Answer:
E) founder effect and genetic drift
Explanation:
Dunkers moved to Pennsylvania and inhabited a new area to develop a new population. This new population might not have the same gene pool and the same allele frequencies for all the genes as present in the original population. The change in the allele frequencies of a population due to the colonization of a new area by a few members is called the founder effect.
The small size of the new population of Dunkers present in Pennsylvania was more likely to be affected by any chance event which could have added more uniqueness to their gene pool. This is called genetic drift. Therefore, the genetic uniqueness of their population from all the other populations and from their original population might be the result of founder effect and genetic drift.
The genetic uniqueness of the Dunkers likely resulted from the founder effect, where a small number of individuals established a new population with limited genetic variation, and genetic drift, which caused random changes in allele frequencies over time.
Explanation:The genetic uniqueness of the Dunkers can likely be explained by E) the founder effect and genetic drift. The founder effect refers to the loss of genetic variation that occurs when a new population is established by a very small number of individuals from a larger population. In the case of the Dunkers, the original settlers who moved from Germany to Pennsylvania would have carried a subset of the larger German population's genetic diversity.
Over time, genetic drift, or random changes in allele frequencies, would have further altered the Dunkers' gene pool, contributing to their genetic uniqueness. Because the Dunkers do not marry outside their own immediate community, this would have limited the introduction of new genetic variations into their gene pool, enhancing the effects of genetic drift and the founder effect.
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Stressed the development of physical fitness and sport skills as the primary objectives of physical education A. Jay Nash B. Charles McCloy
Answer:
Option C , Charles McCloy
Explanation:
Complete question is as follows -
Stressed the development of physical fitness and sport skills as the primary objectives of physical education A Luther Gulick B Jay Nash C Charles McCloy D Jesse Williams
Solution
McCloy was a prominent professor of physical education. Throughout his career, he emphasized the importance of resistance training. He believed that the main objective of physical education is to not to build body but to learn the skills of any sport and to maintain personal health &fitness.
He himself was very peculiar about purposive exercise rather than focusing on competitive sports or exercises like all other physical educators. He analyzed all sports scientifically by conducting tests and measurements. Due to this, he once criticized the weight lifting sports saying that it will make a sportsmen slow and inflexible.
Hence, option C is correct
The plates of the lithosphere move (or float) on this hot, malleable __________ _________ zone in the upper mantle, directly underneath the lithosphere. This is known as the _______________________.
Answer:
the plates of the lithosphere move (or float) on this hot, malleable semi liquid zone in the upper mantle, directly underneath the lithosphere
Explanation:
Lithosphere is the outermost layer of earth surface which contains crust and uppermost solid mantle. Tectonic plates are subdivision of lithosphere where tectonic activities take place. Tectonic activities often occur in Lithosphere which affects the structure of this layer by changing the landscape on earth surface. The Lithosphere is the layer where soil forming process takes place. The lithosphere influences temperature difference on earth when it reacts with the other layers called atmosphere, hydrosphere and cryosphere.The lithosphere plates move on the asthenosphere in the upper mantle, a process known as plate tectonics. The movement is facilitated by slow convection of the mantle. When plates come together, one plate is subducted beneath another, a process occurring in subduction zones.
Explanation:The plates of the lithosphere move (or float) on the hot, malleable asthenosphere zone in the upper mantle, directly underneath the lithosphere. This is known as plate tectonics.
Earth's crust and upper mantle are divided into about a dozen tectonic plates that fit together like the pieces of a jigsaw puzzle. The power to move the plates is provided by slow convection of the mantle, a process by which heat escapes from the interior through the upward flow of warmer material and the slow sinking of cooler material.
As new crust is added to Earth, the old crust must go somewhere. When two plates come together, one plate is often forced beneath another in what is called a subduction zone. The subducted plate is forced down into regions of high pressure and temperature, eventually melting several hundred kilometers below the surface. Its material is recycled into a downward-flowing convection current, ultimately balancing the flow of material that rises along rift zones.
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how can a calendar year help us to understand the magnitude of geologic time
Answer:
The civil year allows us to have an idea of how long our planet has existed.
Explanation:
Calendar year is the 12-month period that corresponds to 365 days of the year, counting from 1 January to 31 December. Geological time, in turn, refers to the didactic organization of the evolution of planet Earth and the forms of life that inhabit or inhabited it. It is an instrument used by Earth's geologists and scientists to analyze and chronologically categorize (through the concept of a civil year) the natural evolution of the world in which we live, in order to better understand its past.
