Answer: a. lateral inhibition in the retina.
Explanation:
Lateral inhibition is a process of increase in sharpness and contrasts in the visual response. This phenomenon is a characteristic feature of mammalian retina. In lateral inhibition, the different cells of the retina in the eye respond to the varying degrees of the light. In this process when one cell in retina activates in the response to light this impairs the activity of the neighboring cell. This causes the edges between the dark and light areas of the object to appear more prominent than would be in the actual sense.
Managers use a0 of their organization to help them plan and implement programs in their communities.
Answer:
Managers use a0 of their organization to help them plan and implement programs in their communities - this statement is false.
Explanation:
Four or more managers taking care of marketing activities report to the Vice president of Marketing or the Chief Marketing Officer. Numerous Regional Sales Managers and an International Sales Manager report to the Sales Manager. And finally, the product or brand managers and their subordinates - their contribution is of utmost importance. Together the entire team helps in planning, implementing and evaluating the marketing strategies of a particular brand or service. So, the above sentence is not true in any sense.
Answer:
The structure.
Explanation:
Managers use the structure of their organization to help them plan and implement programs in their communities. They also use resources from other organizations to help them plan programs.
Walid has been working 70-hour workweeks and has been getting his days and nights mixed up, as well as having trouble separating his dreams from reality. Just yesterday, he thought a project had been completed, but it was only a dream. This problem is known as _____.a. infantile amnesia.b. source amnesia.c. mood-congruent memory.
d. blocking.
Answer:
source amnesia
Explanation:
he has being doing things to think he had been doing them even when he slept
Answer:
source amnesia
Explanation:
What is the credential of the nutrition professional who has completed a baccalaureate degree program approved by the Accreditation Council for Education in Nutrition and Dietetics, performed at least 1200 hours of supervised professional practice, passed a registration examination, and meets continuing education requirements?
RD a is the credential of the nutrition professional who has completed a baccalaureate degree program approved by the Accreditation Council for Education in Nutrition and Dietetics and performed at least 1,200 hours of supervised professional practice and have passed a registration examination.
Explanation:
The term RD stands for the registered dietitian .Rd is basically a food and nutrition expert who works on prevention and treatment of diseases.Rd monitors the medical nutrition therapy in hospitals,they also play a vital role in sports nutrition programs and corporate wellness programsA Registered Dietitian (RD) is a nutrition professional who has completed a specialized bachelor's degree, 1200 hours of supervised professional practice, passed a national exam, and meets ongoing continuing education requirements. They work in various settings providing expert nutritional advice and planning nutrition programs.
Explanation:The nutrition professional who has completed a baccalaureate degree program approved by the Accreditation Council for Education in Nutrition and Dietetics, performed at least 1200 hours of supervised professional practice, passed a registration examination, and meets continuing education requirements is known as a Registered Dietitian (RD).
RDs undertake a comprehensive education process starting with at least a bachelor's degree in dietetics, nutrition, food technology, or a related field. This program must be approved by the Accreditation Council for Education in Nutrition and Dietetics. After this, they must complete at least 1200 hours of supervised professional practice in various settings like health care facilities, schools, and other environments where nutrition advice is required.
Once RDs finish their supervised practice and pass a national exam, they must meet ongoing continuing education requirements to maintain their registration. They specialize in the chemistry and biology of food, encompassing a deep understanding of proteins, carbohydrates, and fats. Their essential role in health care services includes planning nutrition programs to prevent and treat diseases like diabetes and obesity.
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__________ are largely unconscious reactions that are used as a form of protection from unpleasant emotions, such as guilt or anxiety. A. Indulgences B. Defense mechanisms C. Repressions D. States of consciousness
Answer:
DEFENSE MECHANISMS
Explanation:
Defense mechanisms is the way in which unconscious mind protect, deny and manipulate in other to defend against feelings of anxiety or guilty thereby maintaining one's self from things that they don't want to think about or deal with.
Example is been faced with an unpleasant task or assignment, your mind may choose to forget your responsibility in order to avoid the task.
Answer:
B.
Defense mechanisms
Explanation:
An MCO is built on contracted relationships. An index of contracts, including expira-tion dates and any proposed contract changes, is maintained to be sure all contracts remain valid and at an optimal level of reimbursement. True or false?
