Scientists often form hypotheses based on particular observations. Which of the following is NOT true of a good hypothesis?
A) A good hypothesis is complex.
B)A good hypothesis is testable.
C) A good hypothesis is logical.
D)A good hypothesis predicts future events.

Answers

Answer 1
the correct answer is A, a good hypothesis does not have to be complex

Related Questions

1. A segment of DNA encoding a protein or an RNA molecule is a

Answers

A gene is the segment of DNA that encodes a protein or RNA molecule, if it is present in the standard groups of three, then it is a codon. 

What is the most likely depositional environment for an evaporite unit?

Answers

it would have to be a strong yet warm environment.

What effect does weather have on the process of photosynthesis?

Answers

I think the answer is: Although the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis are not affected by changes in temperature, the light independent reactions of photosynthesis are dependent on temperature. They are reactions catalyzed by enzymes. As the enzymes approach their optimum temperatures the overall rate increases.

You are dispatched to a sick call. the patient was just extricated from a bathtub where he was trapped under the shower door for 2 weeks. this 72-year-old male had limited access to water from the bathtub faucet. the patient is complaining of disorientation, nausea, and vomiting. what do you think is the underlying cause for the illness?

Answers

The appropriate response is Acute Renal Failure. Body liquids can ascend to hazardous levels when kidneys lose their sifting capacity. The condition will likewise make electrolytes and waste material amass in your body, which can likewise be dangerous. Intense kidney disappointment is likewise called intense kidney damage or intense renal disappointment.

Most caves and caverns originate by solution of limestone.
a. true
b. false

Answers

False. They originate with a chemical reaction, not with limestone.

Suppose that a dominant allele (P) codes for a polka-dot tail and a recessive allele (p) codes for a solid colored tail. If two heterozygous individuals with polka-dot tails mate, what's the probability of the phenotype and genotype combinations of the offspring?

A. 25 percent chance of a polka-dot tail and 75 percent chance of a solid colored tail (25 percent PP; 50 percent Pp; 25 percent pp)
B. 50 percent chance of a polka-dot tail and 50 percent chance of a solid colored tail (50 percent PP; 50 percent pp)
C. 75 percent chance of a polka-dot tail and 25 percent chance of a solid colored tail (25 percent PP; 50 percent Pp; 25 percent pp)
D. 75 percent chance of a polka-dot tail and 25 percent chance of a solid colored tail (75 percent Pp; 25 percent pp)

Answers

The correct answer is C. As Pp (heterozygous allele) crosses with Pp( another heterozygous allele), the resultant genotypes would be PP, Pp, Pp, pp. This confirms that 25 percent of the population would be homozygous polka-dotted, another 25 would be homozygous solid colored, and rest of the 50 percent would be heterozygous polka. Thus, a total of 75 percent would be polka-dotted.

Which tree harvesting method promotes the growth of younger trees by selectively cutting mature trees over a period of 10 years?

Answers

 the answer is shelter wood cutting

Answer:

Shelterwood cutting.

Explanation:

Shelterwood cutting is a technique employed in silvicultural processes that promotes the growth of younger trees by selectively cutting mature trees over a 10-year period.

In this technique is made the progression of cuttings that promotes the growth of seedlings resulting in the harvesting of mature trees and promotion of the growth of younger trees. Generally this technique is used in old forests where mature plants are causing shade of young plants. Generally young plants are long-lived and upon receiving light, after thinning the old plants, begin to develop properly and promises a longer duration of the forest.

Four of the trans-neptunian objects, with their orbital eccentricities, are listed. which one has the most eccentric (most elongated, least round) orbit?

Answers

Trans-neptunian Objects (TNO) is a planet in our solar system. The first TNO discovered was Pluto. TNOs are classified into two groups:
1. Kuiper Belt Objects
2. Scattered Disc Objects
There are various TNOs discovered till date some of which are:
1. Pluto
2. Lempo
3. 90482 Orcus
4. 136199 Eris

Answer: Pluto is a TNO with the most eccentric orbit.

Which of these CORRECTLY explains the difference between the processes of photosynthesis and respiration?
A) The Krebs cycle occurs only in the chloroplast.
B) Glycolysis takes place only in the mitochondria.
C) The Calvin cycle takes place only in the chloroplast.
D) The electron transport chain happens only in the mitochondria.

Answers

The answer to your question is C (The Calvin cycle takes place only in the chloroplast).

Answer:

The correct answer would be C) The Calvin cycle takes place only in the chloroplast.

The major difference between photosynthesis and respiration is that photosynthesis takes place only in plants while respiration takes place in all the living organisms including plants and humans.

Green plants and few bacteria contain special organelle called chloroplast which enables them to perform photosynthesis.

Hence, Calvin cycle (light independent phase of photosynthesis) takes place only in plants that too in chloroplasts.

