Suppose that you wish to fabricate a uniform wire out of1.15 g of copper. Assume the wire has aresistance R = 0.300 , and all ofthe copper is used.
(a) What will be the length of the wire?

(b) What will be the diameter of the wire?

When the beads reach the ends of the rod, the angular speed of the system is approximately 5.76 rad/s.

To find the angular speed of the system at the instant the beads reach the ends of the rod, we can use the principle of conservation of angular momentum. Initially, the angular momentum of the system is given by Li = Irodωi + 2(Ibead)ωi, where Irod is the moment of inertia of the rod about its center, Ibead is the moment of inertia of each bead about the center, and ωi is the initial angular speed of the system. When the beads reach the ends of the rod, the moment of inertia of the system changes, but the angular momentum remains constant. So, we have Li = Irodωf + 2(Ibead)ωf, where ωf is the final angular speed of the system. We can rearrange this equation to solve for ωf. Given the values of Irod, Ibead, and ωi, we can substitute them into the equation to find ωf.

Using the given values: mass of the rod = 190 g = 0.19 kg, length of the rod = 43 cm = 0.43 m, mass of each bead = 38 g = 0.038 kg, distance of the beads from the center = 10 cm = 0.1 m, and initial angular speed = 12 rad/s, we can calculate the moments of inertia as follows:

Irod = (1/12)mrodLrod2 = (1/12)(0.19)(0.43)2 = 0.002196 kg.m2

Ibead = mbeadR2 = (0.038)(0.1)2 = 0.000038 kg.m2

Now, substituting the values into the equation Li = Irodωi + 2(Ibead)ωi, we have (0.002196)(12) + 2(0.000038)(12) = (0.002196 + 2(0.000038))ωf. Solving for ωf, we get ωf ≈ 5.76 rad/s.

Final answer:

The magnitude of the magnetic force on a wire can be calculated using the formula F = B * I * L. In this case, the magnetic field created by the two outer wires can be calculated using Ampere's Law. Plugging in the values will give you the magnitude of the magnetic force on the wire.

Explanation:

The magnitude of the magnetic force on a wire can be calculated using the formula:

F = B * I * L

Where F is the magnetic force, B is the magnetic field, I is the current, and L is the length of the wire.

In this case, the magnetic field created by the two outer wires can be calculated using Ampere's Law:

B = (μ0 * I) / (2π * r)

Where μ0 is the permeability of free space, I is the current, and r is the distance from the wire.

Plugging in the values, the magnetic force per meter on either of the outer wires is:

F = (2 * 10-7 Tm/A * 20 A * 0.5 m) / (2π * 0.04 m)

Calculating this will give you the magnitude of the magnetic force on the wire.

Answer:

[tex]||\vec p || = 2.951\,\frac{kg\cdot m}{s}[/tex]

Explanation:

The initial momentum of the racquet ball is:

[tex]||\vec p || = (0.238\,kg)\cdot (12.4\,\frac{m}{s} )[/tex]

[tex]||\vec p || = 2.951\,\frac{kg\cdot m}{s}[/tex]

Answer:

V = 2.8cm/s

Explanation:

Please see attachment below.

This problem involves the concept of doppler effect.

Answer:

The speed at which the blood is flowing in cm/s = 1.4 cm/s

Explanation:

emitted frequency ( f ) = 1.1 * 10^6 Hz

detected frequency ( F ) = 21 Hz

speed of sound in tissues ( c ) = 1475 m/s

speed ( V ) = ?

To calculate for speed of blood flowing we apply the detected frequency formula :

F = [tex]\frac{2fV}{c}[/tex]

21 = ( 2* 1100000* V ) / 1475

therefore V = (21 * 1475) / (2 * 1100000)

                V = 30975 / 2200000

                 V = 0.0140 m/s = 1.4 cm/sec

Answer:

The time constant and its uncertainty is t ± Δt = 0.526 ± 0.057 s

Explanation:

If we make a comparison we have to:

y = A*(1-e^-(C*x)) + B

If the time remains constant we have to:

t = R*C = 1/C

In this way we calculate the time constant and its uncertainty. this will be equal to:

t ± Δt = (1/1.901) ± (0.2051/1.901)*(1/1.901) = 0.526 ± 0.057 s

Final answer:

The average force exerted by the bat on the ball is 2250 N.

