Answer:
The reason why the genotype and phenotype frequences do not match is just because the 1) The genotype based on genes observation,while the phenotype based on physical appearance of the organism externally
Explanation:
the genotype is looking on the arrangement of genes in pair and get its frequency ,while phenotype the external physical appearance of organism is observed to get frequency
Final answer:
The discrepancy between genotype and phenotype frequencies in the Tadjik population may be due to incomplete penetrance, where individuals do not exhibit the expected phenotype, and inaccuracies in phenotype measurement, reflecting challenges in capturing the full scope of observable traits.
Explanation:
Understanding why the genotype and phenotype frequencies do not match in the Tadjik population involves considering both biological principles and methodological issues. Firstly, it's important to recognize that genotypes refer to the genetic makeup of an organism, comprising alleles received from both parents. Phenotypes, however, are the observable characteristics or traits of an organism, influenced not only by genotypes but also by environmental factors.
One reason for the discrepancy between genotype and phenotype frequencies can be attributed to incomplete penetrance. This genetic phenomenon occurs when individuals with a certain genotype do not exhibit the expected phenotype due to interactions with environmental factors or other genes. This could significantly affect the observed phenotype frequencies in a population if the condition with incomplete penetrance is common within that group.
The second reason involves the accuracy of phenotype measurement. Phenotypic characteristics can sometimes be challenging to measure accurately due to variability in expression levels, environmental influences, or the subjective nature of certain traits. These issues can lead to discrepancies in the reported phenotype frequencies, especially if the data collected does not adequately capture the diversity or intensity of traits within the population.
Sickle-cell anemia is associated with a mutation in the gene encoding the beta subunit of hemoglobin that results in a change from glutamic acid to valine at position 6. All other amino acids are identical to a normal hemoglobin molecule. Based on the information above, which of the following mutations is the most likely cause of sickle-cell anemia?
a. A single base-pair substitution in the gene encoding the beta subunit.b. A single base-pair insertion in the gene encoding the beta subunitc. A single base-pair deletion in the gene encoding the beta subunit
d. A translocation of DNA from one chromosome to another
Answer:
AExplanation:
1. Sickle cell anemia is an inherited condition, disorder (disease).
2. It is a recessive condition, in which red blood cell become mutated and converted to a sickle like shape, and there aren't enough healthy red blood cells to carry oxygen throughout the body.
3. This condition normally occur when, there is inheritance of two abnormal or mutated copies of the β-globin gene, one allele from each parent.
4. β-globin gene makes haemoglobin.
5. Sickle cell anemia results when glutamic acid being substituted by valine at position 6 ( in short E6V substitution).
6. So, it a single base-pair substitution in the gene encoding the beta subunit.
"The correct option is a. A single base-pair substitution in the gene encoding the beta subunit. The most likely cause of sickle-cell anemia is a single base-pair substitution in the gene encoding the beta subunit of hemoglobin.
Sickle-cell anemia is caused by a mutation in the gene that encodes the beta subunit of hemoglobin. The mutation results in the substitution of a single amino acid, glutamic acid, with valine at position 6 in the beta-globin chain. Since glutamic acid is encoded by the codons GAA or GAG, and valine is encoded by the codons GTT, GTC, GTA, or GTG, a single base-pair change can result in this amino acid substitution.
For example, if the original codon for glutamic acid is GAG, a single base-pair substitution of A for T would change it to GTG, which codes for valine. This is a classic example of a point mutation, specifically a missense mutation, where a single nucleotide change in the DNA sequence leads to the substitution of one amino acid for another in the protein sequence.
The other options are less likely to be the cause of sickle-cell anemia:
b. A single base-pair insertion in the gene encoding the beta subunit: An insertion would shift the reading frame of the gene, leading to a completely different amino acid sequence downstream of the insertion, which is not the case in sickle-cell anemia.
c. A single base-pair deletion in the gene encoding the beta subunit: A deletion would also shift the reading frame, resulting in a nonfunctional protein or a protein with a different sequence than the one associated with sickle-cell anemia.
d. A translocation of DNA from one chromosome to another: Translocation involves the movement of large segments of DNA between chromosomes, which is not consistent with the single amino acid change observed in sickle-cell anemia.
