2}[/tex]
Hence, option D is correct
The average acceleration of blood reaching the circle of Willis, with average velocity of 61 cm/s over 600 ms, is calculated using the formula for acceleration and found to be 101.67 cm/s^2.
Explanation:The question involves computing the average acceleration experienced by the blood as it travels from the aorta to the circle of Willis. To find the acceleration, we can use the formula a = (v_f - v_i)/t, where v_f is the final velocity, v_i is the initial velocity (assumed to be zero if not given), and t is the time taken.
Given that the average velocity when it reaches the circle of Willis is 61 cm/s and assuming the initial velocity is 0 (since we are calculating the average acceleration from rest), and the time taken is 600 ms or 0.6 seconds, we can calculate the acceleration as follows:
a = (61 cm/s - 0) / 0.6 s
a = 101.67 cm/s2
The average acceleration experienced by the blood is 101.67 cm/s2. This value is positive, indicating that the blood is speeding up as it travels to the circle of Willis.
Early British anthropological researchers believed they could isolate and scientifically study the structure and specific details of what?
Early British anthropological researchers believed they could isolate and scientifically study the structure and specific details of Society.
Explanation:
Culture is that whole which incorporates information, conviction, workmanship, ethics, law, custom, and some other capacities and propensities obtained by man as a citizen. An ethnography is a writing about people, at a specific spot and time. Ordinarily, the anthropologist lives among individuals in another general public for a while, all the while taking an interest in and watching the social and social existence of the gathering. Anthropologists then compares the traits of people living in that particular society.
If intelligence is determined primarily by heredity, which pair should show the highest correlation between IQ scores?
Answer:
The options
a) fraternal twins
b) identical twins
c) brothers and sisters
d) parents and children
The CORRECT ANSWER IS b)
b) identical twins
Explanation:
Identical twins both acquire identical genetic material. Therefore, if intelligence is basically controlled by heredity, you would foresee identical twins to possess the biggest correlation between IQ scores since they share 100 percent of the same genes
Answer:
the answer would be B, I got it right on edge :)
Explanation:
true or false? Cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm, whereas mitosis is the division of the nucleus.
Answer:True
Explanation:
Mitosis is just a part of a cell cycle. Mitotic M phase include both mitosis and cytokinesis.
In the cell cycle Mitotic cell division alternate with Interphase a growth phase. In the mitotic phase, mitosis divides the cell nucleus and distribute it's chromosomes to the daughter nuclei, cytokinesis divides the cytoplasm, producing two daughter cells.
During mitosis in the telophase stage of mitosis the division of one nucleus into two genetically identical nuclei, is completed.
In Cytokinesis, the division of the cytoplasm is usually well under way by the late telophase, so the two daughter cells appear shortly after the end of mitosis
Final answer:
True. The statement is correct; cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm, while mitosis is the division of the nucleus, leading to two identical daughter cells.
Explanation:
The statement is true: cytokinesis is the division of the cytoplasm, and mitosis is the division of the nucleus. Cell division consists of these two processes. During mitosis, the cell's nucleus divides to form two identical nuclei. Following mitosis is cytokinesis, where the cell's cytoplasm divides, leading to the formation of two daughter cells, each containing a complete set of genetic material. It is important to note that whilst the phases of mitosis are consistent across most eukaryotic cells, the process of cytokinesis can vary, particularly in cells with cell walls, such as plant cells.
Heartbeat, digestion, respiration, and elimination of wastes are carried out by organ systems close to the central axis. These functions, close to the center of the body, operate or are ready to operate when the child is born. What principle of development does this represent?
Explanation:
This is the principle of proximodistal development that additionally depicts the bearing of advancement. This implies that the spinal string creates before external parts of the body. The child arms create before the hands also, the hands and feet create before the fingers and toes. Finger and toe muscles (utilized in fine engine ability) are the last to create in physical development.Proximodistal development is the changes of growth in child to operate the body when the child ready to operate after birth.Hence, the proximodistal development represent the changes in these functions.
Flower color in a particular plant species is determined by one gene. The alleles of that gene can code for either red flowers or blue flowers. When a red plant and a blue plant are crossed, some of the offspring produce purple flowers. What is the genotype of the plants with purple flowers? options: The genotype is BB because of incomplete dominance. The genotype is Bb because of incomplete dominance. The genotype is bb because of incomplete dominance. The genotype has nothing to do with the color of the flower.
