Please look at picture and help me.

(A) FB and DB
(B) HF and AC
(C) AC and FB
(D) DB and HF

Answer:

[tex]\large\boxed{x^2-4}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Here we have a Difference of Two Squares:

[tex](a-b)(a+b)=a^2-b^2[/tex]

[tex]\therefore (x - 2)(x+2)=x^2-4[/tex]

Once the standard form of a polynomial is when terms are ordered from the biggest exponent to the lowest exponent,

The polynomial in standard form is [tex]x^2-4[/tex]

Answer:

(178+142+112+150+206+130) /6

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Final answer:

To find tan A in a right-angled triangle where the sides are given, first use Pythagoras' theorem to find the missing side, then apply the definition of tangent as the ratio of the opposite to the adjacent side, resulting in tan A = 1.875.

Explanation:

In triangle ABC, where angle C is a right angle, and we are given that c = 17 (hypotenuse) and a = 8 (adjacent to angle A), the task is to find tan A. Since we are dealing with a right-angled triangle, we can use Pythagoras' theorem to find the length of side b (opposite to angle A). The theorem states a² + b² = c². Given a = 8 and c = 17, we can find b:

b² = 17² - 8² = 289 - 64 = 225, thus b = 15.

The tangent of an angle in a right-angled triangle is given by the opposite side divided by the adjacent side. Therefore, tan A = b/a = 15/8. Hence, tan A for this triangle equals 1.875.

Answer:

q/2=14

Step-by-step explanation:

Half of q is q/2

We know that it is 14

So, q/2=14

Answer:it is 18

Step-by-step explanation:

You do 40=2x+4 then do 40-4 and get 36 then 36/2 is 18

Answer: x=0

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

negative

Step-by-step explanation:

the answer will be negative because one fraction is negative and the other is positive. there is nothing to cancel out the negative sign

a collision damage waiver

Josh have to use Collison Damage waiver.

Managing your risk is possible with insurance. You purchase protection against unforeseen financial losses when you purchase insurance. If something unpleasant happens to you, the insurance company pays you or someone else of your choosing.

Collision damage waiver (CDW), often known as car rental insurance, releases a car renter from responsibility for all or some accident-related damage to a rental car.

If you are struck by a driver without auto insurance, you are protected by uninsured motorist coverage.

No fault insurance can assist in paying your medical costs and lost wages in the event of a covered accident, regardless of who was at fault.

So, Josh have to use Collison Damage waiver.

Learn more about Insurance here:

https://brainly.com/question/9414644

#SPJ7

Answer:

20x+50

Step-by-step explanation:

Let x represent the number of days he has the car

20x+50

It is 20x, because it costs 20 dollars for each day he has the car, and +50, because there is a fee, regardless of how many days he has the car.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

Option A) The snow is accumulating at 1.5 inches every hour.

Step-by-step explanation:

The general form of the equation of the line is y = mx + c

where m is the slope or rate of change

For the given equation y = 1.5x + 0.125

Where y is The snow is accumulation and x is number of hours

So, comparing the given equation to the general form

∴ m = 1.5 which represents the The snow accumulation per hour

Which mean every one hour the snow accumulation is 1.5 inches.

According to the previous the answer is option A

A) The snow is accumulating at 1.5 inches every hour.

Answer:

The correct answer is A. The snow is accumulating at 1.5 inches every hour.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's evaluate the given linear equation, this way:

y = 1.5x + 0.125, where:

Therefore, options B, C, and D are not true. The correct answer is A. The snow is accumulating at 1.5 inches every hour.

Answer:

[tex]\frac{9}{20}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1:  Simplify

[tex]\frac{45}{100}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{45 / 5}{100/5}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{9}{20}[/tex]

Answer:  [tex]\frac{9}{20}[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]\frac{9}{20}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

means 45/100

the common factors that go into both 45 and 100 is 5

hence divide 45 and 100 by 5

[tex]\frac{45/5}{100/5}[/tex]

= [tex]\frac{9}{20}[/tex]

Answer:

14[tex]\frac{1}{10}[/tex] or [tex]\frac{141}{10}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Turn your fractions into improper and make them have the same denominator

[tex]\frac{95}{10}[/tex]+[tex]\frac{46}{10}[/tex]=[tex]\frac{141}{10}[/tex]

Leave it as is or simplify to 14 [tex]\frac{1}{10}[/tex]

Answer:

14 1/10

Step-by-step explanation:

Make it to improper fraction

9 1/2 would be 19/2

and 4 3/5 = 23/5

Then to add u have to make the denominators common:

19/2 + 23/5

Both goes common denominator with 20

To make it 20:

(19 × 10/2 ×10) + (23 ×4/5×4)

190 / 20 + 92 / 20

Add those (190 + 92) / 20

282 / 20

Make it to the simplest form:

141 / 10

Then make it mixed fraction:

14 1/10

Answer:

2,000,000- 653,000= 1,347,000

Step-by-step explanation:

first write this in a equation with numbers

2,000,000- 653,000

million = 1,000,000

hundred thousand= 100,000

now solve the equation

2,000,000- 653,000= 1347000

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Mode=77&92&85 (mode is most common number)

Mean= 85+92+65+85+65+85+77+92+92+66+77+92+77+77+65+85=1277

1277/16=79.8 = 80 (Mean is add all numbers and divide how many there is.)