The civil year allows geological time to expose the number of years and days that planet Earth (and its forms of life) are in existence.
Answer:
All above
Explanation:
A gene is composed of two alleles. An allele can be either dominant or recessive. Suppose that a husband and wife, who are both carriers of the sickle-cell anemia allele but do not have the disease, decide to have a child. Because both parents are carriers of the dise ase, each has one dominant normal-cell allele (S) and one recessive sickle-cell allele (s). Therefore, the genotype of each es one allele to his or her offspring with each allele being equally likely Complete parts a) through c) below a) Genes are always written with the dominant gene first. Therefore, there are two instances the offspring could have genotype (one if the mother contributes the dominant allele and the father contributes the non-dominant allele, and one if the father contributes the dominant allele and the mother contributes the non-dominant allele) List the other two possible genotypes of the offspring b) What is the probability that the offspring will have sickle-cell anemia? In other words, what is the probability that the offspring will have genotype ss? Interpret this probability The probability is 1/4. This means that there is a 25% chance that a randomly selected offspring will have sickle-cell anemia c) What is the probability that the offspring will not have sickle-cell anemia but will be a carrier (one normal-cell allele and one sickle-cell allele)? Interpret this probability The probability is _____. This means there is a _____ % chance that a randomly selected offspring will be a carrier, but will not have sickle-cell anemia.
Answer: If a husband and wife who are both carriers of the sickle-cell anemia allele (Ss) but do not have the disease decide to have a child, the offspring can be Normal (SS), carrier (Ss) or sick (ss) with the probability ¼, 2/4 (½) and ¼ respectively.
Explanation: If the mother contributes the dominant allele and the father also contributes the dominant allele, the genotype of the child will be SS. The probability is ¼. This means there is a 25% chance that a randomly selected offspring will be a normal child and will not have sickle-cell anemia.
If the mother contributes the dominant allele and the father contributes the recessive allele, the genotype of the child will be Ss. The probability is 2/4 or ½. This means there is a 50% chance that a randomly selected offspring will be a carrier of sickle cell anemia, but will not have sickle-cell anemia.
If the mother contributes the recessive allele and the father also contributes the recessive allele, the genotype of the child will be ss. The probability is ¼. This means there is a 25% chance that a randomly selected offspring will have sickle cell anemia.
Check attached image for illustrations.
When selecting among multiple possible phylogenetic trees that fit our data, we commonly use the principle of _____, which means we choose the _____ possible hypothesis. In phylogenetic analysis, that means selecting the tree that represents the _____ evolutionary changes or mutations.
a. parsimony; simplest; fewest
b. parsimony; simplest; most
c. parsimony; most; likely
d. phylogenetics; simplest; fewest
e. phylogenetics; simplest; most
a. parsimony; simplest; fewest
When selecting among multiple possible phylogenetic trees that fit our data, we commonly use the principle of parsimony, which means we choose the simplest possible hypothesis. In phylogenetic analysis, that means selecting the tree that represents the fewest evolutionary changes or mutations.
Explanation:
Phylogeny describes the evolutionary history of on organism or group of organisms.
A phylogenetic tree structure is used to describe the relationship between various organisms which have originated from common ancestors.
The Principle of Parsimony is best applied while constructing phylogenetic tree.
This principle emphasizes on simple observations on a phylogeny which requires only few changes or variations which explain for the difference between the phylogenic sequences.
This tree structure will only have few specific genetic variations or mutations or evolutionary changes which took place through new appearance of a trait or disappearance of an existing trait.
Final answer:
In phylogenetic analysis, the principle of maximum parsimony is used to choose the simplest hypothesis, which is the tree with the fewest evolutionary changes. parsimony; simplest; fewest is correct. This approach assumes evolutionary events occurred most straightforwardly. So the correct option is a.
Explanation:
When selecting from multiple possible phylogenetic trees that fit our data, the principle commonly used is maximum parsimony. This means we choose the simplest possible hypothesis. In phylogenetic analysis, this translates to selecting the tree that represents the fewest evolutionary changes or mutations. Therefore, the correct answer is a. parsimony; simplest; fewest.