Therefore, the most likely cause of sickle-cell anemia is a single base-pair substitution in the gene encoding the beta subunit of hemoglobin."
Bobby touches his newborn brother's palm, and his little brother takes hold of Bobby's finger and will not let go. This is known as the __________ reflex.
Answer: conditioned
Bobby touches his newborn brother's palm, and his little brother takes hold of Bobby's finger and will not let go. This is known as the conditioned reflex.
Explanation:
A conditioned reflex is a response or behaviour learned after birth. So, once the newborn acquires this learned response, they can perform them even without thinking about it.
Thus, Bobby's brother (the newborn) holding on to his finger and not letting go shows that it is a conditioned reflex
What is hypoxia why is it dangerous to the nervous system
Answer:
hypoxia is the absence of enough oxygen in the tissues to sustain bodily functions
Explanation:
The brain could cease to function and if it continues death or permament brain damage starts in few minutes
Flowering plants that complete their life cycle in one growing season are called perennials.
True or false
Answer: False
Explanation:
Final answer:
The statement is false; flowering plants that complete their life cycle in one growing season are called annuals, not perennials. Biennials require two seasons, while perennials live for more than two years.
Explanation:
Flowering plants that complete their life cycle in one growing season are not called perennials; this statement is false. The correct term for plants that complete their life cycle in one season is annuals.
An example of an annual is Arabidopsis, also known as mouse-ear cress. Biennials, such as carrots, complete their life cycle in two seasons. The first season is dedicated to vegetative growth, while the reproductive phase occurs in the second season. In contrast, perennials, like the magnolia, have a life cycle that spans two years or more, often flowering annually once established and living for several to many years.
Hemoglobin is the protein that transports oxygen in mammals. Hemoglobin is 0.347% by mass, and each hemoglobin molecule contains four iron atoms. Calculate the molar mass of hemoglobin.
Answer:
Molar mass of hemoglobin is 64380.4 g/mol
Explanation:
Percentage of Fe calculated from the equation
%Fe = 4×molar mass of Fe/molar mass of hemoglobin.(4 because hemoglobin contain 4 Fe atoms)
Molar mass of hemoglobin is =4×molar mass of Fe / % Fe
=4×55.85/.00347
=64380.4 g/mol.
The molar mass of hemoglobin is 64380.4 g/mol.
Calculation of the molar mass:Since Hemoglobin is 0.347% by mass,
here we have to determine the percentage of Fe
%Fe = 4×molar mass of Fe/molar mass of hemoglobin
So,
The molar mass of hemoglobin is
=4×molar mass of Fe / % Fe
=4×55.85/.00347
=64380.4 g/mol.
hence, The molar mass of hemoglobin is 64380.4 g/mol.
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"Jasmine is trying to lose weight. She has decided to try a diet that lets her eat unlimited amounts of protein. The protein that Jasmine eats that is above and beyond what she needs is _____."
Answer:
converted into fat and stored in adipose tissue
Explanation:
When protein is taken in excess amount, because it cannot be stored in the body, it can be broken down to amino acids, which is further used as carbon skeletons to synthesize fats, which is then further stored in the adipose tissues.
When the body is not receiving enough calories from other nutrient sources like carbohydrates and fats, the available protein is the used as energy to meet the body's energy demands, by converting it to fat.
Note that, excess intake of protein can be harmful to the body.
Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because
Explanation:
Their functionally similar and cell structure to human cells.Protozoa caused Most protist diseases in humans . Protozoa make people wiped out when they become human parasites. Chagas malady and sleeping sickness disease caused by Trypanosoma protozoa. The giardiasis, and Plasmodium protozoa cause malaria by the Giardia protozoa.Many of the most common and destructive human ailments are brought about by a protozoan infection. Any macroparasitic sickness of people and different creatures in which a piece of the body is tainted with parasitic worms, known as helminths.Schistosomiasis and Soil-transmitted helminthiasis are the most significant helminthiases, and are among the disregarded tropical sicknesses.Treating protozoan and helminthic diseases is challenging because these pathogens are eukaryotes, making it hard to target them without harming human cells.
Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because these pathogens are eukaryotic organisms, much like human cells. Developing antimicrobial drugs that are specific to these pathogens without harming human cells is a significant challenge. Viruses present an added difficulty in treatment because they replicate within human cells, further complicating the development of drugs with selective toxicity. Fungal infections are particularly troublesome as they are also eukaryotes and do not respond to traditional antibiotic therapy.
Infections caused by protozoa require antiprotozoal drugs which may vary in effectiveness due to the diverse biology of protozoan organisms. Similarly, a variety of drugs must be used to target different helminthic parasites. Resistance to drugs is another problem, particularly noticed in the case of anti-malarial drugs where Plasmodium pathogens have developed resistance. These infections can be especially dangerous for those with compromised immune systems.
All of the following are true of natural selection, EXCEPT A. it results in a change in allele frequencies over time. B. it works best in genetically uniform populations. C. it is the process by which evolution occurs. D. it results in some individuals surviving better and reproducing more than others. E. it results in populations better suited to their environment than their predecessors.
Answer:
B. it works best in genetically uniform populations.
Explanation:
Natural selection: The environment will determine which traits are used as and advantage to breed more successfully.
If every being of that specific species was exactly the same then natural selection would kill them all off at once.
If you had a zebra that was white and one that had stripes. the one with stripes would last longer.
It works best in genetically uniform populations is not true except natural selection.
What is natural selection?
An evolutionary mechanism is natural selection. Environment-adapted organisms have a higher chance of surviving and dispersing the genes that contributed to their success. Over time, this mechanism leads to the evolution and divergence of species.
One way to explain the millions of species that have existed on Earth is through natural selection.
Natural selection results in the transmission of advantageous genetic variants through reproduction. As a result, a new generation of organisms emerges that has a higher chance of surviving and reproducing.
For instance, giraffes have an edge over other species due to their long necks, which have allowed them to graze on leaves that others cannot reach. Those with longer necks were able to grow larger because of a greater food source.
Therefore, It works best in genetically uniform populations is not true except natural selection.
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sulcus The extra bones that sometimes develop between the flat bones of the skull are called bones. Small bones occurring in some tendons in the hand or foot are called bones. The cranium and facial bones compose the . The bone supports the tongue. The at the inferior end of the sacrum is composed of several fused vertebrae. Most ribs are attached anteriorly to the .
Explanation:
Sutures are a type of fibrous joint that binds two bones together into a solid, immobile expanse of bone. We are most familiar with sutures in the skull that connect the different cranial bones Sesamoid bones are small bones embedded in tendons where they pass over a joint. The most prominent sesamoid bone is the kneecap, officially known as the patella. tSurrounding your brain is the part of your skeleton known as your skull. Your skull is made of bone and cartilage, or firm tissue; its job is to protect your brain. Some of the bones surrounding the brain, and some of the bones are facial bones. Facial bones are bones like the jaw and cheekbonesThe hyoid bone is small, U-shaped bone in the throat. It is located in the front, middle of the throat between the lower jaw and the larynx, which is also called the voice box. The hyoid bone is involved in several functions of the throat, including breathing, swallowing, and talkingThe coccyx is a small bone at the base of your spine.Our spines are made up of 24 small bones in our back that support the weight of our bodyThe sternum is one of the largest flat bones in the human body. It located in the center of the chest, which is why it is often called the breastboneSutural bones develop between the flat bones of the skull. Sesamoid bones occur in tendons and protect them. The skull consists of cranial and facial bones.
Explanation:The bones that sometimes develop between the flat bones of the skull are called sutural bones. These bones form irregularly shaped bones that fill the gaps in the cranium's flat bones.
Small bones occurring in some tendons in the hand or foot are called sesamoid bones. They function to protect tendons from excessive wear and tear and aid in tendon function.
The cranium and facial bones together compose the skull. The skull consists of cranial bones and facial bones that support the structures of the face and protect the brain.
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As her professor distributed the mathematics test to the class, Blair's heart started to pound and her palms began to sweat. These physiological reactions were activated by her ________ nervous system. Group of answer choices central endocrine sympathetic somatic parasympathetic
Answer:
sympathetic nervous system
Explanation:
The sympathetic nervous system is part of the autonomous nervous system which controls the involuntary body functions as heart rate, breath rate, perspiration etc. The sympathetic nervous system is specifically responsible for the increase in the function of body functions when the body perceives a threat. When faced with a threat or distress, the sympathetic nervous system initiates physiological reactions known as the “fight or flight” response, thereby increasing the body’s alertness to such threat. Examples of increased body functions or “fight or flight response” include increased perspiration and increased heart rate, as exhibited by Blair.
