Species are normally subdivided into populations that are more or less scattered, that may be separated at one time, but may merge together again, and successfully reproduce, at a later time. Tattersall and DeSalle describe this process as:_________
a. reticulation
b. speciation
c. phylogenesis
d. ontogenesis

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Reticulation

Explanation:

Reticulation is a process which explains the origin of many organisms formed by the merging of the two lineages. The species are formed when the species in the evolutionary process got scattered, formed two lineages and then again reproduced and merged.

Studies suggest that the origin of many species in the angiosperm phylum is the result of the process of the reticulation.

Thus, Reticulation is the correct answer.


Related Questions

Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. How is lactose classified?

Answers

Answer:

as a disaccharide

Explanation:

A monosaccharide is a class of sugars that can not be hydrolyzed into smaller units. They are the simplest and smallest unit of sugars. They are also the building block of complex sugars.

Disaccharides are the class of sugar that is made by the joining of two monosaccharides. These monosaccharides are joined together by glycosidic linkage.

For example, lactose is a disaccharide which is made up of glucose and a galactose molecule which are joined together by a glycosidic bond.

Final answer:

Lactose is classified as a disaccharide, a category of carbohydrates, because it is composed of two monosaccharides, glucose and galactose, joined together by a glycosidic linkage.

Explanation:

Lactose, known as milk sugar, falls under the category of disaccharides. Disaccharides are a type of carbohydrate that consists of two monosaccharide molecules. In the case of lactose, these monosaccharides are glucose and galactose. These two monosaccharides are linked together by a glycosidic linkage. This linkage is formed through a dehydration synthesis reaction, whereby a water molecule is released. Thus, lactose is classified as a disaccharide due to its composition of two monosaccharide units.

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Describe the different types of DNA mutations: a. point mutation b. base substitution c. frameshift d. triplet repeat

Answers

Answer:

In point mutation, alteration affects only one single nucleotide.

In base substitution mutation, one single nucleotide is swapped with another nucleotide

In frameshift mutation, the addition or deletion of one or more base pairs could lead to shift in the arrangement

In triplet repeat mutation, a base pair repeats until it reaches threshold limit

Explanation:

In point mutation, alteration affects only one single nucleotide. This alteration could be insertion, deletion or substitution of only one single nucleotide.  

In base substitution mutation, one single nucleotide is swapped with another nucleotide during the replication process of DNA.  

In frameshift mutation, the addition or deletion of one or more base pairs could lead to shift in the arrangement of triple nucleotide bases.  

For instance if the base pair is

AAT  GCC  CGA TCT

If insertion occurs at second base pair, then the frame will shift as below

AAT  GAC  CCG ATC  T….

In triplet repeat mutation, a base pair repeats until it reaches threshold limit and then becomes unstable

These figures show the four levels of protein structure: primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structure. Which level of protein structure is characteristic of some, but not all, proteins?1. Secondary level of protein structure
2. Tertiary level of protein structure
3. Quaternary level of protein structure

Answers

Answer:

3. Quaternary level of protein structure

Explanation:

The quaternary level of protein structure is exhibited by those proteins that have more than one polypeptide chain. The proteins that have two or more separate polypeptide chains are said to have multi subunits. These polypeptide chains of a protein may be identical or different from each other. The arrangement of these protein subunits represents the quaternary structure of these proteins. For example, hemoglobin is a protein that exhibits the quaternary level of protein structure.

A 75-year-old client is diagnosed with atrial fibrillation and chronic congestive heart failure. The physician orders a combination of digoxin and diuretics to treat the client's diseases. Recent laboratory results indicate that the client's potassium level is 2 mEq/L. This client is at risk for which problem?
Digoxin toxicity T/F

Answers

Answer:

It's True

Explanation:

There are true evidences related to the Digioxins and Diuretics toxicity in patients with atrial fibrillation and chronic congestive heart failure. The Digioxins causes the Potassium to be flowed out of body by means of kidneys filtration fluctuation and the person eventually becomes hypokalemic. This can eventually end up in death.