Maximum parsimony is a concept used by scientists to construct phylogenetic trees in a way that the evolutionary events are assumed to have occurred in the most straightforward manner possible. This often results in a phylogenetic tree that exhibits the fewest number of character reversals, independent character changes, and overall character changes.
In angiosperms, the _______________ are the specialized reproductive organs whose main function is to bring together the sperm and egg.
Answer:
Flowers
Explanation:
Angiosperms are plants that have flowers as their specialized reproductive organs. The flowers will give rise to seeds enclosed within an ovary.
The main reproductive parts are the stamen and pistil.
The stamen is the male part and it is made up of the anthers which produces pollen and the filament that holds the anthers in position.
The pistil on the other hand is the female reproductive part composed of ovary stigma and style.
The in the ovary is where the ovules are produced.
Answer:
Flowers
Explanation:
The flowers functions to ensure pollination by bringing together the sperm and egg. They also confer protection to the ovule and developing embryo inside a receptacle and protect the developing seedling.
Biological control methods for managing insect pests are effective for reasons that include which of the following? They promote genetic resistance in the target species, resulting in a population explosion of the target species. They generally focus on one target insect to ensure that the target insect population remains low. They can lead to a self-perpetuating population of a control species.
Answer:
Option B, They generally focus on one target insect to ensure that the target insect population remains low.
Explanation:
Biological pest control methodologies are focused towards a specific species of pest and do not harm the non-targeted species. These methods are environment friendly and do not produce any harmful residues. Also they do not develop any kind of resistance in species due to which the same bio pesticide can be used again and again. Since these methods have high specificity, they may require usage of two or more bio pesticides all together.
Hence, option B is correct
Biological pests control focuses on one target insect, ensures to reduce their population remain low.
Biological Pest Control:
It is a method of controlling pests such as aphids, mites, and other insects by using other organisms especially predators or parasites of pests.
It specifically targets the organism.Do not affect the environment.Example: Release of parasitic wasps to control aphids.
So we can conclude that Biological pests control focuses on one target insect and ensure to reduce their population.
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In the city of Birthville, an elderly midwife who has been working at the community center for several years noticed that there were no deliveries in the month of May in a particular year. In her discussion with the matron of the clinic, she said, "There were no deliveries in May of that year." In scientific process, her response can be classified as:_________-
Deductive reasoning plays an essential role in attaining a valid conclusion during a scientific process. It is considered a fundamental form of valid reasoning.
The correct answer is deductive reasoning in the given case as the elderly midwife has no deliveries this year.
Deductive reasoning-
Deductive reasoning is the process of reasoning from one or more statements (premises) to succeed in a logical conclusion.
Deductive reasoning goes within the same direction as that of the conditionals and links premises with conclusions. In deductive reasoning, there is no uncertainty.
The Deduction begins with a hypothesis or a usual statement that helps in finding the possible ways to attain a particular and valid conclusion.
Deductive reasoning is used in examining hypotheses and theories in a scientific method. Deductive reasoning generally follows certain steps before reaching an eventual inference.
It plays an essential part in the process of making decisions. In arguments and decision-making, it's used as a base to supply factual proof.
Thus, in the given case, the response of the midwife can be classified as deductive reasoning.
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Final answer:
The midwife's comment on the absence of deliveries in May can be seen as anecdotal evidence, hinting at possible cultural, social, or environmental influences on birthing practices in Birthville. It reflects the diverse nature of childbirth methods globally and the role of midwives in different societies.
Explanation:
The elderly midwife's observation that there were no deliveries in May of that year can be classified as an anecdotal evidence in the scientific process. Such an observation is the beginning point for identifying trends and potential patterns within the community's birthing practices. Given the variety of childbirth methods around the world, this absence of births could be influenced by cultural, social, or even environmental factors at play in Birthville.
Different societies handle childbirth in diverse ways. For instance, in the United States, childbirth is typically a medicalized process, with expectant mothers giving birth in hospitals under the care of medical professionals. However, in other cultures, such as agricultural societies or foraging communities, childbirth may take place at home or in a more natural setting with the assistance of midwives.
The midwife in this scenario may be noting a trend that could be worth investigating further, reflecting the impact of cultural beliefs, economic conditions, or public health policies on the patterns of childbirth within the community.