Answer:
The correct answer is: The genotype is Bb because of incomplete dominance.
Explanation:
Incomplete dominance is a type of Non-Mendelian inheritance in which neither of the two alleles is dominant over each other. Both the alleles get expressed in a heterozygous individual harbouring both the alleles. Hence this heterozygous individual shows a phenotype that is in between the two homozygous phenotypes.In the given question, let us represent the red phenotype with b allele and the blue phenotype with B allele.The red (bb) and the blue (BB) parents are both homozygous.Gametes produced by each are b and B respectively.Crossing them,B
b Bb
After crossing, their offspring will have the Bb genotype, with a purple coloured phenotype, where the purple colour is between red and blue.Which directly contribute to sea levels rising?
Explanation:
he two major causes of global sea level rise are thermal expansion caused by warming of the ocean (since water expands as it warms) and increased melting of land-based ice, such as glaciers and ice sheets. ... In urban settings, rising seas threaten infrastructure necessary for local jobs and regional industries.
What directly contributes to sea levels rising is:
Melting of land iceIncreasing temperature in ocean waters.
Why are sea levels rising?
There are two major causes for sea levels to be rising during the last years. The first one is the melting land ice present in glaciers and lands. As these ices melt, the water goes to the ocean, increasing its levels.
The second direct cause is the increasing temperature of the ocean. In other words, the temperature of the Earth is increasing, so the oceans get warmer, and as a result, the water in them expands.
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You have spent time working with a population of beetles. Sexually mature males range in size from 2-6 cm in length. You realize that the females only mate with males that measure less than 3 cm long. If you measured allele frequencies at a single gene (locus) that contributes to overall length, would you expect this population to be in H-W equilibrium from one generation to the next?
Answer:
Option B, No
Explanation:
Complete question is as follows -
You have spent time working with a population of beetles. Sexually mature males range in size from 2-6 cm in length. You realize that the females only mate with males that measure less than 3 cm long. If you measured allele frequencies at a single gene (locus) that contributes to overall length, would you expect this population to be in H-W equilibrium from one generation to the next?
Select one:
a. Yes
b. No
Solution -
No, because Hardy Weinberg’s equilibrium theory is not applicable in practical scenario as it assumes that H-W equilibrium persists from one generation to the other only when these is no disturbing factor . These disturbing factors include – natural selection, non-random mating, genetic drift, gene flow and mutations. Since this theory works only in an idealized state where no such disturbances occur, it is very difficult to say that the beetle population can remain in H-W equilibrium. Also the females in the beetle population are selecting the males for mating thereby exhibiting sexual selection. Hence, H-W equilibrium will not be applicable.
Hence, option B
Consider the Color locus. At this locus there are two alleles - red and green. The red allele is dominant to the green allele. If the selection coefficient against the green/green homozygote is 0.30, what it the fitness of the green/green homozygote?
Answer:
0.7
Explanation:
Using Hardy-Weinberg equation of genetic variation being constant when disturbing factors such has mutation and others are removed.
p² + pq + q² = 1 and p + q = 1
where p² is the frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype (RR) and q² is the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype (rr) and 2pq is the frequency of heterozygous genotype (Rr). p represent the frequency of "R" and q represent "g". since the coefficient against the green/green homozygote is 0.30 then
the fitness of the green/green homozygote = 1 - 0.3 = 0.7
From the following choices, identify those that are the inputs and outputs of the light reactions. (Recall that inputs to chemical reactions are modified over the course of the reaction as they are converted into products. In other words, if something is required for a reaction to occur, and it does not remain in its original form when the reaction is complete, it is an input.)
Answer:
Let's complete The question
Drag each item to the appropriate bin. If the item is not an input to or an output from the light reactions, drag it to the "not input or output" bin. (light, water, NADP+, ADP, O2, ATP, NADPH, glucose, CO2,G3P
Input:
light, water, NADP+, ADP
Output:
O2, ATP, NADPH
not input or output:
glucose, CO2,G3P
Explanation:
At the light reactions phrase, the energy of sunlight is employed in the oxidation of water (the electron donor) to O2 and transfer these electrons to NADP+, so as to give NADPH.
Some light energy is also employed to transform ADP to ATP.