Corrine was getting a cup of coffee at a local convenience store when the cashier was confronted by masked gunmen. As the cashier reached below the counter to press an alarm, one of the gunmen shot her. Two weeks later, Corrine is still badly shaken. She is too frightened to run routine errands in her neighborhood. She startles easily. Although she is troubled by random flashbacks to the event, she finds that she can recall surprisingly little about it when she is directly asked. Corrine is MOST likely to be diagnosed with ______ disorder.

Answers

Corrine is MOST likely to be diagnosed with PTSD disorder.

Behavior genetics rests in part on the premise that, to the extent that genetic factors are important, individuals who _________ should be more similar than are individuals who _________.

Answers

Answer:

1.are closely related

2.unrelated

Explanation:

Final answer:

Behavior genetics suggests that individuals who are more genetically related are likely to be more similar in personality and behavior than those who are less genetically related. Twin and adoption studies are common methods for exploring the relative influences of genetics and environment on behavior.

Explanation:

Behavior genetics rests on the premise that, to the extent that genetic factors are important, individuals who are more genetically related should be more similar than are individuals who are less genetically related. Studies in behavior genetics utilize methods like twin studies and adoption studies to disentangle the influences of genes and environment on behavior. Twin studies compare identical and fraternal twins to ascertain how much a trait is genetically determined, while adoption studies look at similarities between adopted individuals and their biological versus adoptive parents to assess genetic and environmental influences.

Furthermore, research suggests that personality traits can be significantly determined by genetics, although environmental factors also play a key role. Individuals are often found to have similar preferences and behaviors as their genetically related family members, highlighting the genetic influence on personality and behavior. Nevertheless, experiences such as community interactions, media consumption, and friendships contribute importantly to personality development, showcasing the interplay between genetics and environment.


Which of the following pathogens are unicellular, eukaryotic organisms that belong to the Kingdom Protista?
a.) viruses

b.) fungi

c.) bacteria

d.) protozoa

Answers

Answer:d.) protozoa

Explanation:protozoa is a unicellular eukaryotic organism that belongs to kingdom protista. Protozoans depends on other organism for there food because they do not produce there own food. Some protozoa can be parasitic in nature.

Example of protozoa is amoeba.

D.) Protozoa...........

Why are fixed pieces of equipment, such as bouncy seats, high chairs, and playpens, detrimental to an infant's development?

Answers

Answer:

These equipment limit children  opportunities to experience diverse and  active childhood  experiences.

Explanation:

Parts of  child  basic developmental  psychology  is socialization through  interaction with different environments of  diverse objects and individuals. This stimulate brain developments,  builds child's confidence, approach and allow movements from one location to another. However, fixed piece equipment   which  although may provide rooms for slight skeletal exercises,do not allow interaction with other infants in diverse  environments, and  this  limit exposure  to diverse and active childhood experiences.  

Final answer:

Fixed equipment like bouncy seats, high chairs, and playpens can be detrimental to infants' development by limiting physical activity and exploration, delaying milestones in physical development, and reducing interaction with the environment, which is essential for sensory-motor skills, cognitive development, and social and emotional growth.

Explanation:

Fixed pieces of equipment such as bouncy seats, high chairs, and playpens are sometimes seen as detrimental to an infant's development for a few key reasons. These devices can limit the amount of physical activity and exploration an infant engages in, which are critical components of their development. Physical movement, like crawling and walking, helps in the development of muscle strength, coordination, and brain development. When infants spend a lot of time in these devices, they miss out on opportunities to explore their environment, learn how to navigate obstacles and develop their motor skills naturally through free play.

Moreover, excessive use of these devices can also delay milestones in physical development such as rolling over, sitting up, or crawling. Engaging with the environment directly also enhances sensory-motor skills and cognitive development through touching, feeling, and manipulating objects. Interaction with caregivers and the environment, which is lessened when an infant is confined, is crucial for social and emotional growth as well.

While these pieces of equipment can be beneficial for short periods, ensuring that infants have plenty of floor time and opportunities for direct interaction with their surroundings and people is essential for holistic development. Using these devices judiciously, while prioritizing active, supervised play, can mitigate potential developmental drawbacks.

The most common forms of peptic ulcer are duodenal and gastric ulcers. What are the most common risk factors for peptic ulcer disease?

Answers

Answer:

Peptic ulcer are the open sores which form inside the lining of the stomach  and in the upper portion of the small intestine.

The stomach pain is most common symptom of this disease. It is not caused by spicy food and stress.

It is caused by the infection of bacterium Helicobacter pylori and it cam also be caused due to long term intake of the non steroidal anti inflammatory drug.

The risk is person should not take spicy food once he is detected by this disease and should discontinue the drugs causing this disease.

Final answer:

The most common risk factors for peptic ulcer disease include infection with Helicobacter pylori, the use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), smoking, alcohol consumption, and stress.

Explanation:

The most common risk factors for peptic ulcer disease include:

Infection with Helicobacter pylori: This gram-negative bacterium is found in over 90% of duodenal ulcers and approximately 80% of stomach ulcers.Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs): Frequent or long-term use of NSAIDs, such as aspirin or ibuprofen, can increase the risk of peptic ulcers.Smoking: Smoking damages the protective lining of the stomach and increases the production of stomach acid, making ulcers more likely to form.Alcohol: Excessive alcohol consumption can irritate the stomach lining and contribute to the development of ulcers.Stress: While stress alone does not cause ulcers, it can worsen symptoms and delay healing.

         

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When a species is moved from its native area to a new area, it can become an invasive species and damage its new ecosystem. What is one reason these species are able to do damage to an ecosystem? a. When moved to the new location, the species fills in unoccupied niches.
b. Having been moved from its home country, the introduced species does not know the local language so is unable to communicate with its new neighbors and gets angry, lashing out at any nearby organisms and doing great harm.
c. When a species is transported, it leaves behind its predators and the diseases that previously kept its population in check. Therefore the species is able to grow to large and damaging numbers.
d. In nearly every case, when a species is moved across an ocean and into a new habitat it becomes a harmful invasive species simply because it is in a new habitat.

Answers

Answer:

c. When a species is transported, it leaves behind its predators and the diseases that previously kept its population in check. Therefore the species is able to grow to large and damaging numbers.

Explanation:

An invasive species is the species that is not native to the ecosystem in which that species has entered. Invasive species are responsible for the destruction of the ecosystem because they outcompete with native species and reproduce faster than them.

This happens because in the new ecosystem they do not have their natural predators which control their number and not the pathogens that cause disease in them. Therefore they grow exponentially and outcompete native species.

Peter recently traced his headaches, dizziness, and rapid heartbeat to eating soy food products. Most likely, Peter has a(n) ____.

Answers

Answer:

Peter has a "soy allergy".

Explanation:

Biochemically, immune system of the people with soy allergy identifies soy proteins as toxic. Therefore, their immune system signals the release of immunoglobulin antibodies. Next time when the person comes in contact with soy proteins, the antibodies recognize them and produce histamine. This release of histamine result into allergic reactions. According to the given conditions in the question, headaches, dizziness, and rapid heartbeat are most likely the result of soy allergy.

A situation where there are more than two alternative forms of a given gene would be called ________.

Answers

Answer:Genetic polymorphism

Explanation:occurrence of multiple form of a gene called allele at a locus within a population.

Meiosis results in independent assortment of maternal and paternal chromosomes. If 2n = 6 for a given organism and there is no crossing over, what is the chance that a gamete produced by this diploid organism will receive only paternal chromosomes?

Answers

Final answer:

The chance that a gamete will receive only paternal chromosomes when 2n=6, assuming no crossing over and independent assortment, is 1 in 8, or 12.5%.

Explanation:

The subject of the question is independent assortment in meiosis. If an organism has a diploid number of 6 (2n = 6), for each of the 3 pairs of chromosomes, there is an equal chance of receiving either the maternal or paternal chromosome.

Since independent assortment ensures that gametes receive a random combination of these chromosomes, there are 23 possible combinations, or 8 possible combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes. The chance of receiving only paternal chromosomes in a gamete is therefore 1 in 8, or 12.5%.