Range=92-65=27 (Range is highest number take away lowest number)

Median: 65,65,65,66,77,77,77,77,85,85,85,85,92,92,92,92

so median is 81 (put numbers in order and find the middle number. if order is even add two numbers in middle and divide by two. If order is odd, find ONE number.)

Final answer:

The median of the sample exam scores is 81, the mean (or average) is 75.75, the mode is bimodal with values 85 and 92, and the range is 27.

Explanation:

Measures of Central Tendency and Variability

To determine the median of the provided exam scores, we must first arrange the scores in ascending order and then find the middle value. With 16 scores, the median will be the average of the 8th and 9th values in this ordered list. For the mean, we add all the scores together and then divide by the total number of scores. The mode is the score that occurs most frequently. The range is calculated by subtracting the smallest score from the highest score.

Calculating the Median

Calculating the Mean

Determining the Mode

Finding the Range

Answer:

100/Hundreds

Step-by-step explanation:

4 is the thousands -> 4000

1 is the hundreds -> 100

0 is the tens -> 0

5 is the ones -> 6

8 is the tenths -> 0.8

Answer:  100

Answer:

hundreds place

Step-by-step explanation:

When a number is 3 places to the left of the decimal, then it is in the hundreds place. Same thing if it is 3 places to the right of the decimal, only it'll be in the hundredths.

Answer: [tex]m=9[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Subtract 8 from both sides: [tex]7m+8-8=71-8[/tex]

[tex]7m=63[/tex]

Step 2: Divide both sides by 7: [tex]7m/7=63/7[/tex]

Get your answer: [tex]m=9[/tex]

Answer:

-4

Step-by-step explanation:

plug in -2

-(-2)^2 = -4

4. You substitute the x with -2, which means the problem is -(-2^2).

Answer: The area (A) of a circle is a function of its radius (r) and is given by the function A = f(r) = πr2.

Step-by-step explanation: google help

The area is a function of the radius and the radius is a function of the area.

For a circle of radius R, we can write the area as:

A = pi*R^2

So we can write the area in terms of the radius, meaning that yes, the area is a function of the radius of a circle.

If we take the above equation and we isolate R, we get:

R = √(A/pi)

So you can also write the radius in terms of the area, meaning that the radius is also a function of the area.

If you want to learn more about circles, you can read:

https://brainly.com/question/25306774

The mean length of practice time will be equal to 60 minutes.

Mean is defined as the ratio of the sum of the number of the data sets to the total number of the data.

Given data:-

She found that Sven practised for 30 minutes, Li Mihn practised for 45 minutes, Wendy practised for 90 minutes, Thomas practised for 75 minutes, and Gabriel practised for 60 minutes

The mean will be calculated as:-

M = ( 30+45+90+75+60) / 5

M = 60 minutes

Therefore mean length of practice time will be equal to 60 minutes.

To know more about mean follow

https://brainly.com/question/968894

#SPJ2

Answer:

0.32

Step-by-step explanation:

First you divide 2.40 by 30 and then it gives you the cost of each individual piece of candy.then you multiply 4 by that amount.

Answer: The expression is prime and can't be factored with rational numbers.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

I think you meant y^2 + 6y + 8

that is (y + 4)(y + 2)

Step-by-step explanation:

y^3 + 6y + 8 stays the same and cannot be factored

Answer:

3

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 1.3

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: convert to decimal

56% = 56/100 = 0.56

43% = 43/100 = 0.43

Step 2; divide the values

0.56/0.43= 1.3

I hope this helps.

Answer:

there will be 164 marbles in each bag

Step-by-step explanation:

The question is simply asking you to divide the total number of marbles by five; for each bag. 824/5= 164.8 and 164.8 rounded down; (underline means important), is 164 marbles.