Candace wakes up in the night to use the bathroom. She tries to find her way in the darkness by choosing to feel around with her hands. Which part of the nervous system is MOST associated with this type of directed activity?
The peripheral nervous system is most associated with Candace's directed activity of feeling around with her hands in the darkness.
Explanation:The part of the nervous system that is most associated with Candace's directed activity of feeling around with her hands in the darkness is the peripheral nervous system.
The peripheral nervous system is made up of the nerves that extend from the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body. It includes sensory nerves that carry information from the body's senses to the central nervous system.
In this case, Candace is relying on the sensory nerves in her hands to provide information about her environment and help her navigate in the darkness.
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A client returns to the medical-surgical unit after a total hip replacement with a large wedge-shaped pillow between his legs. The client's daughter asks the nurse why the pillow is in place. What is the nurse's best response?
The provided question lacks the options that are required to answer, however the options are as follows -
a. "It will help prevent bedsores from developing."
b. "It will help prevent nerve damage and foot drop."
c. "It will keep the new hip from becoming dislocated."
d. "It will prevent climbing out of bed if he becomes confused."
Answer:
The correct answer is - option c.
Explanation:
After the surgery for the complete hip replacement there is risk of the dislocation of the new hip. To avoid this dislocation in medical surgical unit nurses support the hip with the wedge shaped pillow.
In this provided option on the basis of the given explanation would be the option C which states that it will keep the new hip from becoming dislocated.
Thus, the correct answer is - option C.
Answer:The correct answer is - option c.
Explanation:
A 58-year-old woman is seen in the clinic for reports of severe back pain. Her chest x-ray demonstrates generalized bone demineralization and compression fracture. Blood studies demonstrate elevated calcium levels. The most likely diagnosis is _______.A) leukemia.
B) myeloma.
C) Hodgkin disease.
D) back trauma.
Answer:
myeloma
Explanation:
Signs and symptoms of multiple myeloma can vary and, early in the disease, there may be none.
When signs and symptoms do occur, they can include:
Bone pain, especially in your spine or chest
Nausea
Constipation
Loss of appetite
Mental fogginess or confusion
Fatigue
Frequent infections
Weight loss
Weakness or numbness in your legs
Excessive thirst
The 58-year-old woman with severe back pain, chest x-ray showing bone demineralization, elevated calcium levels, and compression fractures has osteoporosis, an age-related disease characterized by loss of bone density and strength.
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for a 58-year-old woman presenting with severe back pain, generalized bone demineralization on a chest x-ray, elevated calcium levels, and compression fractures is osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is an age-related disorder characterized by the gradual loss of bone density and strength, which makes bones more susceptible to fractures.
Compression fractures of the thoracic vertebrae, leading to kyphosis or an excessive curvature of the thoracic region (also referred to as dowager's hump), are particularly common in people with osteoporosis. Elevated calcium levels often occur in osteoporosis because the minerals from the demineralized bones are released into the bloodstream.
José has a food allergy to almonds and gets very ill if he eats any food containing almonds. While at a wedding, José starts to eat a piece of cake, but when he gets it close to his nose he smells the presence of almonds and does not eat it. He later learns that there was almond extract used in the cake. Which of the following describe José’s ability to detect even the slightest presence of almonds?a. adaptiveb. a prepared responsec. a classically conditioned response
Answer:
Classically conditioned response
Explanation:
The concept of classical conditioned response entails the placement of a neutral signal to the occurrence of a natural reflex. The smell of the almond in this case is capable of producing the negative response to the food shown by Jose. In classical conditioned response, there is always an association between two stimuli, which then results in a response that is learned.
Answer:
Classically conditioned response, prepared response and it’s adaptive
Explanation:
What does blood pressure often reveal about an individual’s health? if an individual is likely to develop osteoporosis if an individual has a weakened immune system if an individual has high blood sugar levels if the individual is at higher risk for heart attack
Answer:
if the individual is at higher risk for heart attack
Explanation:
Blood pressure is the pressure of blood which is circulating within the veins of an individual. Any disturbance in blood pressure would directly affect the blood vessels. For example, if an individual has hypertension (high blood pressure), the pressure on the veins/arteries would be also high and those vessels which are really small/thin, would have to bear that pressure as well. If the elasticity/strength/diameter of veins is not sufficient, they may break because of high circulation pressure. Since heart is the main pump of blood circulation, the situation of high blood pressure increases the risks of heart attack (stroke).
