The developing fetus receives nutrient rich blood through the

Answers

Answer 1
Umbilical cord. The umbilical cord attaches the fetus to the placenta. The cord contains blood vessels that bring nutrients to the developing fetus.
Answer 2

Answer:

The Umblical vein(cord).

Explanation:

It carries oxygenated, nutrient-rich blood from the placenta to the fetus.


Related Questions

Scientific investigation of the exact effects of environmental steroids on humans is extremely difficult since there are multiple sources of hormones in the environment. Avalid study would require a control group that has not been exposed to the chemicals being studied. Since everyone has had some exposure to environmental hormones, no control group is available to use as a reference Another way to assess the environmental hazard due to storoid hormones is to analyze the amount of residual hormones present following commercial water treatment by water treatment plants Which situation would make researchers suspect that there was an excess of steroid hormones in the environment? 1. An increase in bone fractures in seniors in the area 2. Premature puberty in girls in the area 3. An increase in mutation role in amphibians in the area 4. An increase in foot fungal infections

Answers

Answer is option "2"

Explanation:

Steroid hormones are a gathering of hormones, got from cholesterol, from the class of mixes known as steroids. They are emitted by the adrenal cortex, testicles and ovaries, and by the placenta during pregnancy. Based on their receptors, steroid hormones have been ordered into five gatherings: glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids, androgens, oestrogens and progestogens.  Puberty is the point at which young ladies' bodies and psyches develop and they develop into young ladies. This typically begins when a young lady is around 10 years of age. Some of the time, however, an a lot more youthful young lady begins to give the indications of puberty. This is called intelligent (pre-KOH-shuss), or early adolescence (PU-ber-ty).Hence the right answer is option 2 Premature puberty in girls in the area".

An acute non-contagious respiratory tract infection that produces severe pneumonia-like symptoms caused by bacteria that thrive in warm aquatic environments and are inhaled through contaminated aerosolized water droplets is known as:_______.

Answers

Answer: Legionnaires' disease

Explanation:

Legionnaires' disease is a kind of pneumonia that is caused by the bacteria.The bacterial infection spreads by breathing the aerosol or mist from the water. The bacteria does not spread from person to person thus the disease is non-contagious.

The bacteria of the disease lives in the aquatic environment and may contaminate the water body. The symptoms of the disease includes the chills, coughs, high fever, headaches and muscle aches. X-ray and lab test can be done to diagnose the disease.

Answer: Legionella infection.

Explanation:

Legionnaires disease doesn't spread from one person to another person. They spread by the help of mist such as air conditioning units in large buildings.

The adults who are greater than the age of 50 and have addiction of tobacco is more prone to this disease because they have weaker immunity.

The common symptoms of this disease is also same like common flu, fever, chills , diarrhea, headache et cetera.

Gland that secretes through ducts to the surface of an organ or tissue or into a vessel is called

Answers

Answer: Exocrine glands.

Explanation:

The gland can be defined as the group of cells in an animal's body which synthesizes hormones and releases its secretion directly into the bloodstream or inside the cavities or directly on the outer surface of the body.

The gland that secrete the secretions directly on the skin or outer surface is known as exocrine gland.

The secretions can be from sweat from sweat glands, goblet cells, salivary gland and tear gland are some of the example of exocrine gland.

Final answer:

An exocrine gland is a type of gland that secretes substances through ducts either to the surface of an organ or tissue, or into a vessel. These glands include sweat glands, salivary glands, and the pancreas.

Explanation:

A gland that secretes through ducts to the surface of an organ or tissue, or into a vessel, is referred to as an exocrine gland. These glands produce substances such as sweat, saliva, and digestive enzymes. There is a wide array of exocrine glands in the human body, including sweat glands, salivary glands, and the pancreas. Each of these glands carries out its function by secretions which pass through ducts to their targets. These are different from endocrine glands, which release hormones directly into the bloodstream.