Answer:

164

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

2/4

Step-by-step explanation:

Bonnie and  Maria combined = 1/4 + 2/4 = 3/4

Gracie run = 5/4

=> How much  farther, f, did Gracie run than Bonnie and  Maria combined

= 5/4 - 3/4 = 2/4

So Gracie run 2/4 more than Bonnie and  Maria combined

Answer:

2/4 mile.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Db = 1/4 mile

Do = 3/4 mile

Dg = 5/4 mile

Dm = 2/4 mile

Dt = Db + Dm

= 1/4 + 2/4

= 3/4 mile

= Dg - Dt

= 5/4 - 3/4

= 2/4 mile.

Answer:

$195P00*0.0055(1+0.0055)^360

____________________________

            (1+0.0055)^360-1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

4+5x<x

Step-by-step explanation:

four more than is saying addition so youd add the 4 and the 5x together. the less than is referring to the less than sign. and the number is referring to x.(;

The value of [tex](f+g)(x)[/tex] is [tex]5 x^{2}-4[/tex]

Explanation:

Given that the functions [tex]f(x)=4 x^{2}+1[/tex] and [tex]g(x)=x^{2}-5[/tex]

We need to determine the value of [tex](f+g)(x)[/tex]

The value of [tex](f+g)(x)[/tex] can be determined by substituting the value of [tex]f(x)[/tex] and [tex]g(x)[/tex] and simplifying the terms.

Thus, let us assign [tex]f(x)=4 x^{2}+1[/tex] in the function [tex](f+g)(x)[/tex], we have,

[tex]4 x^{2}+1+g(x)[/tex]

Now, let us assign [tex]g(x)=x^{2}-5[/tex] in the function [tex](f+g)(x)[/tex], we get,

[tex]4 x^{2}+1+x^{2}-5[/tex]

Grouping the like terms, we have,

[tex]4 x^{2}+x^{2}+1-5[/tex]

Adding the like terms, we get,

[tex]5 x^{2}-4[/tex]

Hence, the value of [tex](f+g)(x)[/tex] is [tex]5 x^{2}-4[/tex]

Answer:

$6,632.55

Step-by-step explanation:

What a coincidence I was doing the same question. Ok so you should know about the Compound Interest formula which is A=P (1+r/100) n. (n) is btw in the exponent.

A= ?

P=6250

r=2

n=3

   Anyways we will input everything we are given so it will be:

A=6250(1+2/100)3

   Since A is final amount - it will be our answer which is  $6,632.55

Final answer:

Carol invested $6,250 at a rate of 2% per year compound interest. After 3 years using the compound interest formula A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt), her investment will grow to $6,632.55.

Explanation:

Carol invested $6,250 at a rate of 2% per year compound interest. To calculate the total amount Carol has after 3 years, we can use the formula:

A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt)

Where:

Since the interest is compounded yearly, n will be 1. Assuming the 2% interest rate is already in decimal form (0.02), and the time is 3 years, we substitute these values into the formula:

A = 6250(1 + 0.02/1)^(1*3)

A = 6250(1 + 0.02)^3

A = 6250(1.02)^3

A = 6250 * 1.061208

A = $6632.55

Therefore, after 3 years, Carol's investment will have grown to $6632.55.

Answer:

To write the following expressions as a multiple of a power of 10 you need to take each of the numbers and raise them to the power of 10.

An easy way to do this is to find the decimal point and move it over one spot to the right.

a. 0.04- move the decimal one to the right and you get that 0.04^10=00.4.

b. 0.072-move the decimal to the right one spot you get 0.072^10=00.72.

c. 0.0000325-move your decical to get 0.0000325^10=00.000325.

d. 0.003-move the decimal to get 0.003^10=00.03 or three hundredths.

e. 0.23-move your decimal to get 0.23^10=2.3 or two and three tenths.

f. 0.729-move you decimal to the right to get 0.729^10=07.29 or seven and twenty-nine hundredths.

g. 0.000041- move your decimal to the right to get 0.000041^10=00.00041 or forty-one hundred thousandths.

Hope this helps ;)

To write the expression as a multiple of a power of 10 ; we express the decimals in scientific notation :

0.04 :

0.04 = [tex] 4 \times 10^{-2}[/tex]

0.072 :

0.072 = [tex] 7.2 \times 10^{-3}[/tex]

0.0000325 :

0.04 = [tex] 3.25 \times 10^{-5}[/tex]

Three thousandth = 0.003 :

0.003 = [tex] 3 \times 10^{-3}[/tex]

23 hundredths = 0.023:

0.023 = [tex] 2.3 \times 10^{-2}[/tex]

729 thousandths = 0.00729 :

0.00729 = [tex] 7.29 \times 10^{-3}[/tex]

41 millionths = 0.0000041

0.0000041 = [tex] 4.1\times 10^{-6}[/tex]

Hence, the scientific representation.

Learn more : https://brainly.com/question/15370209