Answer:
C.
Explanation:
From the mid-1950s to the mid-1960s, Southam conducted clinical research on people without their informed consent, in which he injected cancer cells (HeLa cells) into their skin, to see if their immune system would reject the cancer cells or if the cells would grow. He did this to patients under his care or others' care, and to prisoners. In 1963, doctors Avir Kagan, David Leichter and Perry Fersko of Jewish Chronic Disease Hospital objected to the lack of consent in his experiments.
The Tuskegee Syphilis Study did not inform participants they were being injected with cancer. The study observed untreated syphilis in African American men for 40 years without providing treatment.
Explanation:The Tuskegee Syphilis Study is the example where researchers did not inform participants that they were being injected with cancer. The study began in 1932 and continued for 40 years, and its purpose was to observe the natural progression of untreated syphilis in African American men. The researchers withheld information and treatment from the participants, even after penicillin became readily available to treat the disease.
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Will someone please awnser my question please
BLANK often involves a medical professional assigning a numeric value to a medical procedure for insurance reimbursement purposes.
Answer:
Medical Reimbursement
Explanation:
Medical Reimbursement often involves a medical professional assigning a numeric value to a medical procedure for insurance reimbursement purposes.
A numeric code is also assigned to the patient which explains the details of the medical services that have been incurred on the employee. This code also helps to claim the finances that have been utilized and is owed by the insurance company.
I hope the answer is helpful.
Thanks for asking.
4.
The process of releasing a mature ovum into the fallopian tubes each month is called ___.
A. Menstruation
B. Ovulation
C. Uterus
D. Cervix
E. Vagina
The process of releasing a mature ovum into the fallopian tubes each month is called ovulation.
Answer:
The process of releasing a mature ovum into fallopian tubes each month is called ovulation
B) option is correct
Peter read that eating a diet full of processed foods and fats won't help to promote the good bacteria in our colon. These good bacteria keep us healthy. Which breakfast is a good way to introduce good bacteria to our gut?
a. bacon and hash browns
b. yogurt and granola
c. eggs and sausage
d. cereal with milk and a glass of orange juice
e. omelet with processed cheese and yellow peppers
Answer:
The answer is: b. Yogurt and granola. d. cereal with milk and a glass of orange juice
Explanation:
Good bacteria in the intestinal microbiota perform many functions, including the following:
1.-Metabolize nutrients and medications.
2.-Help the immune system to prevent pathogenic invasions.
3.-Maintain the structure and functioning of the gastrointestinal tract.
This is achieved by following a diet rich in fruits and vegetables to promote a healthy intestine.
Research suggests that eating whole grains and plants helps grow good bacteria. Certain foods with active cultures, such as yogurt, kimchi and kombucha, can also add useful bacteria to the system.
The answer is: b. Yogurt and granola. d. cereal with milk and a glass of orange juice.
Probiotics are live bacteria which are good for human body.
These bacteria help with digestion. These good bacteria are found in unprocessed foods and they help produce various food products for human consumption.
They can be found in yeast, vinegar, cheese, yogurt, pickles and granola. These bacteria help keep gut of human body healthy. Excessive processed goods are not healthy for human body.
The correct answer is B. Yogurt and Granola.
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Candace wakes up in the night to use the bathroom. She tries to find her way in the darkness by choosing to feel around with her hands. Which part of the nervous system is MOST associated with this type of directed activity?
The peripheral nervous system is most associated with Candace's directed activity of feeling around with her hands in the darkness.
Explanation:The part of the nervous system that is most associated with Candace's directed activity of feeling around with her hands in the darkness is the peripheral nervous system.
The peripheral nervous system is made up of the nerves that extend from the brain and spinal cord to the rest of the body. It includes sensory nerves that carry information from the body's senses to the central nervous system.
In this case, Candace is relying on the sensory nerves in her hands to provide information about her environment and help her navigate in the darkness.
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Medical education in the United States has focused almost exclusively on curative medicine, while preventive care has been given scant attention. This is misguided. Medical schools should invest as much time in teaching their students how to prevent illness as in teaching them how to cure it.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument above?
(A) Many contagious diseases can be prevented with vaccines.
(B) In 1988, for every three cents the United States spent on prevention, it spent 97 cents on curative treatment.
(C) The number of students enrolled in medical school is the highest it has ever been.
(D) More people die each year from disease than from accidental causes.
(E) As the population grows, the number of doctors in certain specialties has not been keeping pace.