The NADPH and ATP yielded are consequently used to run the sugar-producing Calvin cycle.
Which is true concerning muscle tissue? Select one: a. cuboidal shape enhances function b. highly cellular and well vascularized c. contains contractile units made of collagen d. is a single-celled tissue
The true statement about muscle tissue is that it is highly cellular and well vascularized. There are three types of muscle tissue: skeletal, cardiac, and smooth, all of which are highly cellular, well vascularized and have excitability, enabling movement and force generation.
Explanation:Concerning muscle tissue, the true statement is: b. highly cellular and well vascularized. This relates to the nature of muscle tissue, which is indeed highly cellular and well vascularized, allowing it to perform its functions of movement and force generation. Muscle cells, or myocytes, are derived from the mesoderm and their numbers remain relatively constant throughout life. These cells are characterised by their excitability; they respond to a stimulus and are contractile, meaning they can shorten and generate a pulling force.
There are three types of muscle tissue in the body - skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle. These all have properties in common, such as the ability to change their electrical states and send an electrical wave (or action potential) along the membrane. This property is known as excitability.
The forms of muscle tissue show different characteristics: skeletal muscle cells appear striated with many nuclei along the membranes; cardiac muscle cells appear striated with a single nucleus; smooth muscle cells have a single nucleus with no visible striations. These differences help them perform their different functions within the body.
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Consider a culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus colonies can grow due to an elevated NaCl level. A yellow halo surrounds the growth, indicating the bacterium fermented a sugar in the medium, decreasing the pH as a result and changing the color of a pH indicator chemical. This type of medium would be referred to as a(n):______
a) enrichment culture.
b) differential and enrichment culture.
c) selective and differential medium.
d) selective median.
Answer:
C) Selective and differential medium.
Explanation:
Selective Medium:
A media contains specific ingredients which are required to promote the growth of microorganism and inhibit the other microorganisms to grow is called selective medium.
Differential Medium:
A media contains specific ingredients which differentiate the same group organisms or closely related organisms is called differential medium.
NaCl is used in media to promote the growth of Staphylococcus aureus and inhibit the growth of other gram positive and negative bacteria.
A yellow halo color shows the bacterial fermentation of sugar which will distinguish Staphylococcus aureus with other strains.
So, it will be selective and differential medium which will allow to grow Staphylococcus aureus and differentiate with other bacteria.
Johanna, a 7-year-old girl, is significantly shorter than normal for her age. Her doctor recommends treatment with a hormone before her growth plates ossify in her long bones. Which hormone is recommended? Johanna, a 7-year-old girl, is significantly shorter than normal for her age. Her doctor recommends treatment with a hormone before her growth plates ossify in her long bones. Which hormone is recommended? 1. parathyroid 2. hormone thyroid 3. stimulating hormone 4. cortisol growth hormone
Answer:
4. cortisol growth hormone
Explanation:
It is possible to supply Johanna with the growth hormone because the deficiency in this hormone has been the cause of her short stature. This hormone is important because it is produced by the pituitary gland that is in the brain and is responsible for increasing height and muscle mass. There are medications that contain this hormone, it is recommended to apply at an early age and that has more risks of success
A technologist in a tissue bank who performed HLA typing by DNA analysis was asked to bank all DNA extracted from specimens received in the laboratory so as to maintain the highest quality of nucleic acid for the longest period. How should the DNA be stored to satisfy this request?
Answer:
I believe the options are:
a) DNase-free water at 22°-25°C
b) DNase-free water at -70°C
c) TE buffer at 2°-8°C
d) Freeze-dried at 22°-25°C
The answer is d) freeze dried at 22°C to 25°C.
Explanation:
As compared to RNA, DNA is a relatively stable biomolecule. It is relatively thermostable. However, DNA is highly susceptible to nuclease and chemical degradation.
DNA Storage:
DNA storage methods depend upon the type of sample, the desired quality and for how long the sample needs to be stored.There are four major DNA storage methods:Dried, at room temperature–20°C –80°C –196°C (storage in liquid nitrogen)Freeze drying and storage in liquid nitrogen (-196°C) are the two most effective means to store DNA samples for a long time.For storage at room temperature, DNA samples are dried in a freeze drying machine. Freeze drying removes all the moisture and water from the sample which prevents any hydrolytic reactions.In which stage of development does the child undergo astoundingly rapid change, and increase some 20 times in size, including dramatic changes in proportion and weight?