On the other hand osteoprosis is a medical condition in which density of bones reduces due to the loss of calcium and other minerals. It has no direct link with the blood pressure. Similarly, weakend immune system is also not directly linked with the high blood pressure.
Although high blood sugar would result in the increase of high blood pressure, it is rather a long term process. Typically, high blood sugar would need more water for dilution purpose which would be supplied through kidneys refiltration. In case of continous high blood sugar, kidneys will always be under pressure and this would increase the blood pressure as well.
Answer:
D: if the individual is at higher risk for heart attack
Explanation:
Which type of study involves randomly selecting subjects from a defined population, collecting baseline information regarding potential risk factors for the disease of interest, and then following the subjects over a period of time to track the incidence of the disease?
Answer:
a prospective cohort study
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the type of study that is being described in the question is called a prospective cohort study. This is a type of long term study in which a group or population is followed and studied over a period of time in order to see how the factor under study pertaining to those individuals affects the rates of a specific outcome.
Many people have a tendency to gorge on rich, fatty foods. How could such a preference have evolved?1. Fatty foods are very rich in calories and consuming them is an efficient way to gain weight.2. In ancestral hunter-gatherer communities, individuals with a tendency to gorge on such foods when available would have had a selective advantage.3. Most people find fatty foods tasty and satisfying.
Answer: 2. In ancestral hunter-gatherer communities, individuals with a tendency to gorge on such foods when available would have had a selective advantage.
Explanation:
From their earliest times, the hunter-gatherer diet included various grasses, leaves, fruits, and seeds. They used to hut for animals as well. The animal meat was the rich source of fat which was the dense source of energy that can be supplied when instant energy required without conducting hunting and gathering again. This was a selective advantage in the early human life as the food was not readily available and used to require effort for fetching.
Thus since, the early age till the time today the fatty foods are the preference for fulfilling the fat and energy storage requirement of the body.
A client who exhibits very little facial expression during the course of a conversation is said to have a(n) __________ affect.
1. abstract
2. misconceptive
3. blunted
4. superficial
Answer:
3. blunted
Explanation:
Blunted affect can be said to be the lack of or reduced intensity of emotional expressions as a nonverbal response in conversation. When an individual doesn’t express their emotional feeling outwardly in a normal circumstance, such person is said to be having a blunt affect.
Blunt affect can be a symptom of conditions such as schizophrenia, depression, etc. It can also be caused by antidepressants and anti-psychotics used as medications.
Answer:
3. blunted
Explanation:
Which test is appropriate for the child with stiffness, tingling, and aches in the knee joints and has a tendency toward prolonged bleeding? a.Bleeding time b.Tourniquet test c.Clot retraction time d.Partial thromboplastin time
Answer:
Partial Thromboplastin Time Is the right answer I believe
Explanation:
A partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test measures the time it takes for a blood clot to form. Normally, when you get a cut or injury that causes bleeding, proteins in your blood called coagulation factors work together to form a blood clot. The clot stops you from losing too much blood. ( Medlineplus.gov)
The nurse is admitting a client to the hospital. The nurse gives the client information about client rights while in the hospital. Which statement by the client indicates that more teaching is needed?
Answer:
Option B
Explanation:
Patients rights are the rights that patients has concerning his or her(their) health or well-being. For instance now, patients have the right to privacy, the right to know about their treatment, to know about their medical information and so on.
If you look at option A: "I can get a copy of my medical record if I want to read it". This statement shows that the client is getting more understanding of his or her right to his or her medical information. Same thing with option C and D which gives clients right to privacy.
Option B: "The doctor can copy my information and send it to my son". This statement shows that the client need more teaching because the doctor has no such right.
Answer:
The doctor can copy my information and send it to my son
Explanation:
If the nurse is giving the client information about his or her rights, this relates to the issue of privacy and confidentiality, which is an important concept when conducting research. For the client to see tell the doctor that her information can be copied and sent to her son, this clearly shows that she does not understand the concept of privacy and confidentiality, as the doctor has no right to relay client information to anyone.
By late adolescence, the teen is capable of thinking about _____ concepts such as politics, justice, and freedom.