The statement that strengthens the argument is that many contagious disease can be prevented with vaccines
Explanation:
Once the person is infected the measure must be taken properly to treat the person, isolate them and give them the necessary vaccination and more knowledge must be given to people on the preventive measures
Vaccination is the best method that prevents the disease from being spread and hence proper vaccination must be ensured to the infected person and so this statement is true compared to the other statements
A local activist group is trying to stop a major corporation from developing land set aside as a preserved wetland to build a new shopping mall. Which communication tool would most likely help them recruit the most support from the community?
A.) an editorial written in the local newspaper describing the problems created by the mall
B.) televised press conferences where they can talk with people about the issue
C.) flyers describing the dangers of project sent to homes in the targeted area
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
A 58-year-old woman is seen in the clinic for reports of severe back pain. Her chest x-ray demonstrates generalized bone demineralization and compression fracture. Blood studies demonstrate elevated calcium levels. The most likely diagnosis is _______.A) leukemia.
B) myeloma.
C) Hodgkin disease.
D) back trauma.
Answer:
myeloma
Explanation:
Signs and symptoms of multiple myeloma can vary and, early in the disease, there may be none.
When signs and symptoms do occur, they can include:
Bone pain, especially in your spine or chest
Nausea
Constipation
Loss of appetite
Mental fogginess or confusion
Fatigue
Frequent infections
Weight loss
Weakness or numbness in your legs
Excessive thirst
The 58-year-old woman with severe back pain, chest x-ray showing bone demineralization, elevated calcium levels, and compression fractures has osteoporosis, an age-related disease characterized by loss of bone density and strength.
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for a 58-year-old woman presenting with severe back pain, generalized bone demineralization on a chest x-ray, elevated calcium levels, and compression fractures is osteoporosis. Osteoporosis is an age-related disorder characterized by the gradual loss of bone density and strength, which makes bones more susceptible to fractures.
Compression fractures of the thoracic vertebrae, leading to kyphosis or an excessive curvature of the thoracic region (also referred to as dowager's hump), are particularly common in people with osteoporosis. Elevated calcium levels often occur in osteoporosis because the minerals from the demineralized bones are released into the bloodstream.
Which of Piaget's substages of his sensorimotor stage is the one in which infants begin to coordinate what were separate actions into single, integrated activities?
Answer:
Substage 2: First habits and primary circular reactions (1-4 months)
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the substage of the sensorimotor stage that is being described would be Substage 2. This substage deals with first habits and primary circular reactions, and occurs in children between 1 to 4 months of age. The children begin to adapt their reflexes and actions into integrated activities during this substage.
Charles C. is a 65 year old executive who is overweight and has recently been diagnosed with high Blood pressure. He has just completed a class on the principles of the DASH( Dietary Approaches to stop Hypertension) diet and has set a goal to lower his intake of fat and sodium and to increase his intake of calcium and potassium-rich foods. Mr.C. has met a friend for lunch at his favorite restaurant that features pizza, salads, soups, and sandwiches.
1. Based on information provided in this chapter, what food groups are good sources of potassium? Calcium?
2. What are some menu items at Mr.C's favorite restaurant that would provide these nutrients?
3. What might be a calcium-rich menu choice that is also low in fat?
4. Charles likes soup buy notices that most soups on the menu contain a significant amount of sodium. What is one strategy he might use?
5. How might the my Plate icon help Charles order a healthy meal?
6. Based on information provided in this chapter, order a lunch for Mr.C. that includes at least 3 food groups and meets his current dietary goals.
Answer:
3
Explanation:
Bentham theorized that people rationally choose their behaviors by weighing the pleasure or benefit of their actions against the potential pain or cost. This process is known as: a. hedonistic calculus. b. the avoidance principle. c. the veil of ignorance. d. ethical formalism.
Answer:
Hedonistic Calculus
Explanation: Bentham's *Hedonistic Calculus* states that *"people rationally choose their behaviours by weighing the pleasure or benefit of their actions against the potential pain"*. He believed that moral rightness or wrongness of an action is the function of the amount of pleasure or pain that is produced.
This theory is based on certain variables. These include:
1) Duration:How long the pleasure would last.
2) Fecundity: The probability that the action would be followed by sensations of that same kind.
3)Extent:How many people the action would affect.
4) Purity:The probability that the action will not be followed by sensations of the opposite kind.
5) Intensity:How strong the pleasure is.