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Which hormone, synthesized by the anterior pituitary gland, causes the body to manufacture an abundance of muscle tissue?
a. Growth hormone
b. Prolactin
c. Thyroxin
d. Follicle-stimulating hormone
e. Adrenocorticotropic hormone

Answers

Answer:

I believe the answer is A...I'm not completely sure but I tried my best to think.

Answer:

a

because that makes the most sense and hormones

Almost half the birds in the yard were brown cardinals and the rest were bright red cardinals, so Jimmy perceived them as two distinct groups of birds. This best illustrates the principle of:__________.1. Connectedness2. Similarity3. Closure4. Relative clarity

Answers

Answer: Similarity

Explanation:

The similarity among the individuals can be defined as the principle in which the organism or object are separated based on criteria.

The criteria can be color, feature, similar process, et cetera. Here, the birds are separated based on the character of similarity on cardinal.

The similarity here is in the cardinal color of the bird. One of the cardinal color of birds is red and the other one is brown.

What is not a function of the respiratory system?

Answers

Answer:

Any Function that has nothing to do with gas exchange, acid-base balance, phonation, pulmonary defense and metabolism.

Explanation:

Chronic fatigue syndrome results from repeated motions performed in the course of normal work and daily activities. a. True b. False

Answers

Answer:

False

Explanation:

Chronic fatigue syndrome refers to the condition of continuous or long term tiredness which is not corrected with the sleep.  

There are many causes of such type of tiredness but the exact cause of the fatigue is not known as this symptom is common to many disorders. The main causes of chronic fatigue are the weak immune system, pathogens and the stress which is increasing with modernisation.

Since there are many causes of the fatigue syndrome therefore only repeated daily activities is not the only option and thus is false.

Thus, false is correct.

The belief that children's immune systems need to be exposed to viruses and bacteria in order to strengthen them, but that children are overprotected from this exposure, is called the __________.

Answers

Answer:

hygiene hypothesis

Explanation:

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Many tropical zooplankton have elaborate spines. These have been interpreted as either a defense against predation or a means to increase drag and prevent sinking. How would you determine which was the likely reason for these structures

Answers

Answer:

Means to increase drag and prevent sinking is the correct answer.

Explanation:

Plankton avoid sinking by increasing their surface area and decreasing their density. Spines slow down sinking by adding surface area without increasing density. Defense against predation would be to sing below. Not the opposite.

A bacterial cell is suddenly expelled from a warm human intestine into the cold world outside. Which one of the following adjustments might the cell make to maintain the same level of membrane fluidity that the cell had in the intestine?a. increase the length of the hydrocarbon tails in its membrane phospholipids.
b. increase the proportion of unsaturated hydrocarbon tails in its membrane phospholipids.
c. increase the proportion of hydrocarbon tails with no double bonds in its membrane phospholipid.
d. decrease the amount of cholesterol in the membrane.

Answers

Answer is option "b"

Explanation:

Composed of a phospholipid bilayer with installed proteins, the plasma layer is specifically penetrable to particles and natural atoms and directs the development of substances all through cells. Plasma films must be truly adaptable so as to permit certain cells, for example, red platelets and white platelets, to change shape as they go through restricted vessels. The plasma membrane additionally assumes a job in securing the cytoskeleton to give shape to the phone, and in joining to the extracellular grid and different cells to help bunch cells together to frame tissues. The layer likewise keeps up the cell potentialHence the right answer is option b "increase the proportion of unsaturated hydrocarbon tails in its membrane phospholipids"

What is meant by double fertilization? Select all that apply. A diploid zygote is formed. Two diploid zygotes form. Endosperm will form. Plants aren't real.

Answers

Answer:

A diploid zygote is formed; Endosperm will form.

Explanation:

The fertilization in angiosperms (flowering plants) is known as double fertilization. In this process, two male gametes or sperms are involved where one sperm fertilizes the ovum or egg cell and forms a diploid zygote that develops into an embryo while the other sperm fertilizes two polar nuclei and forms a triploid cell that develops into the endosperm.