Answer:
Fetal.
Explanation:
The fusion of the male and female gamete leads to the formation of zygote. The zygote growth further in the womb of the female. The human being gestation period is nine months.
The fetal development starts after zygote formation and till the birth of a baby. The fetus grows regularly in size and development of the body organs completed in the nine months. The weight and size increase rapidly and baby face well developed at the 14 week of pregnancy. Finger nails are well developed around 40 weeks of pregnancy.
Thus, the correct answer is fetal.
Why is having an extra chromosome 21 tolerable to the point that someone with this condition can survive to maturity? (as compared to having an extra chromosome 2 , for example)
Answer:
This is due to the fact that chromosome 21 is not fundamental to sustain and keep life going.
Chromosome 21 is the second human chromosome to be entirely sequenced. Chromosome 21 seems to consists of 200 to 300 genes that supply instructions for developing and forming proteins. These proteins undergo a variety of unique roles in the body.
Chromosome 21 is majorly involved in brain development at the frontal lobe and the medulla oblingata.
Final answer:
Chromosome 21 is one of the smallest chromosomes with fewer genes, which results in a less severe impact of an extra copy compared to larger chromosomes. This allows individuals with an extra chromosome 21, or Down syndrome, to survive to maturity and lead fulfilling lives with proper assistance despite some intellectual and physical disabilities.
Explanation:
For several reasons, having an extra chromosome 21, known as trisomy 21 or Down syndrome, is more tolerable. Chromosome 21 is one of the smallest chromosomes with fewer genes compared to other chromosomes such as chromosome 2. This reduces the impact of having an extra copy because the gene dosage effect is not as severe as it would be with larger chromosomes that carry more essential genes. The body can somehow manage the extra dose of the genes on chromosome 21, allowing individuals with Down syndrome to survive to maturity and lead fulfilling lives with assistance.
Embryos with extra copies of other chromosomes, or lacking a chromosome (monosomy), usually do not survive because essential genes are either missing or expressed too much, disrupting vital developmental processes. With chromosome 21 being one of the smallest, the impact of the extra genetic material is less damaging, although it still causes various degrees of physical and intellectual disabilities.
Furthermore, individuals with Down syndrome, with proper assistance, can become contributing members of society despite potential mental and physical impairments. The survivability and capabilities of individuals with Down syndrome illustrate that the extra chromosome 21 while presenting challenges, does not preclude a viable and active life.
"You begin an experiment with two populations of E. coli that are each composed of 100 cells. The cells are all genetically identical (i.f., they are clones). You grow these populations in flasks on a lab bench under identical conditions with sufficient resources for the survival of all individuals. What process will introduce genetic variation into these populations?"
Answer:
Horizontal method of gene transfer
Explanation:
Bacteria divide by binary fission which produces the exact copy of the daughter cells with the same genetic material but they do exhibit variation in their genetic material.
The process that is responsible to introduce the genetic variation is the mechanisms of horizontal methods of DNA transfer which involves the transformation, transduction and conjugation.
These methods of gene transfer are considered by the biologist as the primitive methods of sexual reproduction.
Thus, Horizontal method of gene transfer is the correct answer.
The fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster has an allele that confers resistance to DDT and similar insecticides. Laboratory strains of D. melanogaster have been established from flies collected in the wild in the 1930s (before the widespread use of insecticides) and the 1960s (after 20 years of DDT use). Lab strains established in the 1930s have no alleles for DDT resistance. In lab strains established in the 1960s, the frequency of the DDT-resistance allele is 37%. Which statement is correct?
A) Alleles for DDT resistance arose by mutation during the period of DDT use because of selection for pesticide resistance.
B) The evolutionary fitness associated with the heritable trait of DDT resistance changed once DDT use became widespread.
C) Resistance to DDT evolved in some fruit flies in order to allow them to survive.