Peter has occasional episodes of seizures. Dr. Lovell has affixed electrodes to Peter's scalp, which will record the electrical activity within Peter's brain and identify the neurological problem for the seizures. Which of the following techniques is Dr. Lovell using to assess Peter?a. Positron emission tomography b. Electrocardiography c. Functional magnetic resonance imaging d. Electroencephalography
Answer:
D) Electroencephalography
Explanation:
A seizure refers to a change in the behaviour and physical activities of the humans caused by the uncontrolled abnormal activities in the neurons of the brain.
The technique used to record the visual activity in the neurons as a result of the seizures is called Electroencephalography or EEG.
To perform the technique, the electrodes are placed on the scalp and the face and then the change in the electric potential is recorded. This helps analyse that which area of the brain are active and which are not.
Thus, Option-D is the correct answer.
Consider the Keeling curve, which shows a steady increase in CO₂ levels over the past 50+ years. This steady rise has been attributed to both natural and human activity. Imagine if everyone in the world planted a fast-growing vine that was an annual (i.e., it grows large and fast, but dies after one year). Predict the effect this would hypothetically have on the level of CO₂ in the atmosphere over the next 20 years.
a. The level of CO₂ in the atmosphere will stay the same because the growing annuals will remove the extra CO₂ from human activity.
b. The level of CO₂ in the atmosphere will steadily decrease because of increased rates of photosynthesis.
c. The level of CO₂ in the atmosphere will steadily increase because decomposition of the annuals simply returns the CO₂ back into the atmosphere.
Answer:
b. The level of CO₂ in the atmosphere will steadily decrease because of increased rates of photosynthesis.
Explanation:
Because each person would plant a considerable amount of plant material atmospheric carbon dioxide would decrease because through the process of photosynthesis of these plants Co2 is consumed and transformed into glucose and oxygen.
The level of CO2 in the atmosphere will steadily increase due to decomposition of the fast-growing annual plants, releasing CO2 back into the atmosphere. Hence the correct option is C.
The level of CO2 in the atmosphere will steadily increase because decomposition of the annuals simply returns the CO2 back into the atmosphere.The increased growth of fast-growing vines, being annual plants, will lead to their death after one year. Upon decomposition, the CO2 stored in the plants will be released back into the atmosphere, contributing to an overall rise in CO2 levels. This scenario aligns with the natural carbon cycle where plant decomposition leads to the release of carbon dioxide back into the atmosphere, contributing to the greenhouse effect and climate change.
A phylogenetic tree constructed using sequence differences in mitochondrial DNA would be most valid for discerning the evolutionary relatedness of _____
A phylogenetic tree constructed using mitochondrial DNA sequence differences is most valid for discerning the evolutionary relatedness of closely related species or over short evolutionary timescales. This is due to the rapid mutation rate of mtDNA and its unbroken maternal lineage.
Explanation:A phylogenetic tree constructed using sequence differences in mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) would be most valid for discerning the evolutionary relatedness of organisms over relatively short evolutionary timescales or within closely related species. Mitochondrial DNA mutates more rapidly than nuclear DNA, thus accruing detectable changes in relatively short evolutionary timescales.
Molecular phylogeny relies on the principle that the more similar the DNA sequences in two organisms, the more closely related they are. For determining the relationships among closely related species, rapidly evolving sequences such as mtDNA can be useful.
Mitochondrial DNA is maternally inherited with no recombination, therefore, it offers a clear lineage tracing back to an organism's maternal ancestry. This lineage can give a clear depiction of evolutionary relatedness among species depicted on a phylogenetic tree.
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Final answer:
A phylogenetic tree using mitochondrial DNA differences is most valid for studying the evolutionary relationship between B. chimpanzees and humans, as they are closely related species within the domain Eukarya. This method highlights their recent common ancestry and significant genetic similarity, distinguishing them from the other pairs of organisms listed.
Explanation:
A phylogenetic tree constructed using sequence differences in mitochondrial DNA would be most valid for discerning the evolutionary relatedness of chimpanzees and humans. Mitochondrial DNA is maternally inherited and mutates at a relatively constant rate, making it a useful tool for studying evolutionary relationships among closely related species. In the case of chimpanzees and humans, mitochondrial DNA analysis would provide insights into their recent common ancestry, demonstrating their high genetic similarity and the minor genetic changes that have led to their morphological differences.