It is important to note that this calculation assumes no crossing over occurs, which typically introduces further genetic variation.

Other than genes, name three other regions of chromosomes? What are their functions? Which of them represent euchromatin? Heterochromatin?

Answers

Answer:

Other than genes, chromosomes has following regions :

1) Centromere : It is the attachment point for spindle microtubules (heterochromatic)

2) Telomeres : These are the natural ends, the tips of linear chromosomes that has a role to stabilize the chromosome (Heterochromatic)

3) Intergenic regions : Intergenic DNA acts to control the  genes nearby but it has not currently known function.

4) Origin of replication - It is the site where DNA synthesis begins (euchromatic)

Explanation:

Which of the following is not true?

a. oxygen 16 evaporates more readily from the ocean than oxygen 18
b. oxygen 16 and oxygen 18 are found in roughly equal amounts in ocean water
c. the nucleus of oxygen 18 contains two more neutrons than the nucleus of oxygen 16
d. both oxygen 16 and oxygen 18 are found in the shells of marine organisms

Answers

Answer:

Option (B)

Explanation:

Oxygen-16 and Oxygen-18 are both an isotope of oxygen. The O-16 is a lighter isotope and it indicates a warmer climate and the O-18 is a heavier isotope and it is a good indicator of colder climate. These differences in the climate occur due to the effects of both the factors namely precipitation and evaporation.

The O-16 isotope being lighter evaporates much rapidly, so in the tropical regions where the temperature is relatively high, there occur a high amount of O-18 in the ocean. In addition to this, when the water vapor starts to condense, it starts to rain and the water droplets produced during rainfall are enriched in the concentration of O-18, as it is much heavier than the O-16.

These amount of O-16 and O-18 are always found to be present in unequal amounts or proportion in the ocean water as these processes such as precipitation and evaporation takes place continuously.

Thus, the correct answer is option (B), which is not true.

An individual who has encountered a large black bear while camping out in the woods with friends will most likely experience an increase in all of the following hormones except __________.A. epinephrine
B. norepinephrine
C. cortisol
D. progesterone

Answers

Answer:

D. progesterone

Explanation:

Answer:

The correct answer choice is D.) Progesterone

Explanation:

Progesterone is a female reproductive hormone

Koch's postulates established criteria for proving that a specific organism causes a specific disease. Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria given by Koch's postulates? 1. The pathogen isolated from a pure culture must cause the disease in a healthy lab animal. 2. The pathogen must be isolated from inoculated animals and must be different from the original organism. 3. The pathogen must be isolated from the diseased host and grown in pure culture. 4. The same pathogen must be present in every case of the disease.

Answers

Answer:

2. The pathogen must be isolated from inoculated animals and must be different from the original organism.

Explanation:

Koch postulates says that every disease is caused by a pathogen. That pathogen can be isolated from the host and can be grown in pure culture. If this pure culture is inoculated into a healthy host than it must cause the disease in that host. The same pathogen can be again isolated from the second host.

Therefore according to Koch's postulated the pathogen must be isolated from the inoculated animals and must be the same as the original organism therefore the second option is wrong.

science and engineering techniques used to manipulate living cells to produce useful products

Answers

Yes that would be genetic modification or stem cell research, such as the induced pluripotent stem cell that is completely man made.

The vagina is at risk for infection because of its location and because it opens to the outside of the body. What is a protective mechanism of the vagina to keep from becoming infected?
A) Maintains an alkaline pH of 7 to 8, which destroys invading bacteria
B) Normal vaginal pH is acidic (4 to 5), which protects from infection
C) Normal vaginal flora act as phagocytes of invading bacteria
D) Produces its own natural antibiotics

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option B) "Normal vaginal pH is acidic (4 to 5), which protects from infection".

Explanation:

Vaginal flora, or vaginal microbiota, is defined as the group of microorganisms that a healthy vagina normally has. At normal conditions, vaginal pH is acidic, which functions as a protective mechanisms because vaginal flora prosper at this condition and avoids unwanted bacteria to growth. A pH above 5, is an non healthy environment and could cause vaginal infections such as bacterial vaginosis.