Answer: Complex concepts
Explanation:
The adolescent from the beginning from this stage until its completion and entry into adulthood goes through a process not only of physical growth but also of emotional and cognitive growth.
When a child is in early adolescence begins what is its critical thinking. This focuses on making personal decisions at home and school, questions the authority and standards of society, uses logic to solve operations at school and begins to express their thoughts and points of view on various topics.
When the child is in middle adolescence, it already has experience using critical thinking, its questions are more extensive as well as the analyses it performs, it begins to develop its own identity, thinks long term and begins to influence its relationships with others.
Already in the late adolescence stage, the child can use complex thinking for decision making, his thoughts grow related to topics such as justice, history, politics, and patriotism, offers views on specific issues or concerns that may Having a specific field, his thinking focuses on deciding on a career and begins to think about its role as an adult in society.
Answer:
universal is the actual answer
Explanation:
Seven-month-old Del has achieved several motor milestones, including rolling over and sitting up without support. In addition to using his visual, skeletal, and muscular system, what else does Del use to help him accomplish these tasks?
Answer:
The correct answer is - Vestibular organs in his inner ear.
Explanation:
Motor skills such as sitting up without assistance or support, rolling over, are need various body system to accomplish these tasks. Visual system for sense of position, skeletal system and muscular system for body movements.
Other than these three system there are one more essential part that help in performing such tasks that is Vestibular organs in his inner ear, which is helpful to maintain balance for performing and sensing the position in space.
Thus, the correct answer is -Vestibular organs in his inner ear.
Alyssa goes to a Montessori school in which there are children ranging in age from 3 to 6 in her class. The older children assist the younger ones in their learning of basic concepts and skills. This idea, that older individuals can assist younger ones in their learning, is best exemplified in which person’s theory?
Answer:
Lev Vygotsky.
Explanation:
Lev Vygotsky was the famous psychologists who gave the socio cultural theory. He also gave the theory of consciousness and did a lot of research in the development psychology.
His theory believes that older individuals play an important role in the learning of the younger individuals and younger get assisted more in their learning and influenced by their older ones. He have the theory of Marxist theory of human cultural and bio-social development
Thus, the answer is lev Vygotsky.
Lev Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development best exemplifies the idea of older individuals assisting younger ones in learning. The concept is known as the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD), which is the difference between what a learner can do without help and what they can do with help.
Explanation:The idea that older individuals can assist younger ones in their learning is best exemplified in Lev Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development, specifically the concept known as the Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD). ZPD is the difference between what a learner can do without help and what he or she can do with help. It is a concept that embodies the way older children can help younger children learn new skills and concepts, similar to what is happening in Alyssa's Montessori class.
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A client is scheduled for a nonstress test in the 37th week of gestation. The nurse explains the procedure. Which statement demonstrates that the client understands the teaching?1. "I'll need to have an IV so the medication can be injected before the test."2. "My baby may get very restless after I have this test."3. "I hope this test doesn't cause my labor to start too early."4. "If the heart reacts well, my baby should do OK when I give birth."
Answer:
If the heart reacts well , my baby should do okay when i give birth.
Explanation:
This is a common prenatal test that is used to monitor a baby's health by checking the heart rate.
Apart from checking the heart rate, it monitors the baby's movement.
It sis considered non stress since no medication is used by the doctor. Therefore the baby gets no stress.
For a mother to make the statement "If the heart reacts well, my baby should do OK when I give birth."
It demonstrates she understood the teaching about nonstress test.
For the student who requires more visual interactivity, the best resource to learn medical terminology is
To learn medical terminology in a visually interactive manner, students can use resources like interactive apps, websites, Complete Anatomy platform and medical terminology flashcards. These resources use visuals, animations, quizzes, games and illustrations which make learning engaging and helps in longer retention.
Explanation:For students who require more visual interactivity, the best resource to learn medical terminology is through interactive apps and websites. These tools often provide visuals, animations, quizzes, and games that can assist in understanding and memorizing complicated medical terms. One example is the Complete Anatomy platform, which offers detailed 3D models and interactive features. Another resource is medical terminology flashcards which often come illustrated and can be a very effective study tool.
Interactive learning not only makes study of medical terminology engaging, but also helps the student retain the information longer. It is also important to combine these resources with good textbooks that provide a detailed explanation of the terms.