Both chimpanzees and humans belong to the domain Eukarya and are closely related within the animal kingdom. A phylogenetic tree based on mitochondrial DNA would clearly illustrate their close evolutionary relationship, as opposed to the relationships between the other options provided, such as archaeans and bacteria, sharks and dolphins, and fungi and animals, which are more distantly related and would not show as clear of a resolution with mitochondrial DNA analysis.
Furthermore, mitochondrial DNA analysis supports the idea that these Eukaryotic organisms share a more recent common ancestor with Archaea than with Bacteria. Such analyses provide a more accurate depiction of evolutionary relationships because they are not confounded by convergent evolution, which can lead to analogous structures in distantly related lineages. Phylogenetic trees based on molecular data, such as mitochondrial DNA, enhance our understanding of the evolutionary history of living organisms.
The dosage of a certain drug is reduced when administered to a pregnant woman with liver impairment. What is the other clinical situation that requires reduction in the dose of the drug during pregnancy?
Answer:
renal impairment
Explanation:
It is the imability of the kidneys to excrete waste and balance fluids.
Defective renal function could result in a high amount of drug levels. It might also increase the drug disclosure to the tissues and lead to a high level of drug distribution to the fetus. Epilepsy, diabetes, and hypertension do not have a straight effect on drug metabolism and excretion. However, they have ancillary impact in later phases when liver and kidneys are affected secondarily.
Answer: RENAL IMPAIRMENTS
Explanation: RENAL IMPAIRMENTS is a term used to describe the inability of the Renal System (Kidneys) to effectively carry out it's activities. When a pregnant woman has Renal impairments,it is Generally expected that the level or amount of drugs dose issues to her be reduced to a manageable quantity.
The kidneys are directly responsible for the FILTRATION of the urines and Blood,so if high quantity of drugs are present it might not be able to effectively perform it tasks. Epilepsy, Hypertension and diabetes have late stage renal impairments.
A population of Drosophila mauritiana reproduces in synchrony at discrete time periods every generation, and generations occur at two-week intervals. The current population size is 1,000, and its geometric population growth rate is 3.0 per generation. What will the expected size of the population be after six weeks?
Answer:
3000
Explanation:
1000 in every two weeks for 6 weeks is 3000
A population of Drosophila mauritiana reproduces in synchrony at discrete time periods every generation. The expected size of the population after six weeks is 27,000.
What is the population?The term “population” refers to all citizens who are either permanently residing in a country or who are just passing through. This indicator reveals how many people typically reside in a certain area.
Growth rates are the population changes that occur each year as a result of births, deaths, and net migration. Any whole group that shares at least one trait is referred to be a population.
People do not make up all populations. Populations can include but are not limited to, individuals, animals, organizations, structures, buildings, cars, farms, objects, or occasions.
No = 1000 Growth rate r = 3.0 per generation
1000 every two weeks for 6 weeks is 27,000
Therefore, the expected size of the population after six weeks is 27,000.
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In humans, random mating is most likely to occur for which of the following characteristics? Select one:B. personality C. physical appearance D. intelligence E. athleticism
Intelligence is most likely to be the criteria for random mating in humans.
Explanation:
If random mating is taking place on the conditions that no evolution is taking place the genetic pool will be maintained through generations.
Random mating will be based on intelligence in humans because this is the trait which gets exhibited only when showcased otherwise remains hidden while other characters like personality, appearance and athleticism are phenotypically expressed character.
Random mating is not under the influence of genotype. Intelligence is a trait which needs to be more in human as random mating takes genotype frequency in consideration.
Spadefoot Toads can develop into 2 different morphs, one is carnivorous, and the other omnivorous. In ordered to develop into the carnivorous morph, the jaw develops at a faster growth rate than the rest of the body; this is an example of:
Answer: Allometry
Explanation:
Allometry explains how the body parts grow at different rates such that the jaw of the spadefoot toads develop it's jaw at a rapid rate than other body parts.
Thus, the differential growth rate shown in the carnivorous morph is to aid feeding and hence survival.
gas exchange in cells is an example of
a.) infusion
b.)diffusion
c.)mitosis
Answer:
b.) diffusion
Explanation:
Gas exchange is occur through the diffusion across the surface.
Diffusion:
It is a process in which gas exchange is occur through the concentration gradient. Gas molecules are moves from region of high concentration to the region of lower concentration.