Answer:
The answer is option "B"
Explanation:
DNA is comprised of a set of genes that dictates a given trait. The genes themselves are comprised of alleles that allow for variations and differences in the trait that the concerned gene is responsible for. In the case of D. Melanogaster, there is an allele that allows for resistance to pesticides such as DDT. The two samples that are referred to in the question are differentiated on the basis of the amount of time that has lapsed since the start of significant DDT usage. So at the time when widespread DDT usage was not in place, the sample showed no DDT resistant alleles. With the passage of time in which DDT usage grew, the resultant effect as evidenced from the later sample indicated a significantly higher percentage of DDT resistant allele. This means that the ability of this species of fruit flies to survive, referred to as their evolutionary fitness, increased only after use of DDT increased. This means that DDT resistance trait changed as a natural response to the introduction of a different climate thereby allowing subsequent offspring of fruit flies to boast of higher numbers of alleles that have DDT resistance capacities thus allowing them to survive.
Phosphoinositides mark different cellular membranes and play key roles in protein trafficking inside the cell. Among them, PI(4,5)P2 is involved in receptor-mediated endocytosis as well as phagocytosis at the plasma membrane. This phosphoinositide ...
A. is bound by the adaptor protein AP2.
B. is bound by the GTPase dynamin.
C. is depleted from clathrin-coated vesicles to promote their uncoating.
D. All of the above.
Answer:
All of the above.
Explanation:
PI(4,5)P2 (Phosphatidylinositol 4,5-bisphosphate) is the phospholipid present in the minor amount in the plasma membrane. This molecule plays an important role in the cell signaling.
The PI(4,5)P2 is involved in the clathrin coated vesicles and its depletion leads to the uncoating and continues the cell signaling process. The dynamin protein is important for the clathrin coating and and they require the adaptor protein AP2 for the clathrin association.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Convergent evolution is said to have occurred if the mouse species on two islands with similar habitats are found to have similar characteristics even though they originated from different species that did not have these characteristics.A. TrueB. false
Answer:
True
Explanation:
When two or more distantly related species develop some structural or functional similarities since they are found in the same environmental conditions, the process is called convergent evolution. Here, the developed similarities may not be present in the ancestors of these species. For example, the presence of wings in birds (Aves) and bats (mammals) represents convergent evolution. Therefore, the presence of similar features in two different species of mouse due to similar habitat conditions represent convergent evolution.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
When two species of an organism habituating in two different locations with similar environmental conditions possess similar characteristics are said to evolve through convergence.
Such species have homologous structures due to which they have similar internal skeletal structure but their function and looks vary.
For example – wings of bat and limbs of human beings are homologous structure but their function and look are different from each other.
Hence, the given statement is true
A relationship in which one organism depends on another for nourishment or some other benefit is specifically known as _____.
Answer: Commensalism
Explanation:
Commensalism is a biological association where two organisms interact and one of the two benefits while the other neither benefits nor get harmed.
A good example is epiphyte growing on Fruit trees. The epiphyte plant benefits by receiving physical support from the tree, while the fruit tree is totally unaffected
Students use a microscope to look for structures present in four different cells. The students placed an X for each structure that was viewed for each cell on the table shown.
Which cell that was viewed is most likely a prokaryote?
A. Cell W
B. Cell X
C. Cell Y
D. Cell Z
Cell X is likely a prokaryotic cell. Option B) is the correct answer.
Explanation:
The prokaryotic cells are present in unicellular organisms such as bacteria and lack Nucleus in it. The cell X is not filled with x-mark in the nucleus.The prokaryotic cells consist of the cell membrane, cell wall and a genetic material composed of DNA. All these are marked with x-mark for cell X.Chloroplasts are not present in prokaryotic cells and the space for it is left blank in cell X without the x-mark.This information clearly shows that prokaryotic cell structure is viewed likely in cell X.The cell that is most likely a prokaryote is Cell X.
Hence, the correct option is B.
Prokaryotic cells are characterized by the following features:
They do not have a nucleus.
They have a cell wall.
They may have chloroplasts.
They have DNA that is not enclosed in a nucleus.
Cell X has a cell wall, chloroplasts, and DNA. However, it does not have a nucleus. This means that Cell X is most likely a prokaryotic cell.
Cell W has a nucleus, so it is not a prokaryote.
Cell Y has a nucleus and chloroplasts, so it is also not a prokaryote.
Cell Z has a nucleus, but it does not have chloroplasts. This means that Cell Z could be either a prokaryote or a eukaryote.
However, since Cell X is more likely to be a prokaryote based on the information given, Cell Z is less likely to be a prokaryote.
Therefore, The cell that is most likely a prokaryote is Cell X.
Hence, the correct option is B.