Bacteria and fungi are important to humans because they: A. help control weeds. B. pollinate crop plants. C. provide shelter. D. deplete nutrient minerals in the soil. E. provide foods and antibiotics.

Answers

Answer:

E. provide foods and antibiotics.

Explanation:

sometimes microorgansims plays important role for human such as;

Bacteria;

Present in our gut help to digest food and the gut of animal such sa cattle help to digest cellulose.Bacteria are used in the production of food products such as yogurt and cheese.Help in pest control such as Bacillus thurigiensis.Help in the production of certain medicines and supplement such as Insulin

Fungi;

There are many mushrooms we can eat and fungi are also involved in the production of certain food products such as wine, bread.Fungi are involved in production of certain medicines such as penicillin is produced from Penicillium.

             

A biologist observes that a particular plant species is found in a forest but not in a nearby meadow. She hypothesizes that the plants could grow in the meadow but are not found there because their seeds have yet to land in the meadow. Which of the following would be the most appropriate way to scientifically evaluate this hypothesis?

1. constructing a logical argument about why her hypothesis must be true
2. measuring how far the seeds typically travel from their parent plant
3. scattering seeds in several areas of the meadow and observing whether they start to grow
4. observing how long it takes the seeds to eventually reach the meadow

Answers

Answer:

3

Explanation:

An hypothesis is a proposed explanation to an observation  or an intelligent guess about a phenomenon made with little evidence at the beginning before proceeding to do further investigation or research. The most appropriate way to scientifically evaluate the hypothesis is to scatter seeds in several areas of the meadow and observed whether they will start to grow.

A snowshoe hare produces a white coat during the winter, allowing it to better hide from predators. As a result, it has thrived and over time a majority of snowshoe hares in the population also produce white coats in the winter. Which of the statements is/are true?a. The white-coated hare has higher fitness than other hares that do not change coat color.
b. The white-coated hare has a competitive advantage in its environment.
c. The new population of hares resulted from natural selection.
d. The alleles for a white winter coat increased over time.
e. all of the above

Answers

Answer:

A snowshoe hare produces a white coat during the winter, allowing it to better hide from predators. As a result, it has thrived and over time a majority of snowshoe hares in the population also produce white coats in the winter. Which of the statements is/are true?

The white-coated hare has a competitive advantage in its environment.

The new population of hares resulted from natural selection.

Explanation:

The analogy shown above describes the law of natural selection which explains why the organism that fits into a new environment survives as a result of inheritance of a distinct trait that differentiate them from others. Also, the organism has greater advantage over the environment because it has device means of survival over time

Answer:

a

Explanation:

to me it seems correct

Aerobic respiration is ultimately the reaction of glucose with oxygen to generate carbon dioxide, water, and energy. However, in a cell this process involves the transfer of electrons from glucose to carriers such as NAD over a lengthy series of steps. Why don't cells employ the direct reaction of glucose with oxygen to generate energy?

Answers

Answer:

Cells don't employ the direct reaction of glucose with oxygen to generate energy because the direct transfer of electrons from glucose to oxygen occurs via a combustion reaction that is incompatible with life.

Explanation:

Aerobic respiration is a process by which chemical energy is released in cells during the breakdown of food e.g glucose.

Cells don't employ the direct reaction of glucose with oxygen to generate energy because the direct transfer of electrons from glucose to oxygen occurs via a combustion reaction that is incompatible with life.

NAD is used to temporarily store high energy electrons harvested from glucose molecules in a series of gradual steps in the cytoplasm.

Answer:

Glucose is a very  high energy rich stable compound.Therefore to extract the energy it contains it must first be broken down in a step wise reactions called Glycolysis to generate ATPs needed  in subsequent  steps.

If glucose molecules reacted directly with oxygen(burnt in oxygen). This is an example of  combustion reaction, which  involves the transfer of electrons between  glucose and oxygen atoms  through pathways in which the   energy produced  can not be harness by the cells.it  is  therefore not physiologically compatible with normal  cellular reactions of life.