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Now that you have learned something about nutrition, think about your own diet. If you could eliminate one item from your diet to improve your health, what would it be? Explain your answer.
To improve health, eliminating added sugars is essential due to its link to various health issues. Setting goals to include 35 nutrient-dense foods per week and tracking eating habits with a food journal can help achieve a healthier diet. Being mindful of food choices every day is vital for maintaining good health.
If I were to eliminate one item from my diet to improve my health, it would be added sugars. High intake of added sugars has been linked to various health issues like obesity, type 2 diabetes, and heart disease. To tackle this, I can set a behavioral goal to read food labels more carefully to ensure I'm choosing products with low or no added sugars.
Furthermore, to reduce barriers to healthy nutrition, I could also aim to consume a variety of at least 35 nutrient-dense foods per week, including fruits, vegetables, lean proteins, and whole grains, which provide essential vitamins and minerals. Another goal could be to monitor my intake of saturated fats and use healthier cooking methods like baking instead of frying. Engaging in a three-day food journal would be beneficial in tracking my eating habits and identifying areas for improvement.
Even though lactose intolerance is found in only about 10% of current northern Europeans, researchers studying 7,000-year-old fossil remains of ancient European populations found that most were lactose intolerant. What conclusion might you draw from this evidence?
Answer:
The correct answer is - natural selection caused the rapid mutation for lactose intolerance and mutation can arise any time.
Explanation:
Lactose intolerance is found in the 10% of the northern Europeans and researchers studying fossils that are 7000 years old that shows that most of them were lactose intolerant.
According to study it can be explained that the mutation can arise for tolerance spontaneously in any population as it occur 7000 years ago. It must become prevalent due to the natural selection process.
Thus, the correct answer is - natural selection caused the rapid mutation for lactose intolerance.
Gabe fries chicken at Country Boy Restaurant. Gabe wears gloves as he preps the raw chicken in flour. Today during the lunch rush, you tell him to fill chicken orders for impatient customers. Gabe immediately begins putting cooked chicken in boxes and on plates. What are the hazards created by Gabe's actions, and what action should you take?
Answer:
Even though Gabe's hand are covered in gloves, the fact that he has touched raw chicken and then used the same gloves to touch cooked chicken will definitely lead to cross-contamination, a process of bacteria or other micro-organism transferring from one object to another.
I will immediately stop Gabe from serving the chicken, and then request the patience of the customer, as our goal is to ensure that we provide customers with the best possible meal, without any form of contamination.
Explanation:
Even though Gabe's hand are covered in gloves, the fact that he has touched raw chicken and then used the same gloves to touch cooked chicken will definitely lead to cross-contamination, a process of bacteria or other micro-organism transferring from one object to another.
I will immediately stop Gabe from serving the chicken, and then request the patience of the customer, as our goal is to ensure that we provide customers with the best possible meal, without any form of contamination.
Gabe created a cross-contamination hazard by handling cooked chicken after prepping raw chicken without changing gloves or washing hands, risking the spread of pathogens like Salmonella. Gabe should wash his hands, change gloves, clean all affected surfaces, and be instructed on proper food safety practices.
Gabe's actions have created the hazard of cross-contamination between raw and cooked food. Since he moved directly from prepping raw chicken to handling cooked chicken without changing gloves or washing his hands, he risked transferring harmful pathogens like Salmonella and Staphylococcus aureus to the cooked food, which is ready-to-eat and will not undergo further cooking to kill potential bacteria. To rectify this situation, Gabe should immediately stop handling the food, change his gloves, and thoroughly wash his hands with warm water and soap. Surfaces, utensils, and any containers that may have been contaminated should also be cleaned and sanitized. Instructing staff on appropriate food safety practices, such as maintaining separate prep areas for raw and cooked foods and using different utensils for handling these products, is crucial to prevent future incidents of cross-contamination.
A plaintiff sued a defendant and his employer for personal injuries. The plaintiff claimed that she was struck on the head by a wrench dropped by the defendant from a high scaffold, on which the defendant was working in the course of a construction project. To prove that it was the defendant who dropped the wrench, the plaintiff offers the wrench itself as evidence: The wrench bears the brand name "Craftsman" on the handle, and other evidence shows that the wrenches used by the defendant on the job are "Craftsman" brand wrenches. Is the wrench admissible?