The female reproductive structure of a flower includes stigma, style, and ovary. During pollination, the pollen grain attaches to the stigma where it begins to germinate and forms a pollen tube that grows into the style and reaches the ovary. It enters the ovary and penetrates an opening in the ovule called the micropyle. The generative cell in the pollen grain travels through the pollen tube and divides to form two sperms that enter into the ovule.

Usually, six cells (three antipodal cells, two synergid cells, and one egg cell) and two polar central nuclei are present in an unfertilized ovule. Here, a  process known as syngamy occurs, where one haploid sperm fertilizes the haploid egg cell or ovum and forms a diploid zygote. It later grows into an embryo. The other haploid sperm fuses with the two haploid polar nuclei to form a triploid nucleus that develops into the endosperm (nutrient-rich tissue) which provides nourishment to the growing embryo. Later, the fertilized ovule forms the seed and the ovary develops into the fruit which envelops and protects the seed.

In electron micrographs of HSV infection, it can be seen that the intact virus initially reacts with cell surface proteoglycans, then with specific receptors. This is later followed by viral capsids docking with nuclear pores. Afterward, the capsids go from being full to being "empty." Which of the following best fits these observations? A) The viral envelope mediates entry into the cell, the capsid mediates entry into the nuclear membrane, and the genome is all that enters the nucleus. B) Only the genetic material of the virus is involved in the cell's infectivity, and is injected like the genome of a phage. C) The viral capsid mediates entry into the cell, and only the genomic DNA enters the nucleus, where it may or may not replicate. D) The viral envelope is not required for infectivity, since the envelope does not enter the nucleus.

Answers

Answer is option "A"

Explanation:

The standards of nucleocytoplasmic transport, and afterward portray the various systems utilized by infections to convey their genomes into the host core. A portion of the developing instruments include:  An atomic section during mitosis, when the atomic envelope is dismantledViral genome discharge in the cytoplasm followed by a passage of the genome through the atomic pore complex (NPC)Capsid docking at the cytoplasmic side of the NPC, trailed by genome dischargeAtomic section of unblemished capsids through the NPC trailed by genome dischargeAtomic passage by means of infection initiated disturbance of the atomic envelope. Which system a specific infection utilizes relies upon the size and structure of the infection  just as the cell signs utilized by the infection to trigger capsid dismantling and genome discharge  Hence, the right answer is option "A"

Final answer:

Option A correctly describes the HSV infection process: the viral envelope mediates cell entry, the capsid mediates nuclear entry, and only the genome enters the nucleus. The intimate interaction of the virus with the host cell's membrane and nuclear pores ensures viral nucleic acid's successful entry into the nucleus for replication.

Explanation:

Understanding HSV Infection and Viral Entry into Cells

Based on the observations described in electron micrographs of HSV (Herpes Simplex Virus) infection, it is evident that the process involves several distinct steps. Initially, the intact virus binds to cell surface proteoglycans and then attaches to specific receptors on the host cell. Following this, the viral capsids dock with nuclear pores allowing entry into the nucleus. There is a notable change from 'full' to 'empty' capsids, suggesting the release of viral genetic material into the nucleus. From the given options, the best one fitting these observations is Option A: The viral envelope mediates entry into the cell, the capsid mediates entry into the nuclear membrane, and only the genome enters the nucleus. During the viral entry process, the envelope of some viruses can fuse directly with the cell membrane, delivering the nucleocapsid into the cytoplasm, or the virus can be internalized through endocytosis. Regardless of the initial method of entry, the capsid generally undergoes degradation releasing the viral nucleic acid into the cell, where it can replicate and transcribe. The replication and synthesis of new viral components are heavily dependent on the type of viral genome and the specific strategy employed by the virus to hijack the host cell's machinery. Considering the multi-step process of virus-cell interaction, penetration, and uncoating, the journey from initial attachment to the virus's genetic material entering the nucleus is a complex and finely-tuned series of events that are crucial for successful viral infection and replication.