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A group of nursing students are reviewing information about variations in the anatomy of a child's respiratory tract structures in comparison to adults. The students demonstrate an understanding of the information when they describe the shape of the larynx in infants as________________.
Answer:
The shape of the larynx in infants are cone shaped.
Explanation:
The size of the larynx is small in comparison to the adult one.
The larynx lies on the 4th cervical vertebrae and the axis of the respiratory system is parallel with the axis of digestive system that helps the infants to breathe constantly and swallow liquid foods.
The larynx is covered by soft cartilage and relatively the lumen is narrow.
The vocal cord is small and 7-9 mm wide with sub glottis which is 5.5-6 mm wide.
Soft cartilage favors deformity of the larynx and trachea.
The upper end is cone shaped structure and the cricoid cartilage is backwardly directed. Short vocal cord and the epiglottis is narrow which is hang above the larynx.
The cricoid cartilage is hyaline type in infants that affects the coloring intensity.
The epiglottis is an elastic cartilage which is covered by mucus.
The correct answer is a. funnel. The larynx in infants is funnel-shaped, situated higher in the neck to aid in breathing and prevent choking. This shape gradually changes as the child grows.
The larynx in infants is described as a. funnel-shaped due to the anatomical differences compared to adults.
In infants, the larynx is situated higher in the neck.It is shaped more like a funnel which helps in the breathing process and prevents choking while swallowing because the epiglottis can form a protective barrier over the larynx more easily.This funnel shape gradually changes into a more cylindrical shape as the child grows, resembling the adult larynx.This anatomical variation is significant in the pediatrics field for proper understanding of airway management and respiratory support in infants.Complete question:
A group of nursing students are reviewing information about variations in the anatomy of a child's respiratory tract structures in comparison to adults. The students demonstrate an understanding of the information when they describe the shape of the larynx in infants as?
a. funnel.
b. cylindrical.
c. oval.
d. spherical.
Humans, chimpanzees, gorillas, and orangutans are members of a clade called the great apes, which shared a common ancestor about fifteen million years ago. Gibbons and siamangs comprise a clade called the lesser apes. Tree-branch lengths indicate elapsed time.
Assuming chimps and gorillas are humans' closest relatives, removing humans from the great ape clade and placing them in a different clade has the effect of making the phylogenetic tree of the great apes _____.
A) polyphyletic
B) paraphyletic
C) monophyletic
D) into a new order
Answer:
The correct option is B) paraphyletic
Explanation:
A clade can be described as a monophyletic group which comprises of different organisms which have an ancestor in common and all its linear descents.
A paraphyletic group can be described as a group of organisms that have descended from the same evolutionary organism or ancestor groups, but it might comprise of one or more of the descendants.
Removing humans from the great ape clade results in a paraphyletic group as this group would then consist of an ancestral species and some, but not all, of its descendants.
Assuming chimps and gorillas are humans' closest relatives, removing humans from the great ape clade would make phylogenetic tree of the great apes paraphyletic. A paraphyletic group consists of an ancestral species and some, but not all, of its descendants. As humans share a common ancestor with chimps, gorillas, and orangutans, removing humans from the group creates a grouping that includes some but not all descendants of that common ancestor. This exclusion breaks the completeness of the monophyletic group (which includes all descendants), therefore, the correct answer to the question is:
B) paraphyletic
Match the following terms and definitions 1. gene alternate forms for a specific gene 2. allele a genetic characteristic of the individual 3. trait a portion of DNA which codes a specific heredity trait 4. chromosome a thread-like molecule in the nucleus composed of DNA chromosome a genetic characteristic of the individual
Answer:
1. Allele - alternate forms for a specific gene
2. Trait - a genetic characteristic of the individual
3. Gene - a portion of DNA which codes a specific heredity trait
4. Chromosome - a thread-like molecule in the nucleus composed of DNA
Explanation:
1. An allele is the variant form of a gene. According to Mendel, an organism receives two forms of a gene from each parent. This forms are called ALLELES.
2. A trait is a particular characteristics of an individual determined by its genetic content. In other words, genes determine characteristics or attribute an individual possesses, this attribute is the TRAIT.
3. A gene is a sequence of nucleotides present on the DNA molecule that codes for certain products (proteins) and pass on traits to offsprings. The gene is a segment of the DNA that holds the genetic information.