The answer is the Sympathetic nervous system as a Group of answer choices central endocrine sympathetic somatic parasympathetic shows these symptoms.
The sympathetic nervous system is a part of the self-sustaining fearful device which controls the involuntary frame capabilities such as coronary heart rate, breath rate, perspiration, etc. The sympathetic is in particular answerable for the boom withinside the feature of frame capabilities while the frame perceives a risk. When confronted with a risk or distress, the sympathetic nervous system initiates physiological reactions called the “combat or flight” response, thereby growing the frame’s alertness to such risk. Examples of improved frame capabilities or “combat or flight response” consist of improved perspiration and improved coronary heart rate, as exhibited via way of means of Blair.
What is the sympathetic nervous system?The sympathetic nervous system directs the body's speedy involuntary reaction to risky or disturbing situations. A flash flood of hormones boosts the body's alertness and system coronary heart rate, sending greater blood to the muscles.
Hence conclude the sympathetic nervous system is the answer.
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____________ is a process that can completely catabolize an organic energy source to CO2 using the glycolytic pathways and TCA cycle with O2 as the terminal electron acceptor for an electron transport chain.1. Aerobic respiration2. Anaerobic respiration 3. Catabolism4. Anabolism
Explanation:
Aerobic respiration utilizes Oxygen.Aerobic breath happens in most cells.The measure of energy discharged is high which is around 36-38 ATP atoms. The stages engaged with aerobic respiration are glycolysis, krebs cycle, electron transport chain.The items which are formed in aerobic respiration are Carbon dioxide, Water and ATP.The reaction's site of aerobic respiration are Mitochondria and Cytoplasm. The reactants included are glucose and oxygen.The ignition is complete.The process which complete catabolizes an organic energy source to CO2 using glycolytic pathways and TCA cycle with O2 as the terminal electron acceptor is Aerobic respiration, a process that uses oxygen to breakdown glucose into water and carbon dioxide, releasing ATP in the process.
Explanation:The process described that can completely catabolize an organic energy source to CO2 using the glycolytic pathways and TCA cycle with O2 as the terminal electron acceptor for an electron transport chain is called Aerobic respiration.
Aerobic respiration is the process by which organisms like animals and plants break down glucose into water and carbon dioxide in the presence of oxygen, releasing high-energy molecules (ATP) as a result. The process happens in three major steps: glycolysis, the Krebs cycle (or TCA cycle), and the electron transport chain. Oxygen acts as the terminal electron acceptor in the electron transport chain, resulting in the formation of water molecules.
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Intact skin and mucous membranes: First line of defense. 2. : Second line of defense. 3. : Third line of defense. 4. : Innate defense system. 5. : Adaptive defense system.
Answer:
Skin and mucous membranes are the First line of defense of the body against disease.
First line of defense means that it is the first part which stops the disease infection and prevent it from infecting the animal body.
Skin also protects the body due to its rigid surface which does not allow pathogens inside the body.
Mucous contains white blood cells which attacks on the disease causing microorganisms and kill them before harming the body.
The first line of defense includes intact skin, mucous membranes, and various barriers. The second line of defense is the innate immune system, consisting of specialized cells and soluble factors. The third line of defense is the adaptive immune system, controlled by lymphocytes.
Explanation:The body's first line of defense is the intact skin and mucous membranes. They act as physical barriers that prevent pathogenic invasion into the body tissues. These barriers include the skin, tears, mucus, cilia, stomach acid, urine flow, and friendly bacteria.
The second line of defense is the innate immune system. It is a rapid but nonspecific response that involves specialized cells and soluble factors to destroy pathogens that manage to enter the body.
The third line of defense is the adaptive immune system. It is a slower but more specific and effective response that involves various cell types and soluble factors, primarily controlled by white blood cells known as lymphocytes.
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In a laboratory experiment, one group of people consumes an amount of pure water, a second group an equal amount of beer, and a third group an equal amount of concentrated salt solution that is hypertonic to their blood. Their urine production is monitored for several hours. At the end of the measurement period, which group will have produced the greatest volume of urine and which group the least?
Answer:
Salt solution
Explanation:
The body releases salt and water that the body doesn't need .. therefore the body would get rid of the salt solution the most from the added salt
The hydrophilic regions of a membrane protein are most likely to be found are
Answer:
is asnwer B
Explanation:
The hydrophilic regions of a membrane protein are most likely to be found EXPOSED on the surface of the membrane.
A membrane protein is a protein that is attached to a biological lipid membrane.The membrane proteins can be divided into integral membrane proteins (permanently attached to the membrane)peripheral membrane protein (temporarily attached to the membrane)Membrane proteins have hydrophilic domains that are in contact with water (H2O) molecules on the outside of the lipid bilayer. These hydrophilic regions are composed of hydrophilic amino acids such as glutamic acid, lysine and arginine. Moreover, membrane proteins have hydrophobic regions when they are incorporated into the hydrophobic portion of the lipid bilayer.In conclusion, the hydrophilic regions of a membrane protein are most likely to be found EXPOSED on the surface of the membrane.
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Scientists have warned doctors of the danger of their increasing use of antibiotics for treating minor illnesses. They are concerned because __________.
Answer:
Excess amount of consuming antibiotics may lead to side effects in health.
Explanation:
Antibiotics are antimicrobial substance which is activated against certain bacteria.
Antibiotics are used against foreign substance or bacteria or any other pathogen but these are useless against viral infections,fungal infection etc.
Intake of high amount of antibiotics may create certain health issues like-
Diarrhea with watery dischargeVomitingAllergic reactionItching with discharge.white patches on tongue.shortness of breathing.Nausea,loss appetite,indigestion.Stomach cramping,painfeeling of fullness.
All of the following are problems that growth causes for cells EXCEPT Select one: a. DNA overload. b. excess oxygen. c. obtaining enough food. d. expelling wastes.
Answer: Excess oxygen
Explanation:
The cell if gets food in optimum amount can grow and cause various problems and there are many problems associated with the growth of the cell.
They require more food and obtain enough of it. The bigger cell expels waste materials out of the cell.
The requirement of excess of oxygen is not a problem which is caused due to the excess growth of cell.
Which groups in the domain archaea require high salt concentrations for survival?
Answer:halophiles
Explanation:archaea and bacteria are the types groups of prokaryotes.prokaryotes are organism which lacks membrane bound organelle including the nucleus.as a result,they contain their chromosomes in the nucleoid;a poorly defined region in the cytoplasm.
Archaea and bacteria have several differences including in their cell wall.the cell wall of archaea contains isoprene while that of bacteria contains fatty acid chains.
Archaea are found in extreme environment. The methanogens are obligated anaerobes that produces methane gases and lives in swamps and sewage treatment plants.
The halophiles only lives in water with high salt concentration .
Some lives in acidic and sulphur hot springs and also in ocean depths
Which of the following is NOT true regarding bulk flow? Select one: a. It requires active muscle movements b. It is an exergonic (energetically favorable) process that releases energy c. It requires ATP d. It provides for a much more efficient movement of oxygen from the atmosphere to cells
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Bulk flow is an energy-requiring mechanisms, whereby water and solutes move through the cell due to its pressure gradient. This process is much faster when compared to osmosis and diffusion.
In a dihybrid cross involving two autosomal traits on different chromosomes in which the parents are purebred for the opposite forms of both traits, how many of the offspring would be expected to be homozygous recessive for both traits?
Answer:
The question lacks options, the options are:
A) 1 out of 16
B) 3 out of 16
C) 6 out of 16
D) 9 out of 16
The answer is 1 out of 16
Explanation:
This is a DIHYBRID cross because it involves two different genes coding for distinct traits. One of the traits will be dominant while the other recessive. Hence, parents that are purebred for opposite forms of the trait means that one parent is homozygous dominant while the other is homozygous recessive. When these two parents cross, they produce F1 offsprings that all possess the dominant trait but heterozygous/hybrids.
When these hybrids are self-crossed, they produce four different combinations of gametes which when crossed using a punnet square will result in F2 offsprings with a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio according to Mendel's observation.
9 represents offsprings that are dominant for both traits
The two 3's represents offsprings that are recessive for one trait and dominant for the other respectively.
1 represents offsprings that are homozygous recessive for both traits.
Hence, 1 out of 16 offsprings will be homozygous recessive for both traits.
In a dihybrid cross between purebred parents, the F₂ generation will produce one offspring out of sixteen that will have homozygous recessive traits for both characters.
Explanation:In a dihybrid cross involving two purebred parents, the resultant offspring will all be heterozygous for both traits. Now, if these F₁ generation offspring are allowed to self-cross, their resultant F₂ generation would have a spectrum of possible combinations. The homozygous recessive traits would occur in 1:16 ratio, that is due to the probability of 1/4 recessive for each trait in a monohybrid cross, and these probabilities are multiplied together for the dihybrid cross.
So, we can say that if we don't consider any specific influence other than genetic inheritance, one offspring out of sixteen would be expected to be homozygous recessive for both traits.
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Erica is an 18-year-old and in her first year of university. One day while she was watching a video in class, Erica started to hear what she thought was music playing. Suddenly she began shaking in her seat and fell to the floor. After the incident ended, one of her classmates helped her to the campus medical center, where she was later diagnosed as having:
Answer: Epilepsy
Explanation:Epilepsy is part central nervous system (neurological) disorder in which brain activity becomes abnormal, causing seizures or periods of time and having unusual behavior, sensations, and sometimes loss of awareness.
Dorothy Peterson was diagnosed with breast cancer. She and her doctor agreed upon treating this surgically with a/an . This is a procedure in which the cancerous tissue with a margin of normal tissue is removed.
Answer: Lumpectomy
Explanation: Lumpectomy is procedure in which Cancerous tissues are removed. Lumpectomy is a surgical removal of lump or cancerous tissue of breast tissue usually in the treatment of breast Cancer.
If a horticulturist breeding gardenias succeeds in having a single plant with a particularly desirable set of traits, which of the following would be her most probable and efficient route to establishing a line of such plants?A) Backtrack through her previous experiments to obtain another plant with the same traits.B) Breed this plant with another plant with much weaker traitsC) Clone the plant.D) Force the plant to self-pollinate to obtain an identical one
Explanation:
To clone a plant means to create an identical copy of an adult plant. These identical copies become young plants that in turn become adult plants that can be cloned again. This process can go on indefinitelyThe most common method of cloning plants and the one that has been used for a very long time is that of taking cuttings from an adult plant. A cutting is a stem or leaf that is cut from an adult plant. The cutting is then planted into moist soil or other moist growing media. The cutting will produce roots of its own and then become a whole new plant identical to the original adult plant. Not all plants can be cloned via cuttings, thoughVegetative proliferation works in light of the fact that the finish of the cutting structures a mass of non-particular cells called a callus. With karma, the callus will develop, gap and structure different specific cells (roots, and so on.), in the end framing another plantHence, the right answer is option C "Clone the plant"
Which structure is correctly paired with its tissue system?
companion cell – ground tissue
root hair – vascular tissue
guard cell – vascular tissue
tracheid – vascular tissue
The study of plants is called botany.
The correct answer is option D which is tracheid-vascular tissue.
What is a tissue system?All the tissue is made up of cells and when more than one tissue worker together to perform a single function is called a tissue system.What is vascular tissue?The tissue which is made up of vessels is called vascular tissue. For example - xylem and phloem.The tracheids are part of the xylem hence, it is related to the vascular tissue.
Hence, the correct option is D.
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In general, each species of fruit fly in the Hawaiian archipelago is restricted to a single island. One hypothesis to explain this pattern is that new species formed after a small number of flies colonized each new island. This mechanism is called:
Answer:
Geographical isolation
Explanation:
The formation of new species by a small number of fruit flies colonized each new island. This mechanism is called geographical speciation or allopatric speciation.
The geographical speciation takes place when some members (biological populations) of the same species become isolated due to geographical changes such as mountain building or migration. Due to isolation, the organisms prevents two or more groups from mating with each other on regular basis. The gene flow between them is greatly reduced which eventually causing that formation of new species.
Once alcohol enters the bloodstream it is quickly circulated to the __________, which impairs judgment and reasoning, the most critical skills needed by drivers.
Explanation:
Alcohol has an effect on the structures of brain which are complex. The chemical signals between brain cells are blocked by the alcohol which leads to the symptoms such as poor memory, slurred speech, impulsive behavior and slowed refelexes.Once the alcohol is ingested in our body, it affects our body immediately.It is absorbed in our bloodstream through the lining of or stomach, which then diffuses in the tissues present in our body.When we consume alcohol in excess, it kill our brain cells.What is true regarding rem sleep in infants?
The information is not available regrading the question and its option. The answer will consider the general points regarding the REM sleep in infants.
Answer:
Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep is the sleep that involves the rapid and random movement of the eyes. The muscle tone gets low during the REM sleep. This sleep is present in both infants and adults.
The baby start shows his legs and hands during the REM sleep. Most of the infants experience the REM sleep. The sleep become less active and the individual is more conscious during the REM sleep. The breathing of the infant is quite irregular in REM sleep.
Too much calcium in the bloodstream, a condition called hypercalcemia, can be very dangerous. The thyroid gland releases a hormone, calcitonin, when calcium is too high. How does calcitonin lower calcium levels in the blood
Answer:
Calcitonin reduces blood calcium
Explanation:
Calcitonin reduces blood calcium by suppressing the activities of osteclast (bone cells that breaks down bone tissue resulting in excess calcium) and increase the amount of calcium passed out as urine.
The apoplast in plant tissues consists of:________. a. cell walls, extracellular spaces, and vessel elements b. cell walls, extracellular spaces, and plasmodesmata c. vessel elements, plasmodesmata, and extracellular spaces d. cell walls, plasma membrane, and cytosol
The correct answer is a. cell walls, extracellular spaces, and vessel elements.
Here's why the other options are incorrect:
* b. cell walls, extracellular spaces, and plasmodesmata: Plasmodesmata are specialized channels connecting the cytoplasm of adjacent cells, and they are considered part of the symplast, not the apoplast.
* c. vessel elements, plasmodesmata, and extracellular spaces: As mentioned above, plasmodesmata are part of the symplast. Additionally, vascular elements like xylem and phloem contain internal lumens, which are considered part of the apoplast, but not vessel elements themselves.
* d. cell walls, plasma membrane, and cytosol: The plasma membrane and cytosol are inside the plant cell, while the apoplast refers to the extracellular space outside the plasma membrane.
Therefore, the apoplast encompasses the non-living spaces outside the cell walls, including the cell walls themselves, the intercellular spaces between cells, and the internal lumens of xylem and phloem elements.
__________is the process by which stimuli lose their ability to evoke learned responses because the events that had followed the stimuli no longer occur.
Answer:
learned response
Explanation:
learned response is the process by which stimuli lose their ability to evoke learned responses because the events that had followed the stimuli no longer occur.
Expected prevalence of a disease is:______.
a) the expected occurrence of a disease based on past observations
b) the total number of cases of a disease over a period of time
c) the anticipated geographical spread of a disease based on past observances
d) the number of new cases of a disease over a period of time
Answer: c) the anticipated geographical spread of a disease based on past observances.
Explanation: Prevalence simply means the widespread of a thing or condition. In epidemiology, prevalence can be defined as the total number of people in a population that is affected by a medical condition or total number of cases of a disease in a population in a given period of time.
Expected prevalence of a disease is therefore the anticipated widespread of a disease or the anticipated total number of cases of a disease in a population based on past observed incidences.
Expected prevalence of a disease refers to the expected occurrence of a disease based on past observations. It is different from the total number of cases over time, the anticipated geographical spread, or the number of new cases over a period of time.
Explanation:The expected prevalence of a disease refers to the expected occurrence of a disease based on past observations (option a). Prevalence quantifies the proportion of individuals in a population who have a disease or healthcare-related event. It helps epidemiologists understand the likelihood of disease patterns in a population at a certain time.
For example, if healthcare professionals noticed an increased occurrence of a specific disease in a population every winter season in the past years, the expected prevalence of that disease would be high for the upcoming winter.
Prevalence is not to be confused with the total number of cases of a disease over a period of time (option b), the anticipated geographical spread of a disease based on past observances (option c), or the number of new cases of a disease over a period of time (option d), which are definitions for incidence, forecast spread, and incidence rate respectively.
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