Since animals have nerve and muscle tissue and plants do not, which of the following events in earth’s history would be associated with adaptive radiation of many groups of animals, and not particularly that of plants?
A. increase in atmospheric O2
B. great increase in land mass area
C. changes in global ocean temperatures
D. meteorite impacts and volcanic eruptions
E. earthquake activity causing increased barrier formation

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is A) increase in atmospheric O2

Explanation:

The nerve cells and the muscle cells suggest that the the presence of oxygen in the atmosphere was an adaptive radiation which brought the existence of different animals. The conditions became favorable for different animals to survive on Earth only when the availability of oxygen improved in the atmosphere. As animal cells like the muscle cells require a constant supply of oxygen, we can hence say that increase in atmospheric oxygen was the adaptive radiation for supporting many group of animals.

Two species of tree frogs occupy different elevations in the canopy of a rain forest. If these frogs with strikingly different patterns of coloration but similar patterns of activity are brought together, they can produce offspring that survive to adulthood and can then mate successfully with individuals of either species. What keeps these frogs recognizably distinct?
1. Lack of hybrid fertility
2. Temporal isolation
3. Mechanical isolation
4. Habitat Isolation
5. Lack of hybrid viability

Answers

Answer:

Habitat Isolation

Explanation:

Ecological, or habitat, isolation occurs when two species that could interbreed do not because the species live in different areas.

The amino acid sequence of cytochrome c is exactly the same in humans and chimpanzees. There is a difference of 13 amino acids between the cytochrome c of humans and dogs, and a difference of 20 amino acids between the cytochrome c of humans and rattle snakes. Which of the following is best supported by these data?
a. Rattlesnakes apparently gave rise evolutionarily to the dog, chimpanzee, and human.
b. Cytochrome c apparently has an entirely different function in rattlesnakes than in mammals, which explains the difference in the number of amino acids.
c. Cytochrome c is not found universally in animals.
d. Cytochrome c from a rattlesnake could function in a dog, but not in a chimpanzee.
e. The human is apparently more closely related to the chimpanzee than to the dog or rattlesnake.

Answers

Answer:

Option-(E): The human is apparently more closely related to the chimpanzee than to the dog or rattlesnake.                            

Explanation:

Humans are primates and that s why we can argue that we are more closely related to the chimpanzees, as there are more similarities inside the genome and the sequences of the amino acids of the two species. And, thus they result in arrangement of both the species inside the same taxonomic level.While, the rattle snake and dog are far more different when it comes to the over all sequences of amino acid inside the living beings cellular structure.

A heme protein present within the outer and inner membrane of mitochondria is called Cytochrome c.

The main role is to transport electrons between the III complex and IV complex during ETC.

The correct answer is:

Option E. The human is apparently more closely related to the chimpanzee than to the dog or rattlesnake.

The explanation for this is:

Humans and Chimpanzees both are primates and are nearly related.

The genome and amino acid arrays of both animals are more comparable as correlated to any other mammal.

They come below the same taxonomical arrangement.

Rattlesnake being a reptile and dog being a mammal is different in amino acid sequences and are different in characters too.

Therefore, humans are closely related to chimpanzees than dogs or rattlesnakes.

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10. In angiosperms, a _____ is contained in the anthers or ovaries, and the _____ consists of the rest of the plant. sporophyte; gametophyte gametophyte; sporophyte bryophyte; sporophyte sporophyte; bryophyte

Answers

Answer:

Gametophyte,sporophyte.

Explanation:

The gametes produce by gametophyte is contain in Anther and ovaries and sporophyte develops into zygote(plant).

Sporophyte through meiosis produces spores. Meiosis been a reductional process reduced the 2n to n(haploid chromosome).

The haploid spores formed germinate into haploid gametophyte.

Gametophyte at maturity produces gametes through mitosis. Two gametes from similar organism or organism of the same species then fuse together to produce zygote

Final answer:

In angiosperms, the ‘gametophyte’ is contained in the anthers or ovaries, where sexual reproduction occurs. The 'sporophyte' refers to the rest of the asexual plant that generates spores.

Explanation:

In angiosperms, the term gametophyte refers to the sexual phase that is contained in the anthers, in the case of males, or ovaries, in the case of females. These gametophytes are where the production of gametes - sperm cell and egg cell - occurs. Conversely, the sporophyte consists of the rest of the plant like leaves, stems, and roots. This stage is asexual, and it generates spores that will grow into gametophytes.

So, the accurate pairing for your question would be 'gametophyte; sporophyte'.

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What is an important difference between light-dependent and light-independent reactions of photosynthesis?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Photosynthesis is broadly divided into two phases. The one is the light-dependent or light reactions and other is the light-independent or dark reactions. Both these phases occur in the chloroplast of a plant cell.

Light-dependent reactions occur in the thylakoid of the chloroplast.  These reactions require light. The chlorophyll molecules absorb light and convert light energy into NADH and ATP.  Light energy also breaks water molecules and releases oxygen.      

Light-independent reactions do not require light and the reactions occur in the stroma of the chloroplast. Using power (NADH and ATP) synthesized during light reactions, carbon dioxide is reduced into sugar molecules.

Blood vessel walls contain elastin, a protein that allows the vessel to stretch under high pressure. Which type of blood vessel do you expect will have the highest concentration of elastin in its walls?

Answers

Answer: Artery

Explanation:

Artery is a type of blood vessel that carry blood (usually oxygenated blood except the pulmonary artery) away from the heart to all parts of the body.

Since, blood from the heart is under high pressure due to the pumping action of the heart muscles, arteries possess elastin, that allows it to stretch under high pressure.

In the south of France mosquitoes can be a nuisance. As the economy is dependent in part on tourists, this can be problematic. So they spray insecticides to kill the mosquitoes. The heroic mosquitoes had an allele for a gene in their gene pool that resists the insecticide. The two graphs below show the frequency of the resistance allele in two different seasons and two different years. The x-axis is distance from the cost. Note, that spraying stops at about 20 km from the coast. Spraying only happens in the summer? Why might the allele frequency fall so quickly at the coast in the winter?
Select one:
a. Thee allele is advantageous when there is no spraying
b. There is a fitness cost to the allele, so as soon as selection for the allele stops, it's frequency drops.
c. Because there is no gene flow between the fall and summer mosquitoes, the allele will not be passed between them.
d. Genetic drift eliminates many mosquitoes because of spraying, so the allele frequency goes down.

Answers

Answer:

There is a fitness cost to the allele, so as soon as selection for the allele stops, it's frequency drops

Explanation:

The two graphs show the frequency of the resistance allele in two different seasons and two different years , this is due to mutation a force for changing the allele frequencies( genetic drift) in a population over time

if an allele reduce fitness, it frequency will drop from one generation to the next

The allele frequency falls quickly at the coast in the winter because there is a fitness cost to the allele, so as soon as selection for the allele stops, its frequency drops. The correct answer is option : b. There is a fitness cost to the allele, so as soon as selection for the allele stops, its frequency drops.

The allele frequency falls quickly at the coast in the winter because the spraying of insecticides stops, removing the selective pressure favoring the resistance allele.

In other words, during the summer when spraying occurs, mosquitoes carrying the resistance allele have a selective advantage, but in the winter, when spraying ceases, there is no longer a benefit to having the allele.

This suggests that there is a fitness cost associated with carrying the resistance allele, such as decreased reproductive success or reduced survival in the absence of insecticide exposure.

The rapid decline in the frequency of the resistance allele at the coast in the winter suggests that there is a fitness cost associated with the allele, leading to its decrease when selection pressure is removed.

Which gland produces T3 and T4?
Group of answer choices

Thyroid

Pituitary

Pineal

Adrenal

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Question 910 pts
The adrenal gland stimulates the release of the hormone that causes the fight or flight response
Group of answer choices

True

False

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Question 1010 pts
Which of the following symptoms is NOT correctly matched with the organ system
Group of answer choices

Anxiety - Nervous system

Nausea - Digestive system

Weight loss - digestive system

Joint pain - skeletal system

A negative feedback loop is one that accelerates the release of the hormone.
Group of answer choices

True

False

Answers

Answer:

1. The gland that produces T3 and T4 is the thyroid (first option).

2. True. The adrenal gland produces and allows the secretion of the hormone involved in the fight and flight response.

3.The symptom that is not correctly matched with the organ system is joint pain, which is related to the joint system, not the skeletal system.

4. False. Negative feedback loop inhibits the production and release of hormones.The symptom that is not correctly matched with the organ system is Joint pain - skeletal system

Explanation:

1. Thyroid gland is a small organ of no more than 30 grams found in the neck, in front of the trachea. This gland produces thyroglobulin, which when joined with iodine can synthesize triiodoythyronine (T3) or thyroxine (T4).

The main function of the thyroid gland is the regulation of organic metabolism, while it can also mediate the body's response to other hormones.

2. Adrenal gland is located in the upper pole of each kidney and is responsible for the secretion of several substances that help with the body's activity.

In the gland's marrow, a substance called adenaline is produced, with properties such as hormone and neurotransmitter, one of the main substances produced to deal with stress and the adaptation response called fight and flight.

The adrenaline produced in the adrenal medulla can strengthen muscles, increase heart rate and blood pressure, and increase the body's resistance to the presence of stressors or threats to physical integrity.

3. Joint pain is related to inflammation of the joint soft tissues, which belong to the joint system. Unlike joint pain, bone pain occurs as a result of injury to the periosteum -the thin membrane that covers the bones- which is related to the skeletal system.

Painful inflammation of the joints is called arthritis, and is one of the main causes of disability to perform normal body movements.

4. Feedback is a control mechanism of the endocrine system. Negative feedback loop occurs in response to a stimulus, resulting in the inhibition of mechanisms that promote the synthesis and release of substances.

An example of negative feedback is the sufficient production of thyroid hormones, which sends a signal to the hypothalamus, which in turn inhibits the production of TSH - thyroid stimulating hormone - at the level of the pituitary gland. If the pituitary does not release TSH, production of thyroid hormones ceases.

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Which part of the transition zone receives the most rainfall

Answers

Answer: South

Explanation:

Cytokinesis in animal cells is accomplished by constriction of the cell along the plane of cell division (formation of a cleavage furrow). In plant cells, which have cell walls, a completely different mechanism of cytokinesis has evolved.
Which of the following statements are true of cytokinesis in plant cells? Select the two that apply.
After chromosome separation is complete, a network of microfilaments forms near the plane of cell division that will separate the two new cells.
The cell plate consists of the plasma membrane and cell wall that will eventually separate the two daughter cells.
The plasma membrane of the parent cell grows inward, eventually joining with the cell plate.
Vesicles from the Golgi apparatus move along microtubules, coalesce at the plane of cell division, and form a cell plate.

Answers

Answer:

option A and option D

Explanation:

cytokinesis in plant cells is aided by the formation of a cell plate. prior to cell plate formation which is situated at the middle, a complex network of microtubules, microfilaments, and endoplasmic reticulum elements assemble in two opposing groups perpendicular to the plane of the future cell plate during anaphase and telophase. this aids in the movement of vessicles coming from the golgi apparatus forming the cell plate.

Which of the following places these items in the correct order for DNA-virus replication? 1. Maturation 2. DNA synthesis 3. Transcription 4. Translation

Answers

Answer:

2; 3; 4; and 1

Final answer:

The correct order for DNA-virus replication is DNA synthesis, transcription, translation, and maturation. This process begins with replication of the virus's DNA, then the creation of RNA from the DNA, followed by the production of proteins, and finally the assembly of new virus particles.

Explanation:

The correct order for DNA-virus replication is 2. DNA synthesis, 3. Transcription, 4. Translation, and 1. Maturation. During DNA synthesis, the virus's DNA is replicated. Transcription is the next process where the viral DNA is transcribed into RNA, which happens in the host cell's nucleus. Next is translation, where the RNA is used as a template to produce virus proteins. Lastly, in the maturation step, new virus particles are assembled and often results in the host cell being lysed.

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Allele frequencies of a population can change by A. natural selection. B. genetic drift. C. mutations in the gene pool. D. founder effect. E. All of the above.

Answers

Final answer:

Allele frequencies of a population can change through natural selection, genetic drift, and mutations in the gene pool. The founder effect can also lead to changes in allele frequencies.

option e is correct

Explanation:

Allele frequencies of a population can change through natural selection, genetic drift, and mutations in the gene pool. Natural selection is the process by which certain alleles are favored and become more prevalent in a population over time.

Genetic drift is the random change in allele frequencies due to chance events. Mutations introduce new alleles into the gene pool, possibly leading to changes in allele frequencies. Additionally, the founder effect, which occurs when a small group of individuals becomes isolated and establishes a new population, can also lead to changes in allele frequencies.

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The event that gave rise to algae was the uptake of cyanobacteria that became chloroplasts. This process of engulfing microbes that then become parts of the eukaryotic cell is known as ______________ .

Answers

Answer:

Endosymbiosis

Explanation:

Endosymbiosis is a theory developed to explain the origin of eukaryotic cells from a prokaryotic origin. Organelles of the eukaryotic cells such as mitochondria and chloroplast were thought to have developed from this process.

According to this theory, a proto-eukaryote eats up or engulf a proto-mitochondrion or protochloroplast (in form of microbes) to become eukaryotic organelles such as mitochondrion and chloroplast respectively.

Final answer:

Endosymbiosis, a fundamental process in evolutionary biology, is the term for the uptake of cyanobacteria by eukaryotic cells, leading to the formation of chloroplasts in algae and eventually higher plants.

Explanation:

The process by which algae arose due to the uptake of cyanobacteria, which then became chloroplasts, is known as endosymbiosis. This evolutionary event stems from a eukaryotic cell engulfing a photosynthetic cyanobacterium through phagocytosis. Over time, this became a mutualistic relationship where the cyanobacterium, rather than being digested, continued to live within the eukaryotic cell, providing it with energy through photosynthesis, and eventually becoming an integral part of the cell as the chloroplast. This process occurred not just once, but multiple times, allowing for diverse forms of algae, such as green algae, which gave rise to higher plants, as well as red algae, brown algae, diatoms, dinoflagellates, and euglenoids which acquired photosynthesis through secondary endosymbiosis involving the uptake of red or green algae.

Both the red and green algae are descendants from this primary endosymbiotic event, with their plastids containing two membranes: one from the cyanobacterial wall and another from the outer membrane of the host cell. In secondary endosymbiosis, an already symbiotic eukaryotic cell (one containing a chloroplast) is taken up by another eukaryotic cell, resulting in a complexity of membranes around the plastid and sometimes retaining remnants of the endosymbiotic algae's nucleus.

What particles could diffuse easily through a cell membrane?

Answers

Oxygen molecules are easy to get diffused from cell membrane. The correct option is d.

What is diffusion?

Diffusion is the net movement of individual molecules of a compound across a semipermeable barrier from a high concentration area to a low concentration area.

Osmosis is the transfer of solvent particles from a diluted solution to a more concentrated solution.

Diffusion, on the other hand, is the transport of particles from a higher concentration region to a lower concentration region.

As oxygen-rich blood passes through a cell, oxygen diffuses through the cell membrane to a lower concentration area within the cell.

It is able to accomplish this simply because the oxygen molecule is small and has no charge or polarity. The mitochondria consume oxygen quickly.

Thus, the correct option is d.

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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options could be:

a) Hydrogen ion (H+)b) Glucosec) Sodium ion (Na+)d) Oxygen (O2)

Proteins that regulate the cell cycle are inactive when the cell is not dividing, and they are turned on when the cell begins the cell cycle. What would happen if these proteins remain turned on indefinitely?

Answers

Answer:

If these proteins turned on indefinitely than the cell will divide uncontrollably and will become a cancerous cell.

Explanation:

The cell cycle is controlled by many proteins which helps in the regulation of cell cycle and cell cycle completion. So these proteins are inactive when cell is not dividing but become active when cell is dividing which means they are needed to be active to divide the cell.

Therefore if they remained turned on indefinitely than the cell will continue to divide indefinitely like cancerous cells and due to overproduction of cell it will cause tumors or cancer in the body.

Answer: Cells would divide uncontrollably and could become cancerous

Explanation: i took the test

When comparing protein-coding DNA sequences of similar genes in related species, you see that some of the sequences are longer in one species compared to the other. Which of the following is the most likely number of extra bases that you would see

Answers

Answer:

Homolog genes with sequence identity often exhibit differences in length associated with size variations in the intronic sequences

Explanation:

In eukaryotic organisms, genes are composed by 1- coding sequences (i.e., exons) that are transcribed into precursor mRNAs, and 2-noncoding regions (or introns), which are not transcribed but contain sequences involved in the control of gene expression

Who is at the greatest risk of a heart attack? a. Forrest, who has high levels of LDLs and low levels of HDLs b. Sawyer, who has low levels of both LDLs and HDLs c. Gump, who has high levels of both LDLs and HDLs d. Tucker, who has low level of LDLs and high levels of HDLs

Answers

Answer:

(C) Gump, who has high levels of both LDLs and HDLs

Explanation:

A high level of LDL is a threat to good health. It's an indicator to a bad level of cholesterol

A low level of HDL which indicates a low level of cholesterol is a good sign to health.

But when a person has a combination of High LDL and High HDL that's a sure chance of HEART ATTACK.

In other words,

Heart attack is highest if a person has level of LDL and High level of HDL

Final answer:

Forrest, with high levels of LDLs and low levels of HDLs, is at the highest risk for a heart attack due to the increased LDL:HDL ratio leading to greater plaque buildup and heart disease risk.

Explanation:

When considering who is at the greatest risk of a heart attack among the given individuals, it's important to understand the roles of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) and high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) in cardiovascular health. LDLs are often referred to as "bad" cholesterol because they can lead to the buildup of plaque in the arteries, increasing the risk for heart attacks. Conversely, HDLs are known as "good" cholesterol as they help to transport cholesterol from the tissues back to the liver for recycling, thus helping to prevent plaque formation.

Based on this information:

Forrest, who has high levels of LDLs and low levels of HDLs, is at the greatest risk of a heart attack because this profile contributes to a higher LDL:HDL ratio, which is associated with an increased risk for heart disease due to greater plaque buildup.Sawyer, who has low levels of both LDLs and HDLs, might have a more neutral risk profile.Gump, with high levels of both LDLs and HDLs, also has an increased risk but not as much as Forrest's, assuming his HDL levels help mitigate some of the effects of high LDLs.Tucker, who has low levels of LDLs and high levels of HDLs, has the most favorable lipid profile and the lowest risk for a heart attack of the individuals mentioned.

Therefore, a. Forrest is at the greatest risk of a heart attack.

Afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction __________ blood flow into the glomerulus, which causes the glomerular-capillary blood pressure to __________, leading to a(n) __________ in the net filtration pressure and a resultant __________ in the GFR.

Answers

Answer:

Afferent arteriolar vasoconstriction decreases blood flow into the glomerulus, which causes the glomerular-capillary blood pressure to decrease, leading to a(n) decrease in the net filtration pressure and a resultant decrease in the GFR.

Explanation:

Pretty self-explanatory.

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