In contrast, Krebs cycle usually takes place in mitochondria in both plants and animals and glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm of the cell.

The electron transport chain takes place in mitochondria in animals whereas in plants it takes place in both mitochondria and thylakoid membrane.

Jared Harless shattered his elbow in a snowboarding accident and decided to visit a doctor at Smith Union Hospital for treatment. While at the hospital, he interacts with many individuals who attempt to make his experience at the hospital a positive one. In most large organizations, several people are responsible for the buying decisions. These buying center participants can include employees who have a formal role in purchasing decisions (i.
e., the purchasing or procurement department), members of the design team for a new product, top managers, and employees who will be using the item being purchased. These employees are likely to play different roles in the buying process. Vendors must understand these roles and adapt the marketing process appropriately for different individuals and for the buying center as a whole.

Answers

Final answer:

The healthcare industry involves a complex array of buying center participants, with healthcare providers like doctors and nurses playing a direct role in patient care and other actors involved in the purchase decisions. The market dynamics of supply and demand are present in healthcare, with institutions as suppliers and patients as consumers.

Explanation:

The question addresses the complexities of the healthcare industry, particularly the dynamics of buying decisions within healthcare organizations like hospitals, where health care providers play various roles in the process. It illustrates how decisions related to healthcare services and goods, such as those made at Smith Union Hospital for Jared Harless's elbow treatment, are influenced by various actors with different responsibilities, from front-line medical personnel to behind-the-scenes procurement teams.

Within these organizations, there is a distinction between direct care providers, like doctors and nurses, who also act as recommenders for certain products and treatments, and indirect actors like procurement departments and insurance companies that facilitate the purchase of healthcare services and goods. Moreover, healthcare leaders are integral in establishing team structures and ensuring efficient operation within this system.

Through this lens, the healthcare market can be seen as one where supply and demand dynamics are at play, with healthcare institutions and professionals forming the supply side, and patients constituting the demand for medical visits, treatments, and pharmaceuticals.

Rescuers have just restored circulation to a 72 year old patient who was in cardiac arrest the patient's vital signs are b/p

Answers

Final answer:

This question pertains to the monitoring of a cardiac arrest patient's vital signs post-resuscitation. Blood pressure, among other vital signs, is critical in determining a patient's health status, especially in older individuals. It is worth noting that it is a standard practice in the medical field to closely monitor these crucial indicators after an episode of cardiac arrest.

Explanation:

The subject in this scenario appears to be about a patient who was in cardiac arrest and their vital signs after resuscitation. The term 'b/p' refers to blood pressure, a critical vital sign in assessing a patient's health. After restoring circulation in a cardiac arrest patient, it is essential to monitor their vital signs. This includes blood pressure to ensure that oxygen and nutrients are being properly transported throughout the body. High or low blood pressure can be indicative of an underlying concern that needs immediate treatment.

Vital signs like blood pressure, pulse, respiration rate, and temperature are crucial indicators of body function and health. It's a medical practice to keep monitoring these vital signs and restoring them to optimal levels if something like a cardiac arrest happens. In this case, the patient being 72 years old is also significant as age can play a big role in recovery ability and patient treatment requirements.

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Final answer:

CPR is performed after cardiac arrest to restore circulation and minimize damage to essential organs like the brain. Post-arrest care can also include inducing controlled hypothermia to slow the patient's metabolic rate and reduce the heart's workload. Monitoring vital signs post-restoration is essential.

Explanation:

The situation described relates to a patient who has experienced a cardiac arrest and has had circulation restored thanks to interventions likely including cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). CPR is an emergency technique that involves manually compressing the blood within the heart in order to push it into the pulmonary and systemic circuits. This is crucial, especially for the brain since irreversible damage and death of neurons can occur within a few minutes of loss of blood flow. Post-arrest care can also involve cooling the patient's body to around 91 degrees Fahrenheit, a method known as controlled hypothermia, to reduce the heart's workload by slowing the patient's metabolic rate. Monitoring and maintaining vital signs such as blood pressure post-restoration is a critical aspect of medical care for such patients.

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Which ofthe follwoig is not a component of nucleotides, the building blocks of dna?

Answers

Sulfhydryl Oxygen group

A nurse on a hematology/oncology floor is caring for a client with aplastic anemia. which would not be included in the client's discharge instructions?

Answers

Use a disposable razor when shaving.

 In aplastic anemia there are usually less erythrocytes, leukocytes, and platelets. The nurse should encourage behaviors than will lead to less risk of bleeding, so instead of using a disposable razor to shave, the patient should use, for example, electric razors.



why is it important to understand the nutritional content of food

Answers

"Food labels can help you limit the amount of fat, sugar and cholesterol in your diet by making it easy for you to compare one food item with another and choose the one with lower amounts."
So that you know what types of ingredients and nutritional values are in the type of food that you eat.