_______________ refers to people's ideas about their own and others' mental states; that is, how feelings, perceptions, or thoughts might predict behavior.

Answers

Answer:

Theory of mind is the correct answer.

Explanation:

Theory of mind relates to the capability to know and understand the other's and own mental states and also to recognize that how the mental states, ideas, passions, intentions, and prospects that are separate from one's own.The development of a theory of mind is important during the developmental method. Theory of mind is important because it helps to know and predict the reaction and expression of others.

Women with an inadequate weight gain during pregnancy are at higher risk of giving birth to an infant with what?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is -  intrauterine growth restriction.

Explanation:

Intrauterine growth restriction or IUGR is a condition that occurs during the pregnancy of growth of the fetus in the mother's womb. It is found in women with normal or underweight conditions.

This can result in a baby small for gestational age which is also called SGA which is a case of the weight being below ten percent for the gestational age.

Thus, the correct answer is -  intrauterine growth restriction.

___________________ are mutualistic fungi that help provide nutrients to trees, shrubs, and other plants.

Answers

The answer is Mycorrhizae. ;)

Which of the following cheeses would likely spoil the most quickly? a. A high fat, high salt variety. b. A low fat, low salt variety. c. A low fat, high salt variety. d. A high fat, low salt variety.

Answers

Answer:

b

Explanation:

Answer: A low fat, low salt variety

Explanation: just got it right

Redundancy occurs when ___________specify one __________. Wobble pairing explains how it's possible for one_______ to read more than one codon. Wobble pairing allows a redundant code to be read by a small number of_________

Answers

Answer:

More than one mRNA codon,

Amino acid

tRNA

tRNAs

Explanation:

An amino acid acids are normally specified by one mRNA codon. Redundancy occurs when more than one mRNA codon specify one Amino acid.

Wobble pairing explains how its possible fore one tRNA to read more than one one codon. tRNA has anti-codons that bind to specific mRNA and in wobble pairing after the first two positions are paired the third binding will be more loose.

Wobble pairing allows a redundant code to be read by a small number of  tRNA.

A _____ reinforcer is any reward that satisfies a basic, biological need, such a hunger, thirst, or touch.

Answers

The question is incomplete as it does not have the options which are:

a. primary

b. negative

c.positive

d. secondary

Answer:

A) primary

Explanation:

In psychology, a reinforcer refers to a stimulus which strengthens the behaviour and increases the chances or probability of the desired response.

The reinforcer can be of two types on the basis of pairing with a stimulus as a primary reinforcer and secondary reinforcer.

The primary reinforcer refers to the stimulus which is present in the humans from birth and is evolved as a part of the evolution for survival. The primary reinforcer does not depend on the stimulus and therefore is considered unconditioned reinforcer. Since it has evolved as part of the evolution for survival, therefore, strengthen the behaviour such as sex, hunger, water, touch.

Thus, A) primary  is the correct answer.

A primary reinforcer satisfies basic biological needs and provides innate reinforcing qualities without the need for learning; examples include food, water, and touch.

A primary reinforcer is any reward that satisfies a basic, biological need, such as hunger, thirst, or touch. Primary reinforcers have innate reinforcing qualities and are not learned. They include necessities like water, food, sleep, shelter, sex, and touch. Importantly, primary reinforcers are linked to survival and are intrinsically rewarding; they fulfill our physical needs and can also provide pleasure. For example, jumping into a cool lake on a hot day would be inherently reinforcing as it both meets the physical need of cooling down and is pleasurable.

If Jacques were to hold his breath the air in his lungs would be kept at a constant temperature. Would it be safe for Jacques to hold his breath while ascending from the bottom of the lake to the surface?

Answers

Answer:

It isn't safe at all...

Explanation:

Even if remains at constant temperature, while ascending to the surface of the lake Jacques lung pressure will increase if he hold its breath. Thats because the pressure of water weakens and the pre-hold breath in lungs will expand as he rises. This can cause serious lung damage and drowning is possible.

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