Explanation:

To calculate the average force exerted by the bat on the ball, we can use the impulse-momentum principle. The impulse experienced by the ball is equal to the change in its momentum. We can calculate the initial momentum by multiplying the mass of the ball by its initial velocity, and similarly, we can calculate the final momentum using the mass and final velocity. By subtracting the initial momentum from the final momentum, we get the change in momentum. Finally, dividing the change in momentum by the time of contact gives us the average force.

Using the given values, the initial momentum of the ball is (0.15 kg) × (-40 m/s) = -6 kg·m/s, and the final momentum is (0.15 kg) × (50 m/s) = 7.5 kg·m/s. The change in momentum is 7.5 kg·m/s - (-6 kg·m/s) = 13.5 kg·m/s. Dividing this by the time of contact, 6.0 × 10^-3 s, gives us an average force of 2250 N.

Answer: The proton speed = 3 × 10^5m/s

Explanation: The electric P.E change the proton if It can reach the positive plate.

The workdone

I have attached an image of the diagram showing the nature of this motion

Answer:

Protons speed = 2.96 x 10^(5) m/s

Explanation:

A) At closest point of approach to the positive plate, the proton came to rest momentarily.

Thus;

Loss in Kinetic Energy = Gain in Electric potential energy

Hence;

(1/2)(mv^(2)) = eΔV

So, ΔV = (mv^(2))/(2e)

Mass of proton = 1.673 × 10-27 kilograms

Proton elementary charge(e) = 1.6 x 10^(-19) coulumbs

And from the question v = 200,000 m/s

So, ΔV = [1.673 × 10^(-27) x 200000^(2)] / (2 x 1.6 x 10^(-19)) = 209 V

This is less than 250V which is half of the charge at the positive plate shown in the diagram.

Therefore, the speed is insufficient to reach the positive plate from P to Q.

B) Gain in KE = qΔV

Thus; 1/2mvf^(2) - 1/2mvi^(2) = eΔV

Where, vf is final velocity and vi is initial velocity.

So simplifying, we get;

vf^(2) - vi^(2) = (2eΔV)/m

So, vf = √[(2eΔV)/m) + (vi^(2))

= √[(2 x 1.6 x 10^(-19) x 250)/(1.673 × 10^(-27)) + (200,000^(2))

= 2.96 x 10^(5) m/s

Final answer:

The diameter of the circular contact area is 30 mm and the maximum pressure at the center of the contact area is approximately 0.14 N/mm^2.

Explanation:

To calculate the diameter of the circular contact area, we need to determine the radius of the contact area first. The radius can be found by dividing the diameter of the ball by 2. In this case, the radius is 15 mm.

The area of the circular contact area can be calculated using the formula A = πr^2, where A is the area and r is the radius. The maximum pressure at the center of the contact area can be found by dividing the force applied on the plate by the area of the contact area.

Using these formulas, the diameter of the circular contact area is 30 mm and the maximum pressure at the center of the contact area is approximately 0.14 N/mm^2.

Explanation:

Given that,

Number of sodium ions at the negative electrode, [tex]Na^+=2.68\times 10^{16}[/tex]

Number of chloride ions at the positive electrode, [tex]Cl^-=3.92\times 10^{16}[/tex]

(a) The current flowing in the circuit is due to the positive as well as negative charges such that total charge becomes:

[tex]Q=(Na^++Cl^-)e[/tex]

[tex]Q=(2.68\times 10^{16}+3.92\times 10^{16})(1.6\times 10^{-19})[/tex]

Q = 0.01056 C

The current is given by :

[tex]I=\dfrac{Q}{t}[/tex]

[tex]I=\dfrac{0.01056}{1}=10.56\ mA[/tex]

So, the current passing between the electrodes is 10.56 mA.

(b) The direction of electric current is towards negative electrodes.

Explanation:

(a)   First, we will calculate the charge of sodium ions as follows.

              q = ne

                  = [tex]2.68 \times 10^{16} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19} C[/tex]

                  = [tex]4.288 \times 10^{-3} C[/tex]

Now, charge of chlorine ions is calculated as follows.

            q' = ne

                = [tex]3.92 \times 10^{16} \times 1.6 \times 10^{-19} C[/tex]

                = [tex]6.272 \times 10^{-3} C[/tex]

Hence, the current will be calculated as follows.

             i = [tex]\frac{q}{t} + \frac{q'}{t}[/tex]

               = [tex]\frac{4.288 \times 10^{-3} C}{1.00} + \frac{6.272 \times 10^{-3} C}{1.00}[/tex]

               = [tex]10.56 \times 10^{-3} A[/tex]

               = 10.56 mA

Therefore, current passing between the electrodes is 10.56 mA.

(b)   Since, positive ions are moving towards the negative electrode. And, current is the flow of ions or electrons therefore, the direction of current is towards the negative electrode.

Answer:

5.51 m

Explanation:

From the question,

The energy used to stretch the spring = the potential energy of the rock.

(1/2)ke²  = mgh ................. Equation 1

Where k = spring constant, e = extension/compression, m = mass of the rock, g = acceleration due to gravity, h = height of the rock above the ground

make h the subject of the equation.

h = ke²/2mg ....................equation 2

Given: k = 5400 N/m, e = 1 m, m = 48 kg.

Constant: g = 9.8 m/s²

Substitute into equation 2

h = 5400(1²)/(2×48×9.8)

h = 5400/940.8

h = 5.51 m.

Hence the height of the rock = 5.51 m

Answer:

0.0800 is time constant for slope.

Explanation:

See attached pictures for explanation.

To find the time constant from the slope, use the formula RC = -1/slope, where R is the resistance and C is the capacitance. Calculate the slope by taking the ratio of voltage change to time change between two data points.

To determine the time constant from the slope, we can use the formula:

RC = -1/slope

where R is the resistance in the circuit and C is the capacitance of the capacitor.

In this case, since we are only given the voltage and time data, we need to find the slope by taking the ratio of the change in voltage to the change in time between any two points.

Let's take the first and second data points:

Slope = (V2 - V1) / (t2 - t1)

          = (3.0000 V - 1.4790 V) / (0.036894 s - 0.015843 s)

Now, calculate the slope:

Slope = (1.5210 V) / (0.021051 s)

Slope ≈ 72.27 V/s

Once we have the slope, we can plug it into the formula RC = -1/slope to find the time constant:

RC = -1 / (72.27 V/s)

Calculate RC:

RC ≈ -0.0138 s/V

So, the time constant (τ) is approximately 0.0138 seconds per volt (s/V). This value represents the product of resistance and capacitance in the circuit.

https://brainly.com/question/34087350

#SPJ3

Answer:

Parallel, R2, R1, series

Explanation:

From Ohm's law, V=IR hence making current the subject of the formula then [tex]I=\frac {V}{R}[/tex]

Since R1>R2 eg 4>2 then current for individual connection of R2 will be greater than that for R1 for example, assume V is 8 then if R2 we will have 8/2=4 A but for R1 we shall have 8/4=2 A.

When in parallel, the equivalent resistance will be given by [tex]\frac {1}{R1}+\frac {1}{R2}[/tex] for example here it will be 1/4+1/2=3/4. Still taking V of 8 then I= 8/(3/4)=10.667 A

When in series connection, equivalent resistance is given by adding R1 and R2 hence using the same figures we shall have 4+2=6 hence I=8/6=1.33A

We can conclude that the arrangement of current from greatest will be parallel, R2, R1, series

According to the amount of current, the arrangement will be "Parallel, R2, R1, Series".

By using Ohm's law

→ Voltage (V) = Current (I) × Resistance (R)

or,

→ I = [tex]\frac{V}{R}[/tex]

Since R1 > R2

Let, Current (V) = 8 then the resistance will be:

R2 = [tex]\frac{8}{2}[/tex] = 4 A

and,

R1 = [tex]\frac{8}{2}[/tex] = 4 A

When the resistance is in parallel connection,

= [tex]\frac{1}{R1} + \frac{1}{R2}[/tex]

= [tex]\frac{1}{4} +\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

By taking L.C.M, we get

= [tex]\frac{1+2}{4}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{3}{4}[/tex] and,

The current be:

→ I = [tex]\frac{8}{\frac{3}{4} }[/tex] = 10.667 A

When the resistance is in series connection,

= R1 + R2

= 4 + 2

= 6 and,

The current be:

→ I = [tex]\frac{8}{6}[/tex] = 1.33 A

Thus the response above is appropriate.

Find out more information about resistor here:

https://brainly.com/question/24858512

Answer:

a) 2.25 m

b) 2.625 m

Explanation:

Refraction is the name given to the phenomenon of the speed of light changing the the boundary when it moves from one physical medium to the other.

Refractive index is the ratio of the speed of light in empty vacuum (air is an appropriate substitution) to the speed of light in the medium under consideration.

In terms of real and apparent depth, the refractive index is given by

η = (real depth)/(apparent depth)

a) Real depth = 3.00 m

Apparent depth = ?

Refractive index, η = 1.333

1.333 = 3/(apparent depth)

Apparent depth = 3/1.3333 = 2.25 m.

Hence the bottom of the pool appears to be 2.25 m below the ground level.

b) Real depth = 1.5 m

Apparent depth = ?

Refractive index, η = 1.333

1.3333 = 1.5/(apparent depth)

Apparent depth = 1.5/1.3333 = 1.125 m

But the pool is half filled with water, there is a 1.5 m depth on top of the pool before refraction starts.

So, apparent depth of the pool = 1.5 + 1.125 = 2.625 m below the ground level

The apparent depth of a swimming pool is measured by considering the water's refractive index. With the pool completely filled, the bottom appears to be 2.25m deep. When halfway filled, the pool appears to be 2.625m deep.

When light travels from a medium with a high refractive index to one with a lower refractive index, the light is refracted, or bent, making objects appear closer than they actually are. We can calculate this apparent depth by using the formula d' = d / n, where d' is the apparent depth, d is the actual depth, and n is the refractive index.

(a) If the pool is completely filled with water, for a person looking from above ground, the bottom of the pool appears to be closer than it actually is. Substituting the given values into the formula, we get the apparent depth: d' = 3.00m / 1.333 = 2.25 m below ground level.

(b) If the pool is halfway filled with water, the apparent depth of the water is calculated in the same way. However, the depth beneath the water is below the refractive index border and is not subject to refraction. Therefore, the apparent total depth of the partially filled pool is the sum of the actual depth of the air part (1.50m) and the apparent depth of the water part (1.50m / 1.333 = 1.125m). This gives us 2.625m.

https://brainly.com/question/32255407

#SPJ3

Answer:

a) 2 x10^7 eV

b) 2 x10^4 keV

c) 20 MeV

d) 0.02 Gev

e) 3.2 x 10^-12J

Explanation:

The potential difference = 20 x 10^6 V

The charge on the proton = 1.6 x10^-19

The work done to move the proton will be basically the proton will acquire if it accelerates.

Kinetic energy gained = ΔVq = 20 x10^6 x 1.6 x 10^-19

                                                 =3.2 x 10^-12J or 2 x10^7 eV

2 x10^7 eV = 2 x10^4 keV = 20 MeV = 0.02 Gev

Explanation:

Below is an attachment containing the solution.

Answer:

  V_inside = 36 V

Explanation:

Given  

We are given a sphere with a positive charge q with radius R = 0.400 m Also, the potential due to this charge at distance r = 1.20 m is V = 24.0 V.  

Required

We are asked to calculate the potential at the centre of the sphere  

Solution

The potential energy due to the sphere is given by equation

V = (1/4*π*∈o) × (q/r)                                          (1)

Where r is the distance where the potential is measured, it may be inside the sphere or outside the sphere. As shown by equation (1) the potential inversely proportional to the distance V  

V ∝ 1/r

The potential at the centre of the sphere depends on the radius R where the potential is the same for the entire sphere. As the charge q is the same and the term (1/4*π*∈o) is constant we could express a relation between the states , e inside the sphere and outside the sphere as next

V_1/V_2=r_2/r_1

V_inside/V_outside = r/R

V_inside = (r/R)*V_outside                               (2)

Now we can plug our values for r, R and V_outside into equation (2) to get  V_inside

V_inside = (1.2 m )/(0.600)*18

               = 36 V

  V_inside = 36 V

Answer:

36 V

Explanation:

The solid conducting sphere is a positive charge

and has radius R₁ = 0.6m

at a point R₂ = 1.20 m, the electric potential V = 18.0 V

V, electric potential = K q/R where k  = 1/4 πε₀

V is inversely proportional to R

V₁ = electric potential at the center

V₂ = electric potential at 1.2 m

then

V₁ /V₂ = R₂ / R₁

V₁ = V₂ ( R₂ / R₁) = 18.0 V ( 1.2 / 0.6 ) = 36 V

Answer:

A plane of infinite length and width.

Explanation:

For the case of the sphere, we should consider spherical coordinates.

You can move around the sphere without changing your distance from the center of the sphere, however you can alter your azimuthal angle and polar angle, since they are symmetric in spherical coordinate system.

r --> Cannot change

Φ --> Free to change

θ --> Free to change

For the case of the infinite cylinder, we should consider cylindrical coordinates.

You can change your height and angular coordinate, but you cannot change your distance from the axis of the cylinder.

r --> Cannot change

θ --> Free to change

z --> Free to change

For the case of the infinite plane, we should consider cartesian coordinates.

Since the length and width of the plane is infinite, we cannot recognize whether we are getting closer or further away.

x --> Free to move

y --> Free to move

z --> Free to move

Therefore, in the case of infinite plane you have the most freedom to move about without your view of the object changing.

Final answer:

An infinite plane allows the most freedom of movement without changing the view, due to its infinite symmetry. In contrast, a sphere and a cylinder have more limited symmetrical properties, resulting in a restricted freedom of movement to keep the view unchanged.

Explanation:

When comparing the freedom to move above a sphere, an infinitely long cylinder, and an infinite plane, the plane provides the most freedom without changing your view of the object. On a sphere, any move results in a different orientation or distance from the surface. With the cylinder, movement along the axis does not change the view, but any other direction does. However, the infinite plane allows movement in any direction on a two-dimensional plane without changing the viewed geometry or orientation.

From a mathematical perspective, this question revolves around symmetry and geometric invariance under transformation. The infinite plane exhibits infinite symmetry; therefore, no matter how you move parallel to its surface, the view remains unchanged. Conversely, a sphere has rotational symmetry around its center, and a cylinder along its axis, limiting the directions in which one can move without altering the perceived distance or orientation.

The net electrostatic force on particle 3 due to the other two particles depends on the charges of these particles. When Q2 = 80.0 nC, the forces from the other two particles cancel out and when Q2 = -80.0 nC, the forces add up.

The electrostatic force on a charge due to other charges can be determined using Coulomb’s law. For the setup in the question, the deletion force on particle 3 because of particles 1 and 2 can be obtained by vectorially adding the forces it experiences due to each of these particles separately. When Q2 = -80.0 nC, the forces that particle 3 experiences due to particle 1 and particle 2 are in the same direction this time, therefore they add up to give the net force on particle 3. We can determine the exact value by substituting the given values in the equation for Coulomb's Law.

https://brainly.com/question/33523926

#SPJ3

Answer:

I₁ = 0.32 A

I₂ = 0.16 A

I₃ = 0.16 A

I₄ = 0.16 A

Explanation:

Part A

The equivalent resistance of the circuit is

Req = R₁ + (R₂||(R₃ + R₄))

Req = 15 + (45||(20 + 25))

Req = 15 + (45||45) = 15 + ((45×45)/(45+45)) = 15 + 22.5 = 37.5 Ω

Part B

From Ohm's law,

V = IR

Ieq = V/(Req) = 12/(37.5) = 0.32 A

Part C

Current through R₁ is the same as Ieq as R₁ is directly in series with the voltage source.

I₁ = 0.32 A

Then, this current flows through the (R₂||(R₃ + R₄)) loop too as the entire loop is in series with R₁

This current is them split into two branches of R₂ and (R₃ + R₄), since these two branches have equal resistances (45 Ω and 45 Ω), 0.32 A is split equally between the R₂ and (R₃ + R₄) branch.

Current through R₂ (using current divider)

I₂ = (45/90) × 0.32 = 0.16 A

Current through (R₃ + R₄) = 0.16 A too.

And because the two resistors are in series, the same current flows through them.

I₃ = I₄ = 0.16 A

First, we resolve the parallel circuits using the formula for resistors in parallel to get the equivalent resistance, Rp. We then substitute this into the series circuits to get the total equivalent resistance, Req. Using Ohm's Law, we can calculate the equivalent current, Ieq.

To solve this, we first need to determine the equivalent resistance of the whole circuit. As it is a combination of parallel and series circuits, we have to start by replacing the resistors in parallel. Using the formula for resistors in parallel, 1/R = 1/R2 + 1/R3, the parallel combination of R2 and R3 can be replaced by one resistor with resistance Rp = 1/ ((1/R2) + (1/R3)). This gives Rp = 13.333Ω. Now we have a simple series circuit with R1, Rp, and R4. The equivalent resistance of the whole circuit is then Req = R1 + Rp + R4 = 15.0Ω + 13.333Ω + 25.0Ω = 53.333Ω.

In part B, we apply Ohm's Law: I = E/R to get the equivalent current through the circuit. Using our values for E (12V) and Req (53.333Ω), we find Ieq = 0.225A.

https://brainly.com/question/14993917

#SPJ11

Answer:

A three times as large as the initial value

Answer:

Explanation:

note:

solution is attached due to error in mathematical equation. please find the attachment

Answer:

(a) 1.2 J

(b) 5 m/s

(c)  6.3 J

Explanation:

(a) Kinetic energy at A

Ek = 1/2mv².................. Equation 1

Where Ek = Kinetic energy at A, m = mass of the particle, v = velocity at A.

Given: m = 0.6 kg, v = 2.0 m/s

Substitute into equation 1

Ek = 1/2(0.6)(2²)

Ek = 0.6(2)

Ek = 1.2 J.

(b)

Speed at point B

Ek' = 1/2mv'²............... Equation 2

Make v' the subject of the equation,

v' = √(2Ek'/m).................. Equation 3

Where, Ek' = kinetic energy at B, v' = velocity at B.

Given: Ek' = 7.5 J, m = 0.6 kg,

Substitute into equation 3

v' = √[(2×7.5)/0.6]

v' =√(15/0.6)

v' = √25

v' = 5 m/s.

(c)

Wt =  Δ kinetic energy from A to B

Where Wt = total work done as the particle moves from A to B.

Wt = 1/2m(v'²-v²)

Wt = 1/2(0.6)(5²-2²)

Wt = 0.3(25-4)

Wt = 0.3(21)

Wt = 6.3 J

Answer:

The proposal is bad and has many mistakes in itself.

Explanation:

-Telescopes are preferably to be placed far from cities, ideally a remote place on a mountain or raised land. It should not be erected at sea level.

-It should not be erected at sea level. High humidity present at sea level clouds observations made as infrared observations are not possible at sea level.

-Dome should not be heated at all. Strong air currents are generated during heating which inturn ruins observations. Also, a heated dome will emit infrared radiation which ultimately swamps astronomical signals.

Final answer:

Coastal location and heated dome are unsuitable for infrared telescope due to atmospheric interference, light pollution, and dome-related issues. Consider remote location, dry climate, and remote operation for optimal observations. Consult experts and consider environmental impact.

Explanation:

Criticisms of Building an Infrared Telescope Near the Ocean in a Heated Dome:

While the intention might seem well-meaning, building an infrared telescope near the ocean in a heated dome has several drawbacks:

Unsuitable Location:

Atmospheric interference: Coastal areas have higher humidity and turbulent air, which negatively affects infrared observations due to water vapor absorption and image distortion.

Light pollution: City lights and nearby human activity create significant light pollution, impacting observations of faint infrared sources.

Dome Issues:

Cost: Building and maintaining a heated dome adds significant expense compared to an open-air observatory.

Heat distortion: Heating the dome creates air currents that can distort telescope observations.

Ventilation challenges: Maintaining controlled airflow and humidity within the dome can be complex and costly.

Alternatives:

Remote location: Building the telescope at a high-altitude, dry site with minimal light pollution would be more suitable for infrared observations.

Remote access and automation: Modern telescopes can be operated remotely, eliminating the need for astronomers to be physically present during observations.

Additional considerations:

Expertise: Consult with professional astronomers for advice on telescope placement and operation.

Environmental impact: Consider the potential ecological impact of the telescope and dome on the coastal environment.

Overall, while the concern for astronomer comfort is understandable, a coastal location with a heated dome is not optimal for an infrared telescope. Exploring alternative locations and remote operation technologies would be more effective and cost-effective for achieving high-quality scientific observations.

Answer:

Number of turns on the secondary coil of the adapter transformer is 10.

Explanation:

For a transformer,

    [tex]\frac{V_{s} }{V_{p} } = \frac{N_{s} }{N_{p} }[/tex]

where [tex]V_{s}[/tex] is the voltage induced in the secondary coil

           [tex]V_{p}[/tex] is the voltage in the primary coil

          [tex]N_{s}[/tex] is the number of turns of secondary coil

         [tex]N_{p}[/tex] is the number of turns of primary coil

From the given question,

    [tex]\frac{487*10^{-3} }{120}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{N_{s} }{2464}[/tex]

⇒    [tex]N_{s}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{2462*487*10^{-3} }{120}[/tex]

            = 9.999733

  ∴   [tex]N_{s}[/tex] = 10 turns

Answer:

607,145 turns

Explanation:

Output voltage, that is secondary voltage,Es = 120 volts

Input voltage, that is primary voltage, Ep = 487/1000 = 0.487 volts

Number of turns in secondary = Ns

Number of turns in primary, Np = 2464

∴ Es/Ep = Ns/Np

Ns = Es * Np/Ep = 1`20 X 2464/0.487 =  607,145 turns ( Step up transformer)

Answer:

Explanation:

acceleration of test tube

= ω² R

= (2πn)² R

= 4π²n²R

n = no of rotation per second

= 3700 / 60

= 61.67

R = .10 m

acceleration

= 4π²n²R

= 4 x 3.14² x 61.67² x .10

= 14999 N Approx

Final answer:

The acceleration at the end of a test tube 10 cm from the axis of rotation in a centrifuge spinning at 3700 rpm is calculated to be 15051.2 m/s², demonstrating the significant centrifugal forces generated by such devices.

Explanation:

To calculate the acceleration at the end of a test tube that is 10 cm from the axis of rotation in a centrifuge spinning at 3700 rpm, we first need to convert the rotational speed to radians per second. The formula to convert revolutions per minute (rpm) to radians per second (ω in rad/s) is ω = (2π×rpm)/60. Thus, ω = (2π× 3700)/60 = 387.98 rad/s. Next, we use the formula for centripetal acceleration, a = ω²×r, where r is the radius of the circle (distance from the center of rotation to the point of interest) in meters. Given that r = 10 cm = 0.1 m, the acceleration a = (387.98)^2× 0.1 = 15051.2 m/s².

This centripetal acceleration is much larger than Earth's gravitational acceleration, indicating the extreme forces at play in a centrifuge's operation, which is crucial for its role in laboratory settings for sedimentation of materials.

Answer: F = 113.4.[tex]10^{-3}[/tex]N

Explanation: Net Force is the total forces acting in an object. In this case, there are two forces acting on the charge: one due to magnetic field (Fm) and another due to electric field (Fe). So, net force is

F = Fe + Fm

Force due to electric field

To determine this force:

Fe = q.E, where q is the charge and E is electric field.

Calculating:

Fe = q.E

Fe = 1.8.[tex]10^{-6}[/tex].4.6.[tex]10^{3}[/tex]

Fe = 8.28.[tex]10^{-3}[/tex]N

Force due to magnetic field: It can only happens when the charge is in movement, so

Fm = q.(v×B), where v represents velocity and B is magnetic field

The cross product indicates that force is perpendicular to the velocity and the field.

Calculating:

Fm = q.v.B.senθ

As θ=90°,

Fm = q.v.B

Fm =  1.8.[tex]10^{-6}[/tex].3.1.[tex]10^{6}[/tex].1.2.[tex]10^{-3}[/tex]

Fm = 6.696.[tex]10^{-3}[/tex]N

F, Fm and Fe make a triangle. So, using Pythagorean theorem:

F = [tex]\sqrt{Fe^{2} + Fm^{2} }[/tex]

F = [tex]\sqrt{(8.28.10^{-3} )^{2} +(6.696.10^{-3} )^{2} }[/tex]

F = 113.4.[tex]10^{-3}[/tex]N

The net force acting on the charge is F = 113.4.[tex]10^{-3}[/tex]N

Answer with Explanation:

We are given that

Mass of block=m=4.9 kg

Initial velocity, u=0

[tex]F=(2.6-x^2) i N[/tex]

Initial position, x=0

a.We have to find the kinetic energy of the blocks as it passes through x=2.1 m

Work done=Kinetic energy=[tex]\int_{0}^{2.1}(2.6-x^2) dx[/tex]

Kinetic energy of the block=[tex][2.6 x-\frac{x^3}{3}]^{2.1}_{0}[/tex]

Kinetic energy of the block=[tex]2.6\times 2.1-\frac{(2.1)^3}{3}-0=2.373 J[/tex]

Kinetic energy of the block=2.373 J

b.Initial kinetic energy of block=[tex]K_i=\frac{1}{2}(4.9)(0)=0[/tex]

According to work energy theorem

[tex]W=K_f-K_i[/tex]

[tex]2.373 =k_f-0[/tex]

[tex]k_f=2.373 J[/tex]

Hence, the maximum kinetic energy of the block =2.373 J

Answer:

Φ = 0.469 Wb

Explanation:

Given,

N = 230 turns

Radius, r = 10 cm

Magnetic field, B = 0.0650 T

Magnetic flux  = ?

now,

Φ = NBA

Φ = 230 x 0.0650 x π x r²

Φ = 230 x 0.0650 x π x 0.1²

Φ = 0.469 Wb

Hence, the magnetic flux is equal to Φ = 0.469 Wb

The magnitude of the magnetic flux ΦB through the coil is approximately 0.0496 T·m². when A circular coil that has N = 230 turns and a radius of r = 10.0 cm.

Given:

N = 230 turns

r = 10.0 cm = 0.1 m

B₀ = 0.0650 T

The magnetic flux through a coil can be calculated using the formula:

ΦB = B₀ × A × N,

The area of the coil, we can use the formula for the area of a circle:

A = π × r²,

Let's calculate the magnetic flux:

A = π × r² = 3.14159 × (0.1)² = 0.0314159 m²

ΦB = B₀ × A × N = 0.0650 × 0.0314159 × 230 = 0.04958735 T·m²

Therefore, the magnitude of the magnetic flux ΦB through the coil is approximately 0.0496 T·m².

To know more about magnetic flux:

https://brainly.com/question/1596988

#SPJ6

Explanation:

Below is an attachment containing the solution.

Answer:

Acceleration=[tex]4.9 /s^2[/tex]

Tension=29.4 N

Explanation:

We are given that

[tex]m_1=6 kg[/tex]

[tex]m_2=2 kg[/tex]

We have to find the magnitude of the acceleration of the two objects and the tension in the cord.

Tension, [tex]T=m_1(a+g)[/tex]

[tex]m_2g-T=m_2a[/tex]

Substitute the values

[tex]m_2g-m_1(a+g)=m_2a[/tex]

[tex]m_2g-m_1a-m_1g=m_2a[/tex]

[tex]g(m_2-m_1)=m_2a+m_1a=a(m_1+m_2)[/tex]

[tex]a=\frac{(m_2-m_1)g}{m_1+m_2}[/tex]

Substitute the values

[tex]a=\frac{(2-6)\times 9.8}{2+6}=-4.9m/s^2[/tex]

Where [tex]g=9.8m/s^2[/tex]

Hence, the magnitude of the acceleration of the two objects =[tex]4.9 m/s^2[/tex]

Substitute the values of a

[tex]T=m_1(a+g)=6(-4.9+9.8)=29.4 N[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

The magnetic field is in north south direction . In order to cut lines of forces to the maximum extent  , car has to move in east- west direction ie towards east or towards west to produce maximum emf.

emf produced = B L V

where B is horizontal component of earth magnetic field

L is length of rod

v is velocity of car carrying antenna rod .

The car should be moving east or west to produce the maximum emf induced in the antenna.

When a car drives through the Earth's magnetic field, the maximum emf induced in its vertical radio antenna occurs when the car is moving in a direction perpendicular to the magnetic field. In this case, the Earth's magnetic field points north with a dip angle of 38°. To produce the maximum emf, the car should be moving east or west.

https://brainly.com/question/31516286

#SPJ3

Answer:

Change in momentum =15.01kgm/s

Impulse applied by bat = 15.01Ns

Explanation:

Please see attachment below.