4. CHROMOSOMES are visible structures in the nucleus (eukaryotes) or cytoplasm (prokaryotes) formed by the wrapping up of histone proteins around DNA molecule. It is the form in which the genetic material is passed on.
The term gene is a portion of DNA that codes a specific heredity trait, Allele refers to alternate forms for a specific gene, Trait means a genetic characteristic of an individual, and Chromosome is a thread-like molecule in the nucleus composed of DNA. Each term has a key role in genetic inheritance.
Explanation:The correct matching for the terms to their definitions are: 1. Gene should be matched with a 'portion of DNA which codes a specific heredity trait', 2. Allele can be defined as 'alternate forms for a specific gene', 3. Trait should be connected with 'a genetic characteristic of an individual', and 4. Chromosome could be best described as 'a thread-like molecule in the nucleus composed of DNA'
Gene is a unit of heredity which is transferred from a parent to offspring. Alleles are different versions of the same gene, each individual organism has two alleles for each gene - one from each parent. A trait is a characteristic that an organism can pass on to its offspring while a chromosome is a long thread-like grouping of genes, where each chromosome consists of DNA coiled and supercoiled around histones.
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In one experiment, Katherine observes that one of her cultured neurons responds to a rapid series of inputs at a single synapse by producing an action potential. In another experiment, she demonstrates that another cell responds to inputs at multiple synapses by producing an action potential. Katherine’s first experiment demonstrates ______________ and her second experiment demonstrates _______________.
Answer:
The answers are "Temporal Summation" and "Spatial Summation".
Explanation:
The experiment explained in the question is performed to observe action potentials and postsynaptic potentials in the neurons and how they affect them to behave differently.
In the first experiment, Temporal Summation is observed which occurs when one presynaptic neuron fires because of the changes in it's axon terminal.
In the second experiment, Spatial Summation is observed which occurs when ,unlike the temporal summation, more than one presynaptic neuron release neurotransmitters to cause the postsynaptic neuron to fire as a result.
I hope this answer helps.
Katherine's first experiment demonstrates temporal summation, while her second experiment demonstrates spatial summation.
Explanation:In her first experiment, Katherine observes that a single synapse of her cultured neuron produces an action potential in response to a rapid series of inputs. This experiment demonstrates temporal summation, where inputs from a single synapse are integrated over time to produce an action potential. In her second experiment, Katherine demonstrates that inputs from multiple synapses can also produce an action potential. This experiment demonstrates spatial summation, where inputs from different synapses are integrated spatially to generate an action potential.
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Last night in class, Upe asked her instructor about the flow of positive and negative ions into and/or out of a cell. Her instructor told her that the two processes involved in this movement are: A. diffusion and electrostatic pressure. B. glia and microglia. C. agonists and antagonists. D. voluntary and involuntary.
Answer:
Last night in class, Upe asked her instructor about the flow of positive and negative ions into and/or out of a cell. Her instructor told her that the two processes involved in this movement are: A. diffusion and electrostatic pressure. B. glia and microglia. C. agonists and antagonists. D. voluntary and involuntary.
The Answer is option A (diffusion and electrostatic pressure)
Explanation:
How diffusion act on groups of ions:
Ions are diffused when ions move from regions of high concentration to regions of lower concentration.
For Potassium Ion, potassium remains in high concentrations inside the cell, diffusion tends to push Potassium ion outside the cell.
For chloride ion (Cl-), remains in high concentration outside the cell, diffusion pushes it inside the cell.
While, sodium ion (Na+) is more concentrated outside the cell, diffusion pushes sodium ion inside the cell.
How electrostatic pressure act on groups of ions:
Electrostatic pressure is a surface charge that experiences a force in the presence of an electric field and can be described as the force on two ions with similar charge and the force of two ions with opposite charge.
For Potassium ion, the positive charge of Potassium ion is attracted to the negative charge inside the cell, hence, electrostatic pressure pushes Potassium ion inside the cell.
For chloride ion (Cl-), since the negative charge of chloride ion is attracted to the positive charge outside the cell, electrostatic pressure pushes chloride ion outside the cell.
For Sodium ion (Na+), since the positive charge of sodium is attracted to the negative charge inside the cell, electrostatic pressure pushes sodium ion inside the cell. But, sodium ion cannot permeate the cell membrane and remains in high concentration outside the cell.