Answer:
The Wrench is Admissible because it bears the name of the defendants used tools. The plaintiff has the right to tender the wrench because of the trademark name of "craftsman' on it.
Explanation:
Admissible; This is the concept of being accepted or valid.
The Craftsman wrench is likely admissible as evidence in the personal injury case since it may fulfill the relevance criteria, but it does not alone meet the burden of proof without additional supporting evidence.
The plaintiff in a personal injury case has introduced a Craftsman wrench as evidence to prove the defendant dropped it, causing injury. Admissibility of evidence depends on its relevance and potential for prejudice against the opposing party, among other factors. In this scenario, the wrench is likely admissible because it ties the defendant to the event (as he is known to use Craftsman brand wrenches), fulfilling relevance criteria. However, this alone may not meet the burden of proof, as it doesn't directly show that the defendant dropped it. There should be consideration of the chain of custody and other circumstantial evidence to strengthen the plaintiff's case.
Researchers in which of the following examples did not inform participants they were being injected with cancer out of fear that is would frighten the participants and out of a belief that consent was not necessary:a. Nazi Medical War Crimes
b. Tuskegee Syphilis study
c. Jewish Chronic Disease hospital study
d. Willowbrook study
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
From the mid-1950s to the mid-1960s, Southam conducted clinical research on people without their informed consent, in which he injected cancer cells (HeLa cells) into their skin, to see if their immune system would reject the cancer cells or if the cells would grow. He did this to patients under his care or others' care, and to prisoners. In 1963, doctors Avir Kagan, David Leichter and Perry Fersko of Jewish Chronic Disease Hospital objected to the lack of consent in his experiments.
The Tuskegee Syphilis Study did not inform participants they were being injected with cancer. The study observed untreated syphilis in African American men for 40 years without providing treatment.
Explanation:The Tuskegee Syphilis Study is the example where researchers did not inform participants that they were being injected with cancer. The study began in 1932 and continued for 40 years, and its purpose was to observe the natural progression of untreated syphilis in African American men. The researchers withheld information and treatment from the participants, even after penicillin became readily available to treat the disease.
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At about the age of four, children begin to realize that a person’s actions are often connected to the thoughts that he or she has. What kind of study is often used to determine when children grasp this concept?A. Intersensory redundancy studies
B. Synaptic pruning studies
C. Dynamic systems theory studies
D. False-belief studies
Answer:
False-belief studies
Explanation:
False-belief studies is used in mind studies of children where they have to infer that another individual do not have the same knowledge that they have. An example of this is showing a child a candy box containing pennies instead of candy and then asked what they expect someone else to see in the same box. At this point in children, they begin to realize that the actions of an individual are connected to their thoughts.
An epidemiologist collects drinking glasses, tissues, and bedsheets from the apartment of an individual infected with a particular disease. Which of the following modes of transmission is being investigated for this disease?
a. direct contact transmission
b. vector transmission
c. indirect contract transmission
d. vehicle transmission
Answer:c. indirect contact transmission
Explanation:
Indirect contact infections is one that is propagated when an infected person let out droplets either through sneezes or coughs, sending infectious droplets into the air or on formites.
The samples collected are for to examine the vehicles, vectors, droplets- nuclei and formites of pathogens of transmission. The above collection methods inference indirect transmission and its method of transmission is key to study the disease type.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Six-year-old Fiona has no memory of a trip she took to the hospital when she was 2 years old, yet the rest of her family recalls what happened in vivid detail. Her inability to remember this event is known as:A. infantile amnesia.
B. source amnesia.
C. regression.
D. state-dependent memory.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
she was an infinte when she went and has no memory of the incident
Answer:
A. she was an infinte when she went and has no memory of the incident
Explanation:
An athlete sprains his or her ankle during a soccer practice. If a trained individual fails to provide care for this athlete he or she can be held liable for such negligence.
a) true
b) false
Answer:
true??
Explanation:
Tyler has just been released from a drug rehabilitation center where he was treated for heroin addiction. His therapist recommended that he stay away from old drug-related associates and places where he used the drug. Studies show this is a wise recommendation. Why?
Answer:
It is because, letting him go to those places will trigger him to use.
Explanation: