The blood leaving the aorta reaches the circle of Willis, a collection of arteries that supplies blood to the brain. Assume that it takes 600 ms for blood to reach the circle of Willis and that its average velocity is reduced to 61 cm/s. What is the average acceleration experienced by the blood?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Option D

Explanation:

Please see the attached image for initial velocity and the options for this question are

A.−67.0 cm/s2

B.−0.670 cm/s2

C.0.670 cm/s2

D.67.0 cm/s2

Solution

Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity or speed.

Mathematically it can be represented as

[tex]da = \frac{dv}{dt}[/tex]

where a represents the acceleration, v represents the velocity and t represents the time taken.

Given

time is equal to [tex]600[/tex] ms

or

[tex]0.6[/tex] seconds

Substituting the given values in above equation we get

[tex]a = \frac{101-61}{0.6} \\= 66.67 \frac{m}{s^2}[/tex]

Hence, option D is correct

The Blood Leaving The Aorta Reaches The Circle Of Willis, A Collection Of Arteries That Supplies Blood
Answer 2
Final answer:

The average acceleration of blood reaching the circle of Willis, with average velocity of 61 cm/s over 600 ms, is calculated using the formula for acceleration and found to be 101.67 cm/s^2.

Explanation:

The question involves computing the average acceleration experienced by the blood as it travels from the aorta to the circle of Willis. To find the acceleration, we can use the formula a = (v_f - v_i)/t, where v_f is the final velocity, v_i is the initial velocity (assumed to be zero if not given), and t is the time taken.

Given that the average velocity when it reaches the circle of Willis is 61 cm/s and assuming the initial velocity is 0 (since we are calculating the average acceleration from rest), and the time taken is 600 ms or 0.6 seconds, we can calculate the acceleration as follows:

a = (61 cm/s - 0) / 0.6 s
a = 101.67 cm/s2

The average acceleration experienced by the blood is 101.67 cm/s2. This value is positive, indicating that the blood is speeding up as it travels to the circle of Willis.


Related Questions

Humans, chimpanzees, gorillas, and orangutans are members of a clade called the great apes, which shared a common ancestor about fifteen million years ago. Gibbons and siamangs comprise a clade called the lesser apes. Tree-branch lengths indicate elapsed time.

Assuming chimps and gorillas are humans' closest relatives, removing humans from the great ape clade and placing them in a different clade has the effect of making the phylogenetic tree of the great apes _____.
A) polyphyletic
B) paraphyletic
C) monophyletic
D) into a new order

Answers

Answer:

The correct option is B) paraphyletic

Explanation:

A clade can be described as a monophyletic group which comprises of different organisms which have an ancestor in common and all its linear descents.

A paraphyletic group can be described as a group of organisms that have descended from the same evolutionary organism or ancestor groups, but it might comprise of one or more of the descendants.

Removing humans from the great ape clade results in a paraphyletic group as this group would then consist of an ancestral species and some, but not all, of its descendants.

Assuming chimps and gorillas are humans' closest relatives, removing humans from the great ape clade would make phylogenetic tree of the great apes paraphyletic. A paraphyletic group consists of an ancestral species and some, but not all, of its descendants. As humans share a common ancestor with chimps, gorillas, and orangutans, removing humans from the group creates a grouping that includes some but not all descendants of that common ancestor. This exclusion breaks the completeness of the monophyletic group (which includes all descendants), therefore, the correct answer to the question is:

B) paraphyletic

Convergent evolution is said to have occurred if the mouse species on two islands with similar habitats are found to have similar characteristics even though they originated from different species that did not have these characteristics.A. TrueB. false

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

When two or more distantly related species develop some structural or functional similarities since they are found in the same environmental conditions, the process is called convergent evolution. Here, the developed similarities may not be present in the ancestors of these species. For example, the presence of wings in birds (Aves) and bats (mammals) represents convergent evolution. Therefore, the presence of similar features in two different species of mouse due to similar habitat conditions represent convergent evolution.

Answer:

True

Explanation:

When two species of an organism habituating in two different locations with similar environmental conditions possess similar characteristics are said to evolve through convergence.  

Such species have homologous structures due to which they have similar internal skeletal structure but their function and looks vary.  

For example – wings of bat and limbs of human beings are homologous structure but their function and look are different from each other.

Hence, the given statement is true

What theory of hearing contends that areas of the basilar membrane are highly specialized, with each area responding to a different frequency?

Answers

Answer: Place theory

Explanation:

Place theory is a theory of hearing that affirms that, the areas of the basilar membrane are highly specialized, with each area responding to a different frequency. Our awareness of sound depends on where each component frequency produces vibrations along the basilar membrane. By this theory, the pitch of a sound, such as a human voice or a musical tone, is determined by the places where the membrane vibrates, based on frequencies corresponding to the tonotopic organization of the primary auditory neurons.

Final answer:

The Place Theory of hearing contends that each area of the basilar membrane is specialized, resonating and responding to specific frequencies.

Explanation:

The theory of hearing that posits specialized areas of the basilar membrane, each responding to a different frequency, is known as the Place Theory. According to the Place Theory, specific parts of the basilar membrane resonate and respond to certain frequencies while ignoring others. Each segment corresponds to a specific pitch or frequency, which allows for the perception of different sounds. For example, high frequency sounds vibrate the base of the cochlea, closer to the middle ear, while low frequency sounds vibrate the apex, closer to the center of the cochlea.

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When comparing liver cells and kidney cells within an organism, many differences can be observed and documented. Which of following is not a difference between liver cells and kidney cells in the same animal?

Choose one:
A. The different cells have different roles in the body.
B. The different cells are generated during the animal's development.
C. The different cells produce different proteins.
D. The different cells express different genes.
E. The different cells have different DNA.

Answers

Liver cells and kidney cells in the same animal have different roles in the body and produce different proteins. However, they have the same DNA.

When comparing liver cells and kidney cells within an organism, several differences can be observed. While liver cells and kidney cells have different roles in the body and produce different proteins, one similarity between them is that they have the same DNA. Genes are sections of DNA that provide instructions for the production of proteins, and both liver cells and kidney cells express different genes to carry out their distinct functions.

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"You begin an experiment with two populations of E. coli that are each composed of 100 cells. The cells are all genetically identical (i.f., they are clones). You grow these populations in flasks on a lab bench under identical conditions with sufficient resources for the survival of all individuals. What process will introduce genetic variation into these populations?"

Answers

Answer:

Horizontal method of gene transfer

Explanation:

Bacteria divide by binary fission which produces the exact copy of the daughter cells with the same genetic material but they do exhibit variation in their genetic material.

The process that is responsible to introduce the genetic variation is the mechanisms of horizontal methods of DNA transfer which involves the transformation, transduction and conjugation.

These methods of gene transfer are considered by the biologist as the primitive methods of sexual reproduction.

Thus, Horizontal method of gene transfer is the correct answer.

Last night in class, Upe asked her instructor about the flow of positive and negative ions into and/or out of a cell. Her instructor told her that the two processes involved in this movement are: A. diffusion and electrostatic pressure. B. glia and microglia. C. agonists and antagonists. D. voluntary and involuntary.

Answers

Answer:

Last night in class, Upe asked her instructor about the flow of positive and negative ions into and/or out of a cell. Her instructor told her that the two processes involved in this movement are: A. diffusion and electrostatic pressure. B. glia and microglia. C. agonists and antagonists. D. voluntary and involuntary.

The Answer is option A (diffusion and electrostatic pressure)

Explanation:

How diffusion act on groups of ions:

Ions are diffused when ions move from regions of high concentration to regions of lower concentration.

For Potassium Ion, potassium remains in high concentrations inside the cell, diffusion tends to push Potassium ion outside the cell.

For chloride ion (Cl-), remains in high concentration outside the cell, diffusion pushes it inside the cell.

While, sodium ion (Na+) is more concentrated outside the cell, diffusion pushes sodium ion inside the cell.

How electrostatic pressure act on groups of ions:

Electrostatic pressure is a surface charge that experiences a force in the presence of an electric field and can be described as the force on two ions with similar charge and the force of two ions with opposite charge.

For Potassium ion, the positive charge of Potassium ion is attracted to the negative charge inside the cell, hence, electrostatic pressure pushes Potassium ion inside the cell.  

For chloride ion (Cl-), since the negative charge of chloride ion is attracted to the positive charge outside the cell, electrostatic pressure pushes chloride ion outside the cell.

For Sodium ion (Na+), since the positive charge of sodium is attracted to the negative charge inside the cell, electrostatic pressure pushes sodium ion inside the cell. But, sodium ion cannot permeate the cell membrane and remains in high concentration outside the cell.

Describe how the structure of a virus aids in its ability to infect cells.

Answers

Answer:

Capsid proteins interlock with a receptor site on the host cell.

The capsid protein and host cell receptor interlock like a puzzle piece.

Viruses vary in shape to attack the various types of receptors on cells.

The shapes of viruses include polyhedral, helical, enveloped, and complex.

Once the virus attaches to the host cell, it invades the cell and hijacks the DNA of the cell

The structure of a virus aids in its ability to infect cells by attacking the receptors and attaching to the host cells.

What is Virus?

This is defined as a small infectious agent which can replicate only inside the cells of another organism. Its structure infect cells through the following:

Capsid proteins interlock with a receptor site on the host cell.The capsid protein and host cell receptor interlock.Viruses vary in shape to attack the various types of receptors on cellsThe virus attaches to the host cell, it invades the cell and hijacks the DNA of the cell.

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Which is true concerning muscle tissue? Select one: a. cuboidal shape enhances function b. highly cellular and well vascularized c. contains contractile units made of collagen d. is a single-celled tissue

Answers

Final answer:

The true statement about muscle tissue is that it is highly cellular and well vascularized. There are three types of muscle tissue: skeletal, cardiac, and smooth, all of which are highly cellular, well vascularized and have excitability, enabling movement and force generation.

Explanation:

Concerning muscle tissue, the true statement is: b. highly cellular and well vascularized. This relates to the nature of muscle tissue, which is indeed highly cellular and well vascularized, allowing it to perform its functions of movement and force generation. Muscle cells, or myocytes, are derived from the mesoderm and their numbers remain relatively constant throughout life. These cells are characterised by their excitability; they respond to a stimulus and are contractile, meaning they can shorten and generate a pulling force.

There are three types of muscle tissue in the body - skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle. These all have properties in common, such as the ability to change their electrical states and send an electrical wave (or action potential) along the membrane. This property is known as excitability.

The forms of muscle tissue show different characteristics: skeletal muscle cells appear striated with many nuclei along the membranes; cardiac muscle cells appear striated with a single nucleus; smooth muscle cells have a single nucleus with no visible striations. These differences help them perform their different functions within the body.

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Many conditions other than those that attack the brain tissue directly can also produce symptoms of neurocognitive disorder. These can be either medical conditions or other types of mental disorders. One cause of neurocognitive disorder is the severe interruption of blood flow to the brain known as a?

Answers

Answer:

The neuro cognitive disorder of blood flow to the brain is called as dementia.

Explanation:

When mental function decreases due to mental diseases,the term is called dementia in medical terminology.

There are several  causes of dementia are-

Brain injury which is caused by trauma.Intra cerebral hemorrhage,blood clot in the brainBreathing problem like hypoxia.Cardiovascular problems like TIA, Stroke,heart infection etc.Alzheimer disease,Huntington disease,HIV,any injury in brain.Pick disease etc

For a science fair project, two students decided to repeat the Hershey and Chase experiment, with modifications. They decided to label the nitrogen of the DNA, rather than the phosphate. They reasoned that each nucleotide has only one phosphate and two to five nitrogens. Thus, labeling the nitrogens would provide a stronger signal than labeling the phosphates. Why won't this experiment work?
A) Radioactive nitrogen has a half-life of 100,000 years, and the material would be too dangerous for too long.
B) There is no radioactive isotope of nitrogen.
C) Although there are more nitrogens in a nucleotide, labeled phosphates actually have 16 extra neutrons; therefore, they are more radioactive.
D) Amino acids (and thus proteins) also have nitrogen atoms; thus, the radioactivity would not distinguish between DNA and proteins.

Answers

Answer:

D) Amino acids (and thus proteins) also have nitrogen atoms; thus, the radioactivity would not distinguish between DNA and proteins.

Explanation:

Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase carried out an experiment by employing the sulfur labeled proteins and phosphorous labeled DNA of the phage. These phages were permitted to infect bacteria. It was noted that the DNA had entrance to the bacterial cells and was thought to be the genetic material. The offspring of the phages that were marked with radioactive phosphorus was still marked although the offspring of the phages marked with radioactive sulfur were unmarked. This proved that DNA and not protein can be labeled as genetic material. When students employed the use of radioactive nitrogen in lieu of radioactive phosphorous, and could not obtain the required results due to nitrogen being found in proteins and DNA as nitrogen bases. Therefore, the radioactivity could not differentiate between DNA and proteins.

In view of this, the right answer is

D.

'Amino acids (and thus proteins) also have nitrogen atoms. Thus, the radioactivity would not distinguish between DNA and proteins.'

which part of the central nervous system is used to serve as the main communication link between the body and the brain

Answers

Answer: The central nervous system (CNS) controls most functions of the body and mind. It consists of two parts: the brain and the spinal cord. The brain is the center of our thoughts, the interpreter of our external environment, and the origin of control over body movement

Explanation: The central nervous system (CNS) controls most functions of the body and mind. It consists of two parts: the brain and the spinal cord.

The brain is the center of our thoughts, the interpreter of our external environment, and the origin of control over body movement. Like a central computer, it interprets information from our eyes (sight), ears (sound), nose (smell), tongue (taste), and skin (touch), as well as from internal organs such as the stomach.

The spinal cord is the highway for communication between the body and the brain. When the spinal cord is injured, the exchange of information between the brain and other parts of the body is disrupted.

A person who is ______ perceives themself as a member of a different gender from the one assigned at birth.

Answers

Answer:

Transgender.

Explanation:

Transgender is defined as a term that includes ways that people’s gender identities can be different from the sex they were assigned at birth. Transgender people have a gender identity or gender expression that differs from their sex assigned at birth. Some transgender people who desire medical assistance to transition from one sex to another identify as transsexual

mitosis worksheet help

Answers

Answer:

1. Prophase

2. C

3. A and F

4. CENTROSOME/centrioles

5. D

6. D-A-F-C-E-B

7. Animal cells

8. Interphase

9. Mitosis is necessary for growth and development of an organism

Explanation:

1. Cells A and F in the diagram depicts the early and late phase of Prophase respectively. The phase in cell A called early Prophase is characterized by the condensation of Chromatins to form visible chromosomes while the late Prophase also called prometaphase in cell F is characterized by the organization of the chromosomes by the spindle microtubules produced by the centrioles (structure X)

2. Cell C is in the Metaphase stage because the chromosomes are aligned at the equator of the cell called METAPHASE PLATE.

3. Cell A and F is the first phase of this MITOTIC process called Prophase because it is the phase where the chromosomes becomes visible as a result of the condensation of Chromatin material. In cell F as well, the chromosomes can be seen as an X-SHAPED structure after being organized.

4. The structure labelled X is the Centriole which is produced by the CENTROSOME. The centriole is responsible for the production of the spindle microtubules that aligns the chromosomes and eventually separate sister chromatids.

5. Cell D is the in-between phase of mitosis called INTERPHASE because it is the phase that occurs between two successive mitotic divisions. It is characterized by invisible strands called Chromatin and also the nuclear membrane that is still intact.

6. D-A-F-C-E-B is correct order of the cell cycle process. Cell D is at the Interphase stage, cell A is at the early prophase stage, cell F is at the late prophase stage, cell C is at the metaphase stage, cell E is at the anaphase stage, cell B is at the Telophase/CYTOKINESIS stage.

7. The cell involved in this cycle is depicted an animal cell because 1.) There is possession of centrioles at the prophase stage. Plant cells do not have centrioles. 2. ) A cleavage furrow is formed as a result of the contraction of the contractile ring seen at the middle of the cell. The cleavage furrow is what divides an animal cell into two during CYTOKINESIS. Plant cells do not form cleavage furrow, instead they form a cell plate because of their cell wall.

8. Interphase is the longest phase of the cell cycle because it is the phase the cell prepares itself for the next round of division. The preparation includes enlargement, DNA replication, replication of organnelles etc.

9. Mitosis is very important because it is the means by which all cells increase and multiply which utterly leads to the growth and development of an organism.

Final answer:

Mitosis, a crucial period in the cell cycle, involves the separation of duplicated chromosomes into identical nuclei. This process is divided into five stages - prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. Understanding these stages will allow you to accurately fill out a mitosis worksheet.

Explanation:Mitosis

Mitosis is a period of the cell cycle during which the duplicated chromosomes are separated into identical nuclei. This process is crucial to the passaging of heritable information from one generation to another through cell generation. Mitosis itself is divided into five essential stages - prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.

Prophase: Chromosomes become visible and the nuclear envelope breaks down.Prometaphase: Spindle fibers form and begin to move the chromosomes towards the center of the cell.Metaphase: Chromosomes line up along the middle of the cell.Anaphase: The sister chromatids separate into individual chromosomes and are moved apart.Telophase: The chromosomes gather at opposite ends of the cell, two new nuclear envelopes form, and the cell prepares for cytokinesis (division of the cytoplasm).

Understanding these stages will help you fill your mitosis worksheet accurately.

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Terrestrial vertebrates use the urea cycle to convert the ammonium ion to urea such that the urea can be excreted. In the production of urea, only one of the nitrogens in the product comes from ammonium ions. What is the source of the other nitrogen?

Answers

Answer:

Asparate is the source of other nitrogen

Explanation:

In the terrestrial vertebrate urea cycle is present which converts ammonium ions to urea and then this urea is excreted out of the by through urine.

First ammonia and bicarbonate combine to form Carbamoyl phosphate. The Carbamoyl phosphate and ornithine get condense to citrulline. Until here the reaction occurs in mitochondria.

Then the citrulline is transported in the cytosol where another nitrogen is added by an amino acid called aspartate and citrulline is condensed into argininosuccinate and aspartate converts and released as fumarate. So the correct answer is aspartate.

Final answer:

The source of the other nitrogen in the production of urea in terrestrial vertebrates comes from the deamination of amino acids.

Explanation:

The source of the other nitrogen in the production of urea in terrestrial vertebrates comes from the deamination of amino acids. Deamination of amino acids results in the production of ammonia, which is converted to urea through the urea cycle in mammals. This allows the body to excrete nitrogenous waste in a less toxic form. Animals that secrete urea as the primary nitrogenous waste material are called ureotelic animals.

You have a total body concentration of 300 mOsM and total body volume of 3 liters. If you add 0.5 L of a solution containing 150 mosmol of NaCl to the body, what would the new total body concentration be?a) 450 mOsM
b) 300 mOsM
c) 350 mOsM
d) 700 mOsM

Answers

Answer:

300 mOsM

Explanation:

The application of osmotic equilibrium comes in.

Using the equation; solute/volume = concentration

S/V =C

The fingerlike projections which line the small intestine increase the surface area to maximize absorption and help mix the partially digested chyme with intestinal secretions are:______

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is- Villi

Explanation:

Villi are the finger-like projection present in the highly folded surface of the intestine and line the intestine. Each villus has many microvilli which are microscopic projection on villi. These villi increase the surface area of the intestine because of having many folds. This increase in surface area helps in maximizing the nutrient absorption for the intestine.

It also helps in mixing the chyme with the intestinal secretion. The nutrient which is absorbed is then move to liver through the hepatic portal vein and then distributed in the body.

Final answer:

The fingerlike projections lining the small intestine that increase surface area are known as villi, and they contain an abundance of microvilli to further enhance nutrient absorption. Together, these structures provide a tremendously large surface for the absorption of nutrients from the chyme.

Explanation:

The fingerlike projections which line the small intestine increase the surface area to maximize absorption and help mix the partially digested chyme with intestinal secretions are called villi. These villi are essential for the efficient absorption of nutrients as they create a large surface area over which the digested food can come into contact with the cells of the intestine. Moreover, within each villus, there is a network of blood vessels and lymphatics that transport absorbed nutrients to the rest of the body.

Additionally, the cells that line the villi have an even greater number of minute projections known as microvilli. These microvilli substantially contribute to the large surface area of the small intestine. The vast number of microvilli, with estimates of over 100 billion per square inch, ensures that an optimal number of nutrients can be absorbed to meet the body's needs.

Overall, the combination of these structural adaptations, including both villi and microvilli, is what allows the small intestine to efficiently perform its role in nutrient absorption.

1.where does the energy required the process of cellular respiration come from?
2.What are the main reactants of cellular respiration?
3.For each molecule of glucose broken down during glycolysis, what is produced?

HELP PLS.

Answers

The energy from cellular respiration comes from food and air. The reactants first cellular respiration are oxygen and glucose. Glucose is a form of sugar and comes from food, and oxygen is found in air.

The main reactants or cellular respiration, as stated above, are oxygen and glucose.

During the first stage of cellular respiration, which takes place in the cytoplasm, a small amount of energy is produced when glucose is broken down into smaller particles.

If intelligence is determined primarily by heredity, which pair should show the highest correlation between IQ scores?

Answers

Answer:

The options

a) fraternal twins

b) identical twins

c) brothers and sisters

d) parents and children

The CORRECT ANSWER IS b)

b) identical twins

Explanation:

Identical twins both acquire identical genetic material. Therefore, if intelligence is basically controlled by heredity, you would foresee identical twins to possess the biggest correlation between IQ scores since they share 100 percent of the same genes

Answer:

the answer would be B, I got it right on edge :)

Explanation:

Who was the first african american to be on a u.S. Postage stamp

Answers

Answer:

Booker T. Washington

Explanation:

The first African American to be on a U.S postage stamp is known as Booker T. Washington.

Booker T. Washington lived between April 5, 1856 – November 14, 1915. He served in the capacity as an adviser to many American presidents. An orator and educator that excelled and prospered the national cause of the black race in multi-racial America.

He was self educated American slave.

At the time when white heroes were predominantly featured on the postage stamp, Booker T. Washington broke through the ranks in 1940s.

Molecules found on the 'rungs' or steps of the DNA ladder.

A.
Sugar and phosphate molecules

B.
Nitrogenous bases held together by hydrogen bonds

C.
deoxyribose

Answers

Answer:

c

Explanation:

Students use a microscope to look for structures present in four different cells. The students placed an X for each structure that was viewed for each cell on the table shown.

Which cell that was viewed is most likely a prokaryote?

A. Cell W
B. Cell X
C. Cell Y
D. Cell Z

Answers

Cell X is likely a prokaryotic cell. Option B) is the correct answer.

Explanation:

The prokaryotic cells are present in unicellular organisms such as bacteria and lack Nucleus in it. The cell X is not filled with x-mark in the nucleus.The prokaryotic cells consist of the cell membrane, cell wall and a genetic material composed of DNA. All these are marked with x-mark for cell X.Chloroplasts are not present in prokaryotic cells and the space for it is left blank in cell X without the x-mark.This information clearly shows that prokaryotic cell structure is viewed likely in cell X.

The cell that is most likely a prokaryote is Cell X.

Hence, the correct option is B.

Prokaryotic cells are characterized by the following features:

They do not have a nucleus.

They have a cell wall.

They may have chloroplasts.

They have DNA that is not enclosed in a nucleus.

Cell X has a cell wall, chloroplasts, and DNA. However, it does not have a nucleus. This means that Cell X is most likely a prokaryotic cell.

Cell W has a nucleus, so it is not a prokaryote.

Cell Y has a nucleus and chloroplasts, so it is also not a prokaryote.

Cell Z has a nucleus, but it does not have chloroplasts. This means that Cell Z could be either a prokaryote or a eukaryote.

However, since Cell X is more likely to be a prokaryote based on the information given, Cell Z is less likely to be a prokaryote.

Therefore, The cell that is most likely a prokaryote is Cell X.

Hence, the correct option is B.

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Consider a culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms such as Staphylococcus aureus colonies can grow due to an elevated NaCl level. A yellow halo surrounds the growth, indicating the bacterium fermented a sugar in the medium, decreasing the pH as a result and changing the color of a pH indicator chemical. This type of medium would be referred to as a(n):______
a) enrichment culture.
b) differential and enrichment culture.
c) selective and differential medium.
d) selective median.

Answers

Answer:

C) Selective and differential medium.

Explanation:

Selective Medium:

A media contains specific ingredients which are required to promote the growth of microorganism and inhibit the other microorganisms to grow is called selective medium.

Differential Medium:

A media contains specific ingredients which differentiate the same group organisms or closely related organisms is called differential medium.

NaCl is used in media to promote the growth of Staphylococcus aureus and inhibit the growth of other gram positive and negative bacteria.

A yellow halo color shows the bacterial fermentation of sugar which will distinguish Staphylococcus aureus with other strains.

So, it will be selective and differential medium which will allow to grow Staphylococcus aureus and differentiate with other bacteria.

In one experiment, Katherine observes that one of her cultured neurons responds to a rapid series of inputs at a single synapse by producing an action potential. In another experiment, she demonstrates that another cell responds to inputs at multiple synapses by producing an action potential. Katherine’s first experiment demonstrates ______________ and her second experiment demonstrates _______________.

Answers

Answer:

The answers are "Temporal Summation" and "Spatial Summation".

Explanation:

The experiment explained in the question is performed to observe action potentials and postsynaptic potentials in the neurons and how they affect them to behave differently.

In the first experiment, Temporal Summation is observed which occurs when one presynaptic neuron fires because of the changes in it's axon terminal.

In the second experiment, Spatial Summation is observed which occurs when ,unlike the temporal summation, more than one presynaptic neuron release neurotransmitters to cause the postsynaptic neuron to fire as a result.

I hope this answer helps.

Final answer:

Katherine's first experiment demonstrates temporal summation, while her second experiment demonstrates spatial summation.

Explanation:

In her first experiment, Katherine observes that a single synapse of her cultured neuron produces an action potential in response to a rapid series of inputs. This experiment demonstrates temporal summation, where inputs from a single synapse are integrated over time to produce an action potential. In her second experiment, Katherine demonstrates that inputs from multiple synapses can also produce an action potential. This experiment demonstrates spatial summation, where inputs from different synapses are integrated spatially to generate an action potential.

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​Heartbeat, digestion, respiration, and elimination of wastes are carried out by organ systems close to the central axis. These functions, close to the center of the body, operate or are ready to operate when the child is born. What principle of development does this represent?

Answers

Human growth and development

Explanation:

This is the principle of proximodistal development that additionally depicts the bearing of advancement. This implies that the spinal string creates before external parts of the body. The child arms create before the hands also, the hands and feet create before the fingers and toes. Finger and toe muscles (utilized in fine engine ability) are the last to create in physical development.Proximodistal development is the changes of growth in child to operate the body when the child ready to operate after birth.Hence, the proximodistal development represent the changes in these functions.

Skeletal muscle is _____.
a. "voluntary" because its contraction is deliberate
b. classified as a subtype of cardiac muscle
c. also known as smooth muscle
d. "involuntary" muscle and its movement is not deliberate
e. made up of cells with a single nucleus

Answers

Answer:

it should be A

Explanation:

Answer: Option A

Voluntary because its contraction is delibrate

Explanation:

Skeletal muscles are voluntary muscles that are controlled by the somatic nervous system (SNS). They are mostly found in the muscles and are muscles that are attached to bones. Attachment to bones is done by tendons which is made up of many bundles of collagen fibers. Contraction of skeletal muscles are deliberate i.e. voluntary and they are also involved in movement.

Match the following terms and definitions 1. gene alternate forms for a specific gene 2. allele a genetic characteristic of the individual 3. trait a portion of DNA which codes a specific heredity trait 4. chromosome a thread-like molecule in the nucleus composed of DNA chromosome a genetic characteristic of the individual

Answers

Answer:

1. Allele - alternate forms for a specific gene

2. Trait - a genetic characteristic of the individual

3. Gene - a portion of DNA which codes a specific heredity trait

4. Chromosome - a thread-like molecule in the nucleus composed of DNA

Explanation:

1. An allele is the variant form of a gene. According to Mendel, an organism receives two forms of a gene from each parent. This forms are called ALLELES.

2. A trait is a particular characteristics of an individual determined by its genetic content. In other words, genes determine characteristics or attribute an individual possesses, this attribute is the TRAIT.

3. A gene is a sequence of nucleotides present on the DNA molecule that codes for certain products (proteins) and pass on traits to offsprings. The gene is a segment of the DNA that holds the genetic information.

4. CHROMOSOMES are visible structures in the nucleus (eukaryotes) or cytoplasm (prokaryotes) formed by the wrapping up of histone proteins around DNA molecule. It is the form in which the genetic material is passed on.

Final answer:

The term gene is a portion of DNA that codes a specific heredity trait, Allele refers to alternate forms for a specific gene, Trait means a genetic characteristic of an individual, and Chromosome is a thread-like molecule in the nucleus composed of DNA. Each term has a key role in genetic inheritance.

Explanation:

The correct matching for the terms to their definitions are: 1. Gene should be matched with a 'portion of DNA which codes a specific heredity trait', 2. Allele can be defined as 'alternate forms for a specific gene', 3. Trait should be connected with 'a genetic characteristic of an individual', and 4. Chromosome could be best described as 'a thread-like molecule in the nucleus composed of DNA'

Gene is a unit of heredity which is transferred from a parent to offspring. Alleles are different versions of the same gene, each individual organism has two alleles for each gene - one from each parent. A trait is a characteristic that an organism can pass on to its offspring while a chromosome is a long thread-like grouping of genes, where each chromosome consists of DNA coiled and supercoiled around histones.

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Question: Laboratory 1: Tools For Scientific Inquiry Questions For Review 1. A Group Of Students Hypothesizes That The Amount Of Alcohol Produced On Depends On The Amount Of Glucose Supplied To The Yeast. They Want To Use 5%, 10%, 15%, 20%, 25%, And 30% Glucose Solutions. A. What Is The Independent Variable? B. What Is The Dependent Variable? C. What Control ...

Answers

Answer:

The independent variable is the amount of glucose being supplied and the dependent variable is the amount of alcohol being produced.

An independent variable can be described as the variable which is being changes in a scientific experiment so that its effects can be studies.

The dependent variable can be described as the variable which is under study and which gets affected by the changes in the independent variable.

The control that can be designed for this experiment can be another experiment in which the amount of glucose is kept constant in each of the yeasts.

You have spent time working with a population of beetles. Sexually mature males range in size from 2-6 cm in length. You realize that the females only mate with males that measure less than 3 cm long. If you measured allele frequencies at a single gene (locus) that contributes to overall length, would you expect this population to be in H-W equilibrium from one generation to the next?

Answers

Answer:

Option B, No

Explanation:

Complete question is as follows -

You have spent time working with a population of beetles. Sexually mature males range in size from 2-6 cm in length. You realize that the females only mate with males that measure less than 3 cm long. If you measured allele frequencies at a single gene (locus) that contributes to overall length, would you expect this population to be in H-W equilibrium from one generation to the next?

Select one:

a. Yes

b. No

Solution -

No, because Hardy Weinberg’s equilibrium theory is not applicable in practical scenario as it assumes that H-W equilibrium persists from one generation to the other only when these is no disturbing factor . These disturbing factors include – natural selection, non-random mating, genetic drift, gene flow and mutations. Since this theory works only in an idealized state where no such disturbances occur, it is very difficult to say that the beetle population can remain in H-W equilibrium. Also the females in the beetle population are selecting the males for mating thereby exhibiting sexual selection. Hence, H-W equilibrium will not be applicable.

Hence, option B

A relationship in which one organism depends on another for nourishment or some other benefit is specifically known as _____.

Answers

Answer: Commensalism

Explanation:

Commensalism is a biological association where two organisms interact and one of the two benefits while the other neither benefits nor get harmed.

A good example is epiphyte growing on Fruit trees. The epiphyte plant benefits by receiving physical support from the tree, while the fruit tree is totally unaffected

Consider the Color locus. At this locus there are two alleles - red and green. The red allele is dominant to the green allele. If the selection coefficient against the green/green homozygote is 0.30, what it the fitness of the green/green homozygote?

Answers

Answer:

0.7

Explanation:

Using Hardy-Weinberg equation of genetic variation being constant when disturbing factors such has mutation and others are removed.

p² + pq + q² = 1 and p + q = 1

where p² is the frequency of the homozygous dominant genotype (RR) and q² is the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype (rr) and 2pq is the frequency of heterozygous genotype (Rr). p represent the frequency of "R" and q represent "g". since the coefficient against the green/green homozygote is 0.30 then

the fitness of the green/green homozygote = 1 - 0.3 = 0.7

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