Therefore,the main point of Bentham's *Hedonistic Calculus* is that it is *based on benefit of pleasure over pain*.
Nurse Jane formulates a nursing diagnosis of Impaired physical mobility for a client with third-degree burns on the lower portions of both legs. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement, the nurse should add which "related-to" phrase?
A. Related to fat emboli
B. Related to infection
C. Related to femoral artery occlusion
D. Related to circumferential eschar
Answer:
D. Related to circumferential eschar.
Explanation:
The third degree burns are also called full thickness burns.
The skin becomes pearly gray / charred skin ( Circumferential scar )
They usually involves all the layers of the skin and also the underlying tissue.
It is the most severe burn.
It may be painful may be painless.
Can be life threatning due to fluid loss.
As the eschar is defined as a sloughed off peice of a dead tissue from the skin especially after burn thus the nurse should add a " Related to circumferential eschar " phrase.
A blood sample from a 90-year-old man was submitted to the blood bank for a type and screen before surgery. The forward type demonstrates as a group A, whereas the reverse type appears to be group AB. What is the most likely cause of the discrepancy?
Answer:
The most likely cause of the discrepancy is Human error or flaws in inventory control procedures.
Explanation:
The quality of being in disagreement, as by displaying or giving out an unexpected or unacceptable result or feedback.
Felicia has a respiratory infection and has been coughing up a lot of mucus. She knows this means that her respiratory system is working to restore balance by getting rid of the invasive materials from her lungs. How does this happen?
Answer:
Mucus is released from the two different part of tissues of the lung. Goblet cells that produces mucus present in the surface of the epithelium. The second is the seromucous glands that produce mucus.
There are production of the high amount of the mucus a day from both the regions, it is stick in nature that helps to trap dust particles, debris, or bacteria. These sticky secretion contains natural antibiotics that easily destroy bacteria, this process called defensis.
Answer:
mechanisms within the bronchial tubes move the mucus, formed around invasive materials, out of the lungs
Explanation:
Jill has many friends, is respected by her coworkers, and maintains a great relationships with her boyfriend. Her ability to interact with others is an example of which dimension of health?
A. Social
B. Emotional
C. Intellectual
D. Physical
Answer:
A
Explanation:
her ability to maintain different relationship
In people with sickle-cell disease, red blood cells break down, clump, and clog the blood vessels. The blood vessels and the broken cells accumulate in the spleen. Among other things this leads to physical weakness, heart failure, joint pain, and brain damage. Such a suite of symptoms can be explained by __________.
A client arrives at a health clinic stating, "I am here to have my tuberculin skin test read." The nurse notes that there is a 7mm indurated area at the injection site. Which statement made by the nurse correctly describes this result?a. "The result indicates that you have active tuberculosis."b. "The result indicates that you are infected with the tuberculosis organism."c. "The result indicates that there are no tuberculin antibodies in your system."d. "The result indicates that you have a secondary infection related to the tuberculin organism."
The tuberculin skin test measures the body's response to the tuberculosis bacteria. A 7mm induration can indicate a positive result in certain risk groups, which only means the person has been infected with the TB bacteria. Further evaluation is needed to ascertain if the infection is active or latent.
Explanation:In a tuberculin skin test, the size of the induration (hard, swollen area) after the injection determines if the test is positive. The nurse, in this case, noted a 7mm indurated area. This would be considered a positive result if the individual belongs to a high-risk group, for instance, people living with HIV, recent immigrants from high TB prevalence areas, or those in close contact with TB patients. However, it is important to understand that a positive tuberculin skin test doesn't necessarily mean the person has active tuberculosis; it only indicates that the person has been infected with the TB bacteria.
Thus, the correct statement made by the nurse would be 'The result indicates that you are infected with the tuberculosis organism.' A more detailed evaluation is needed to confirm whether the infection is active or latent.
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An older adult client has a decubitus ulcer with drainage, dysphagia, and immobility. She consumes less than 300 calories per day and has a large amount of interstitial fluid. The client is in a state of:a) negative nitrogen balance
b) anabolism
c) digestion
d) positive nitrogen balance
Answer:
Explanation:
b) anabolism
Answer:
b) anabolism
Explanation:
Walid has been working 70-hour workweeks and has been getting his days and nights mixed up, as well as having trouble separating his dreams from reality. Just yesterday, he thought a project had been completed, but it was only a dream. This problem is known as _____.a. infantile amnesia.b. source amnesia.c. mood-congruent memory.
d. blocking.