How is light a limiting factor in oceans?

Answers

 they would have adaptions to survive extreme pressures, bioluminescence to attract prey, or the ability to detect dead organisms that drift down from layers above.

The organisms present in the ocean do not have to deal with the extremes of temperature or moisture. However, the main limiting factors in oceans are the availability of sunlight and concentration of dissolved oxygen and nutrients in ocean.

What is limiting factor?

Limiting factors are the variables which cause a change in the process of photosynthesis. In case of oceans, Light is a limiting factor because an inadequate amount of light in the oceans leads to a decrease in the number of photosynthetic planktons. The photosynthetic planktons utilize light energy to form their food through the process of photosynthesis.

At lower intensities of light, it works as a limiting factor because an increase in light intensity can cause an increase in rate of photosynthesis. At higher intensities, further increase in light intensity does not increase the rate of photosynthesis here, light is not acting as a limiting factor.

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The part of the cytoskeleton made from the protein actin is called a

Answers

The primary types of fibers comprising the cytoskeleton are microfilaments, microtubules, and intermediate filaments.

Most biological molecules are joined by:

Answers

Covalent bonds is the correct answer

What are the roles of chlorophyll and chloroplasts in photosynthesis?

Answers

there go hope that helped you

You are writing a science report and want to find accurate trustworthy information. Which would be the best resource?

Answers

a encyclopedia a magnize article the science clubs website a newspaper

Answer:

Encyclopedia

Explanation:

I am taking the test rn

Flvs

The experiments conducted by this scientist demonstrated the principle of biogenesis.
a. darwin
c. pasteur
b. mendel
d. redi

Answers

answer is c. pasteur 
c - Pasteur is the one 

Why is dna called the "double helix"? select one:
a. its structure was discovered by two workers, james watson and francis crick, a doubling of research effort at a building informally called the "helix" at cambridge university.
b. dna is double stranded, with the two strands both in the form of a helix entwined around each other like strands of a rope.
c. when dna interacts with rna, the two molecules form a twisted double strand.
d. it seemed like a catchy name even though it has nothing to do with the structure of dna?

Answers

B. DNA is double stranded, with the two strands both in the form of a helix entwined around each other like the strands of a rope. 

Generally saturated fats increase serum ldl cholesterol, with the possible exceptions of

Answers

The answer to this question would be: coconut oil and dairy.
Coconut oil has been advertised to have a improve cholesterol but actually, it has a combination of bad cholesterol or LDL and good cholesterol or HDL. As far as I know, the research is not concluded yet to tell whether it really has more benefit for your cholesterol level, but another option is less likely to be true. 

How many unique ip addresses could be made in a fixed length ip address system using 6 bits?

Answers

Sixty-four (64) unique IP addresses could be made in a fixed length IP address system using 6 bits. 
The IP address is a number assigned to any item that is connected to the internet. IP stands for Internet Protocol, it's function to work over a dynamic network. It is composed of two parts, it uniquely identifies a specific interface on the network.
Final answer:

In an IP address system using 6 bits, the total number of unique IP addresses that can be created is 64. This is calculated by raising 2 (representing the two possible states of a bit, 0 or 1) to the power of the number of bits, which in this case is 6.

Explanation:

An IP address is a unique address that identifies a device on the internet or a local network. When dealing with IP addresses in the context as mentioned in the question, the topic revolves around binary representations and bit combinations. In an IP address system using 6 bits, the number of unique IP addresses that could be made can be calculated as 2 power of the number of bits, which in this case is 6.

This means we have 2^6 = 64 unique IP addresses.

So, in a fixed length IP address system using 6 bits, we can create a total of 64 unique addresses. This is because each bit has two possibilities (either 0 or 1), and with 6 bits, it results in a total of 2^6 or 64 possible combinations.

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_______ is an indicator of programmed cell death.

Answers

Apoptosis is the term for programmed cell death. This can occur for a variety of reasons, usually due to irreparable organelle damage, such as from DNA mutagens, microbe infection, or metabolic waste buildup. Lysosomes begin to empty their hydrolytic wastes and self-digest the cell's contents upon apoptosis in a process called autophagy, or literally "self eating."

Pallor, shortness of breath, infection, bleeding gums, predominance of immature and abnormally functioning leukocytes, and low numbers of mature neutrophils in a young child may indicate a likely diagnosis of:

Answers

Acute Lymphocytic Leukemia aka. ALL

Pallor, shortness of breath, infection, bleeding gums, predominance of immature and abnormally functioning leukocytes, and low numbers of mature neutrophils in a young child may indicate a likely diagnosis of acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia is a type of cancer that affects the white blood cells. It is the most common type of cancer in children, accounting for about 30% of all childhood cancers. The symptoms of ALL can vary depending on the stage of the disease, but they often include pallor, shortness of breath, infection, bleeding gums, and fatigue.