Example:
In blood the concentration of oxygen is low and carbon dioxide is high while the air in lungs is high in oxygen concentration and low in carbon dioxide concentration. This concentration gradient leads to the exchange of gases in respiration. During respiration oxygen gas is intake while carbon dioxide is released.
What structural characteristics common to Gram-negative bacteria may trigger the acute inflammatory response?
Answer:
External polysaccharides and Lipid A of Gram-negative bacteria may trigger the acute inflammatory response.
Explanation:
Lipid A is an endotoxin lipid component responsible for the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. Its the last internal region among the three regions of the lipopolysaccharide (LPS) which is also called as endotoxin molecule. Its hydrophobic nature helps it to attach the LPS to the outer membrane. Moreover, lipid A anchor, a polysaccharide core attached with a chains of carbohydrates.
Mendel wanted to find out if the pattern of inheritance for one trait affected
the pattern of inheritance for another. What experiment did he perform to test
this idea?
O
A. He tested non-dominant traits.
O
B. He performed dihybrid crosses.
O
C. He made an F3 generation.
O
D. He tested one trait at a time.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Mendel performed dihybrid crosses to investigate whether the pattern of inheritance for one trait influenced another. Therefore option B is correct.
In a dihybrid cross, he simultaneously studied the inheritance of two different traits by crossing individuals that were heterozygous for both traits.
This allowed him to observe the inheritance patterns of multiple traits in a single experiment, enabling him to analyze whether these patterns were linked or independent.
By studying the inheritance of traits that were located on separate chromosomes, Mendel provided crucial insights into the principles of independent assortment, demonstrating that the inheritance of one trait does not significantly affect the inheritance of another.
Thereby contributing to the foundation of modern genetics.
Therefore option B is correct.
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A student has placed rabbit cells in a solution containing dissolved oxygen, glucose, calcium ions, water, and sodium ions. Which of these molecules do you expect will easily enter into the student's rabbit cells (via simple diffusion)?
A. calcium ions
B. glucose
C. sodium ions
D. oxygen
E. water
Answer:
The correct answer is D. oxygen
Explanation:
The plasma membrane is selectively permeable which means it allows the selective molecule to pass through it. The charged molecule is passed mainly through active transport.
Water molecules pass through a type of passive diffusion called osmosis. Gases like oxygen and carbon dioxide move through simple diffusion. When oxygen moves in the cell carbon dioxide moves out of the cell. In diffusion, the molecule moves down their concentration gradient so no energy is needed in it. So the correct answer is D.
Several experiments were required to demonstrate how traits are inherited. Which scientist or team of scientists first demonstrated that cells contain some components that can be transferred to a new population of cells and permanently cause changes in the new cells?
a. Griffith
b. Watson and Crick
c. Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty
d.Hershey and Chase
Answer:
a. Griffith
Explanation:
Frederick Griffith used two strains of the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae. The S strains were pathogenic while the R strains were nonpathogenic. He added the heat-killed virulent bacteria to the live nonvirulent strain and infected mice with it. He showed that the mice developed the disease and were killed. He concluded that a substance from the heat-killed S strains transformed the live R strains into the virulent form that killed mice. However, he could not identify the substance responsible for the process of transformation.
GTPases serve in many signal transduction pathways and the presence of GTP or GDP dictates where the pathway is on or off, respectively. Which of the following statements is true regarding guanine nucleotide exchange factors (GEF) and the role in these signaling pathways?
a. They hydrolyze GTP into GDP and Pi.
b. They decrease the GTPase activity of the G-protein.
c. They catalyze the dissociation of GDP on the G-protein and promote the replacement of GTP.
d. none of the above
Answer:
None of the above.
Explanation:
GTPases are the regulatory proteins that are involved in the signal transduction pathway involving the activation of the G protein. The mutation in these proteins cal lead to cancer cells.
The guanine nucleotide exchange factors (GEF) allows the replacement of GDP by GTP. They activates the GTPase activity of the cell and can also activate the multiple GTPase activity of the cell. The Ras superfamily is activated by the GEF.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Cystic fibrosis is often considered an autosomal recessive disorder, however, on a molecular level, it is actually codominant. Carriers of cystic fibrosis who are heterozygous for the disease produce both normal and defective CFTR proteins. Carriers do not exhibit symptoms of the disease because enough normal protein is created to prevent a build-up of mucus. Which combinations of parents below have a possibility of having a child who is homozygous for cystic fibrosis? Select all that apply. A mother is CC and father is CC' B mother is CC' and father is CC' C mother is C'C' and father is CC D mother is CC and father is CC E mother is CC' and father is C'C' F mother is C'C' and father is C'C'
The statement B, E and F is correct in case of cystic fibrosis.
What is cystic fibrosis?
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic condition. It's caused by a faulty gene that affects the movement of salt and water in and out of cells. This, along with recurrent infections, can result in a build-up of thick, sticky mucus in the body's tubes and passageways – particularly the lungs and digestive system.
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a disease that is passed down through families. It is caused by a defective gene that makes the body produce abnormally thick and sticky fluid, called mucus. This mucus builds up in the breathing passages of the lungs and in the pancreas.
There's currently no cure for cystic fibrosis, but a number of treatments are available to help control the symptoms, prevent complications, and make the condition easier to live with. Possible treatments include: antibiotics to prevent and treat chest infections.
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_____ is used to detect neural tube defects such as spina bifida and certain chromosomal abnormalities.
Answer: Alpha Feroprotein Assay
Explanation:
Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is used to detect neural tube defects in a developing child. Alpha fero-protein is produced in the liver of a developing fetus. During a baby's development, some AFP passes through the placenta and into the mother's blood. An AFP test measures the level of AFP in pregnant women during the second trimester of pregnancy. Too much or too little AFP in a mother's blood may be sign of a birth defect or other condition, which include, neural tube defect, a serious condition that causes abnormal development of a developing baby's brain and/or spine
While conducting research with a small population in South America you note that an overwhelming majority of individuals exhibit signs of a specific genetic abnormality. This is most likely the result of:__________.
Answer:
Founder effect
Explanation:
Foundation effect occurs when a small group of people from large population establishes a new colony causing the reduction of genetic variation. In the consquences, they may emphasize certain genes and phenotype or deemphasized them.
Example; There are higher cases of fumarase defeciency in population of member of fundamentalist church because of the practice of marying within the relegion.
The widespread genetic abnormality in a small population could be attributed to genetic drift or the founder effect. Both cause changes in allele frequency, but the founder effect specifically involves isolation and differing gene frequencies.
Explanation:The presence of a specific genetic abnormality in a high proportion of a small population could most likely be the result of genetic drift or the founder effect. Genetic drift is a mechanism of evolution that can cause random changes in the frequency of alleles in a population. On the other hand, the founder effect occurs when a small number of individuals become geographically isolated from the main population and they possess different gene frequencies than the main population. If one of these individuals carry a specific genetic abnormality, it may become prevalent in this sub-population.
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What protein (purine)-rich food should be limited to prevent a reoccurrence of uric acid kidney stones?
Answer:
Animal proteins such as egg, red meat, sea foods etc
Explanation:
Foods rich in animal proteins generally boost the level of uric acid in the body and make individuals to be more prone to uric acid kidney stones.
High protein level in the body as a result of high protein diets also increase the chances of uric kidney stones because this reduces the citrate level in the body. Citrate prevents the formation of stone by limiting the amount of uric acid in urine.
Hence, limiting the intake of animal protein-rich foods such as egg, red meat, etc., will prevent the reoccurrence of uric acid kidney stones.
In a healthy female, how many secondary oocytes would be expected to form from 100 primary oocytes?b) How many first polar bodies would be expected from 100 primary oocytes?
Answer:100; 100
Explanation: OOCYTES are immature eggs produced form the female reproductive organ during gametogenesis. During Gametogenesis the Germ cell of a female produces the oogonia the oogonia matures to primary OOCYTES through Mitosis.
In the female reproductive organ 100 secondary oocytes will be expected to produce 100 primary oocytes while 100 primary oocytes will be needed to produce 100 polar bodies.
Polar bodies are haploid cells which are formed together with the oocytes during Oogenesis.
Which of the following describes why highland regions are colder than the surrounding regions? A.Highland areas are far from large bodies of water. B.Temperature decreases with altitude. C.Highland regions are found in higher latitudes. D. Ocean currents stabilize the climate in highland regions.
Answer:
Which of the following describes why highland regions are colder than the surrounding regions?
Temperature decreases with altitude
Explanation:
It is a known fact that has been proven by scientist over time that the higher the altitude the lesser the temperature. This best explains why mountains record lower temperature than lowland
Answer:
B. Temperature decreases with altitude.
Explanation:
I just took the test!
In snail shells the direction of shell coiling is controlled by a maternal effect gene. Two alleles, a dominant one, D, causes dextral (right handed) coiling, and a recessive one, d, causing sinistral (left hand) coiling.
Given three different female snails of genotypes DD, Dd, and dd, crossed with dd males.
What are the phenotypes of the offspring of each
DD females:
Dd females:
dd females:
What are the phenotypes of these females. Explain, based on the probable parental (both maternal and paternal for each female. (Hint: you may not be able to give definitive answers for each. If so explain why in terms of the possible parents.)
DD female:
Dd female:
dd female:
Answer:
The answer is explained below:
Explanation:
A maternal effect gene is the one which shows the same phenotype as that of the mother irrespective of the phenotype of the father.According to the question, D is the dominant alelle, and show right-handed coil phenotype.d is the recessive alelle, and show left-handed coil phenotype.As we do not know the phenotypes of the mothers of the DD, Dd, or dd females or the dd male taken to be crossed with each other, let us consider that the DD, Dd and dd female show a right hand coil phenotype and the dd male show a left hand coil phenotype.When DD female (right hand coil phenotype) is crossed with dd males (left hand coil phenotype),D D
d Dd Dd
(R) (R)
d Dd Dd
(R) (R)
All the offspring will have the Dd genotype with the (R), that is, right-hand coil phenotype.When Dd female (right hand coil phenotype) is crossed with dd males (left hand coil phenotype),D d
d Dd dd
(R) (R)
d Dd dd
(R) (R)
The genotypic ratio is, Dd : dd = 1 : 1.All the offspring have the dominant right hand coil phenotype, represented by (R), as this is a maternal effect gene and the phenotype of the mother is shown in all its offspring irrespective of their genotype.When dd female (right hand coil phenotype) is crossed with dd males (left hand coil phenotype),d d
d dd dd
(R) (R)
d dd dd
(R) (R)
All the offspring will have the dd genotype.All the offspring have the dominant right hand coil phenotype, represented by (R), as this is a maternal effect gene and the phenotype of the mother is shown in all its offspring irrespective of their genotype.Offspring phenotype is determined by the female snail's genotype due to the maternal effect gene; DD and Dd females produce dextral-coiled offspring, while dd females produce sinistral-coiled offspring when crossed with dd males.
In snail shells, the coiling direction is influenced by a maternal effect gene with two alleles: a dominant allele D for dextral (right-handed) coiling and a recessive allele d for sinistral (left-handed) coiling. Since it's a maternal effect gene, the offspring's phenotype will be determined by the mother's genotype regardless of the offspring's genotype. When different female snails are crossed with dd males, the offspring’s phenotypes depend solely on the maternal genotype.
DD females: All offspring will show dextral coiling, because the dominant allele D from the mother determines the phenotype.
Dd females: All offspring will also show dextral coiling, similar to DD mothers, since D is dominant and dictates the phenotype over d.
dd females: All offspring will show sinistral coiling, because the mother's genotype is homozygous recessive.
Regarding the phenotypes of the females themselves:
DD female: Dextral coiling phenotype, but without knowing her parents' genotypes, we can't say for certain if she is a product of DD x DD, DD x Dd, or DD x dd (with a homozygous dominant mother).
Dd female: Dextral coiling phenotype, which could result from a cross of Dd x dd or Dd x Dd, with at least one dextral parent.
dd female: Sinistral coiling phenotype, clearly indicating a dd x dd parental cross.
Therefore, the offspring's phenotype will be dextral when crossing DD or Dd females with dd males, and sinistral when crossing dd females with dd males.
How would you explain the development of motor skills as well as sensory and perceptual development?
Answer:
Motor skill develop through the interaction of body system specifically sensory, perception and biochemical systems
Meredith’s baby is 2 weeks overdue. What is a potential hazard that the baby can experience because it is postmature?
Answer: Brain damage because of the inadequate blood supply from placenta.
Explanation:
The phase of post mature can be dangerous for the child. In this case there are chances that the baby might not get the adequate amount of blood from the placenta to the fetus.
The child might feel hypoxia inside the womb because the main source of oxygen is the placental blood. There can be lack of nutrients as well due to this reason.