Answer:
source amnesia
Explanation:
he has being doing things to think he had been doing them even when he slept
Answer:
source amnesia
Explanation:
Now that you have learned something about nutrition, think about your own diet. If you could eliminate one item from your diet to improve your health, what would it be? Explain your answer.
To improve health, eliminating added sugars is essential due to its link to various health issues. Setting goals to include 35 nutrient-dense foods per week and tracking eating habits with a food journal can help achieve a healthier diet. Being mindful of food choices every day is vital for maintaining good health.
If I were to eliminate one item from my diet to improve my health, it would be added sugars. High intake of added sugars has been linked to various health issues like obesity, type 2 diabetes, and heart disease. To tackle this, I can set a behavioral goal to read food labels more carefully to ensure I'm choosing products with low or no added sugars.
Furthermore, to reduce barriers to healthy nutrition, I could also aim to consume a variety of at least 35 nutrient-dense foods per week, including fruits, vegetables, lean proteins, and whole grains, which provide essential vitamins and minerals. Another goal could be to monitor my intake of saturated fats and use healthier cooking methods like baking instead of frying. Engaging in a three-day food journal would be beneficial in tracking my eating habits and identifying areas for improvement.
Which nursing recommendation is most appropriate for a client to decrease discomfort from hemorrhoids? a. Decrease fiber in the diet. b. Take laxatives to promote bowel movements. c. Decrease physical activity. d. Use warm sitz baths.
Answer:
The correct answer is - option D.
Explanation:
Hemorrhoids is commonly known as the piles which is a condition in which the veins in the lower part of rectum and anus are swollen which cause discomfort to the particular patient.
Warm sitz baths can reduce the rectal discomfort and inflammation. It is used to improve hygiene and promote blood flow to the anogenital area. It is helpful in hemorrhoid.
Thus, the correct answer is - option D.
Answer:
The correct answer is - option D.
Explanation:
How does a sewing machine need to be modified in order to stitch a zipper
Zipper using Sewing machine:
Put your machine for a standard on the right track fasten sewing. Connect the zipper foot to the machine on the left half of the foot. Follow your sewing machine manual for your prescribed Zipper Foot settings. Contingent upon the model, you may need to move the needle position with the goal that the needle sews on the left half of the foot. A zipper foot can change, so it is on the left or the correct side of the sewing machine needle. This alteration permits you to sew the zipper without the presser foot, applying strain to the zipper teeth. Spot your zipper so the focal point of the zipper lines up with your crease and pin it set up: Now you will sew down one side of the zipper, over the base and up the opposite side, right to the top. Move your zipper foot to whatever side you need it on with the goal that the needle is near the zipper as you sew.A psychologist wants to know if adults with normal vision can be fooled by a certain optical illusion. She recruits 50 students from her PSY 120 class and finds that 42 of them are fooled by the illusion. The population in this study is __________.
A psychologist wants to know if adults with normal vision can be fooled by a certain optical illusion. She recruits 50 students from her PSY 120 class and finds that 42 of them are fooled by the illusion. The population in this study is
• the 42 students who were fooled
• the 50 students who served as subjects
• all the students in the PSY 120class
• all adults with normal vision.
Answer:
• all adults with normal vision
Explanation:
The sentence shows us that the psychologist focused on adults with normal vision. Other details are meant to distract from the aim and subject of the experiment.
The population of the study includes all the adults with normal vision.
A newly admitted male patient has a long history of aggressive behavior toward staff. Which statement by the nuruse demonstrates the need for more information about the use of restraint?
A. "If his behavior warrants restraints, someone wills tay with him the entire time he's restrained."
B. "I'll call the primary provider and get an as needed (prn) seclusion/restraint order."
C. "If he's restrained, be sure he is offered food and fluids regularly."
D. "Remember that physical restraints are our last resort."
Answer:
"I'll call the primary provider and get an as needed (prn) seclusion/restraint order."
Explanation:
Some rules and regulations are made in the hospital for both the patients and the employees working in the hospital. The violation of these rules might create restraint orders for the individuals.
The restraint order is the legal order that freeze the further use of the policy that might benefit the individual. The restraint order is related to the criminal investigation and against the violation of the law. The aggressive behavior of the patient might results in the preparation of restraint order for the patient.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Neural control affects the maximal force output of a muscle by determining which and how many motor units are involved in a muscle contraction and the rate at which the motor units are fired. These two factors are known as what, respectively?
a. rate coding; EMG
b. EMG; firing rates
c. recruitment; rate coding
d. firing rates; recruitment
Answer:
Recruitment; rate coding.