The predominance of immature and abnormally functioning leukocytes in the blood is a key diagnostic feature of ALL. These immature cells, called lymphoblasts, are unable to fight infection effectively, which can lead to the development of infections. The low numbers of mature neutrophils in the blood also contribute to the increased risk of infection.

If a child presents with the symptoms of ALL, it is important to see a doctor right away for diagnosis and treatment. Treatment for ALL typically involves chemotherapy and radiation therapy. With early diagnosis and treatment, the majority of children with ALL can be cured.

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Which one of the following is NOT a branch of anthropology?
archeology
osteology
pathology
taphonomy

Answers

the correct answer would be taphonomy because it is a branch of paleontology, not anthropology. Hope this helps!

taphonomy is the answer

Which of the following are not properties of enzymes?

Answers

Final answer:

Enzymes are biological catalysts that accelerate chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy. They have various properties, including lowering activation energy, providing an optimal environment, and participating in reactions. However, enzymes cannot break down the β-1,4 glycosidic linkage in cellulose, as it requires a specialized enzyme not present in humans.

Explanation:

Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions in the human body. They are not affected or used up in the reaction, making them reusable. Enzymes have specific properties that allow them to function effectively, including lowering the activation energy of a reaction, providing an optimal environment for the reaction, and participating directly in the chemical reaction. One property that is not exhibited by enzymes is the ability to break down the β-1,4 glycosidic linkage in cellulose, which requires a special enzyme that is absent in humans.

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Choose which tissue would line the uterine (fallopian) tubes and function as a "conveyer belt" to help move a fertilized egg towards the uterus.

Answers

The tissue that would line the uterine (fallopian) tubes and function as a "conveyer belt" to help move a fertilized egg towards the uterus is simple columnar epithelium. The correct option is C.

The simple columnar epithelium is the tissue that lines the uterine fallopian tubes and acts as a "conveyor belt" to assist in moving a fertilised egg towards the uterus.

Simple columnar ciliated cells, often known as cilia, are part of the epithelium in the uterine tubes. The synchronised beating of these cilia aids in advancing the fertilised egg or embryo towards the uterus.

The simple columnar epithelium's cilia activity serves as a "conveyor belt" for the delivery of the fertilised egg.

Thus, the correct option is C.

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Your question seems incomplete, the probable complete question is:

Choose which tissue would line the uterine (fallopian) tubes and function as a "conveyer belt" to help move a fertilized egg towards the uterus.

A) Stratified squamous epithelium

B) Simple cuboidal epithelium

C) Simple columnar epithelium

D) Transitional epithelium

Which organs are responsible for destroying old red blood cells?

Answers

Spleen is also known as the graveyard of RBC, if it helps u 

1.Stem cells in bone marrow make all blood cells. RBC lives about 120 days. 
RBC are destroyed in Spleen. This process takes place as: 
- RBCs are ruptured. 
- Heme and globin portions separated. 
- Globin > amino acids. 
- Iron transferred in transferrin into the blood > into bone marrow for reuse. 
- Heme > Biliverdin > Bilirubin > liver >small intestine. 



2.Reticuloendothelial cells participate in the destruction of senescent RBC's. The spleen is a well suited site of RBC destruction given that cells must course through 2-3 micron apertures in the walls of splenic sinusoids, which is an ultimate test of cell pliability. Rigid cells are entrapped and phagocytosed. Intra-erythrocyte inclusions are removed during splenic circulation. 
Destruction of RBCs happens within reticuloendothelial cells – NOT in the circulation. Globin and heme get recycled, porphyrin is degraded to bilirubin which is conjugated by the liver and excreted in the gut. Rate limiting step is conjugation. Indirect (unconjugated) bilirubin is result if this doesn’t happen. 
Normally ~10% RBCs lyse while in circulation Þ Hgb gets released into circulation and rapidly disassociates into alpha and beta dimers which are bound by haptoglobin. The Hgb/haptoglobin complex is transported to the liver. If haptoglobin is depleted, free Hgb circulates and is filtered by the kidney. Free Hgb is either reabsorbed by renal tubular cells or excreted as free Hgb in the urine. 


3. Another site reported that 
RBC destroyed in liver and spleen, by macrophages. 2 million destroyed per second. 
Hb is released and iron is recovered and returned to bone marrow.

Match the fiber with the origin(s) and destination(s) of the impulses it carries: visceral afferent fibers carry information from __________.

Answers

Visceral afferent fiber carry information from THE ORGANS IN THE VENTRAL BODY CAVITY TO THE CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM.
The fiber carry sensory impulses from the visceral organs and the blood vessels to the central nervous system. The visceral afferent fiber is a part of the autonomic nervous system.
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