Explanation:
Muscle is one of the important tissue of the body that helps in the movement of the body. Cardiac muscle, smooth muscle and skeletal muscle are three different types of muscle.
The muscle has the ability to change its contraction force depends upon the two factors. The rate coding adjusts the firing of the neural muscle rate while travelling down to the motor neuron via the central nervous system. The motor unit recruitment is the way bu which the number of different units recruited in a particular task can be altered.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
HELP WILL MARK BRAINLIEST! WRITE IN YOUR OWN WORDS
this has to be about golf
Describe the rules for your sport. Be specific.
Describe the etiquette in your sport toward other players and observers.
Write a scenario where you would have to apply a rule of etiquette in your sport.
Imagine you are playing your sport and a conflict arises with a team member or someone on an opposing team. Describe the conflict and how you would resolve the conflict
Rules of playing golf:
1. The maximum number of clubs in our bag for a competitive round can be 14.
2. Players are not allowed to take advice from anyone except their partner.
3. One must not move the ball and play from the place and way it is found.
4. The penalty for losing a ball which includes striking of ball out of the bounds or into water is one stroke.
5. The ball must be hit using standard clubs.
Etiquette in playing golf are:
1. We must avoid playing with balls which we cannot afford to lose.
2. We must read the putts while others are putting and then be ready to hit.
3. We must avoid using our phones while playing.
4. We must keep quiet while playing.
5. We must dress appropriately.
If there is a conflict with the opponent then try sort that out at the earliest or solve once the playing is done because everyone's time is precious and golf is the game of silence, concentration and practice.
A client who exhibits very little facial expression during the course of a conversation is said to have a(n) __________ affect.
1. abstract
2. misconceptive
3. blunted
4. superficial
Answer:
3. blunted
Explanation:
Blunted affect can be said to be the lack of or reduced intensity of emotional expressions as a nonverbal response in conversation. When an individual doesn’t express their emotional feeling outwardly in a normal circumstance, such person is said to be having a blunt affect.
Blunt affect can be a symptom of conditions such as schizophrenia, depression, etc. It can also be caused by antidepressants and anti-psychotics used as medications.
Answer:
3. blunted
Explanation:
should everyone become a parent eventually?
Yes, but not all females should get pregnant. Everyone should have their own child (if wanted) but people should adopt to help the population go down- so we aren't bringing in new babies as there are babies here uncared for.
Sarah qualified for her state’s gymnastics finals. She has decided to give up three hours of sleep each night so that she can fit more training in. She is also training on her rest days. What is the likely result? (Select all that apply.)
A.She will build much stronger muscles.
B.She will increase her risk for injury
C.The extra training will make her more likely to win.
D.Her muscles will not recover well from workouts.
Answer:B and
Explanation:B and D
She is not allowing her muscles to heal from the the exercise and it could cause her to become injured
_________ theory is a logically interrelated set of propositions that helps us make sense of many interrelated phenomena and predict behavior or attitudes that are likely to occur when certain conditions are met.
The question is incorrect the correct question is as follows:
________is a logically interrelated set of propositions that helps us make sense of many interrelated phenomena and predict behavior or attitudes that are likely to occur when certain conditions are met.
Answer: Theory
Explanation:
A theory can be defined as the group of ideas that are intended to explain a phenomena or to predict the nature, behavior, and attitudes. The explanations are mainly based on the prediction and assumptions. The interconnected facts are used with the set of propositions. From the assumptions a possible hypothesis can be created, which can be tested to know whether the assumption is correct or not. The hypothesis can be tested to challenge, or to support the theory. The theory can only be created when certain conditions are met that is availability of facts and their relationship can be drawn.
The enhancement of contrast at the edge of an object is the result of:
a. lateral inhibition in the retina.
b. the diffraction of light from the edge's surface.
c. fatigue of the rods and cones.
d. the color of the object.
Answer: a. lateral inhibition in the retina.
Explanation:
Lateral inhibition is a process of increase in sharpness and contrasts in the visual response. This phenomenon is a characteristic feature of mammalian retina. In lateral inhibition, the different cells of the retina in the eye respond to the varying degrees of the light. In this process when one cell in retina activates in the response to light this impairs the activity of the neighboring cell. This causes the edges between the dark and light areas of the object to appear more prominent than would be in the actual sense.