Oral bacteria and dietary sugars are two of the three parts of the "Etiology Triad" of Early Childhood Caries. What is the third part of the triad?
Answers
Answer:
Teeth (The enamel and dentine of teeth which is vulnerable to demineralization) is the third part of triad.
Explanation:
Etiology triad includes :
1) Oral bacteria
2) Dietary sugars.
3) Teeth
Oral bacteria break down dietary sugars into acids which break down the teeth.
Bacteria are the causative agent . Destroys tooth structure , often rapidly. Usually affets the maxillary incisors first.
Potentially sever consequences could include pain , tooth loss , pulpitis , pulp necrosis and dental abscess.
Related Questions
How does a sewing machine need to be modified in order to stitch a zipper
Answers
Zipper using Sewing machine:
Put your machine for a standard on the right track fasten sewing. Connect the zipper foot to the machine on the left half of the foot. Follow your sewing machine manual for your prescribed Zipper Foot settings. Contingent upon the model, you may need to move the needle position with the goal that the needle sews on the left half of the foot. A zipper foot can change, so it is on the left or the correct side of the sewing machine needle. This alteration permits you to sew the zipper without the presser foot, applying strain to the zipper teeth. Spot your zipper so the focal point of the zipper lines up with your crease and pin it set up: Now you will sew down one side of the zipper, over the base and up the opposite side, right to the top. Move your zipper foot to whatever side you need it on with the goal that the needle is near the zipper as you sew.After being diagnosed with an untreatable, terminal form of cancer, Peggy shouted "This isn't fair! I've always exercised and eaten right! Why me?" What stage of dying is Peggy likely experiencing?
Answers
Answer:
Stage of Anger
Explanation:
A 10-year-old boy arrives with his mother at the emergency department after being bitten by a stray dog. He has sustained a soft tissue injury on the inner aspect of the left forearm, and it is bleeding. What is the priority nursing action?
1
Asking the mother whether her son is allergic to horse serum
2
Assessing the injury and the child's vital signs and health history
3
Inoculating the child with human rabies immunoglobulin
4
Notifying the police department to capture and test the dog
2.
For effective decisions to be made, baseline information on the child's condition, extent of injury, and significant health history are required first. Hyperimmune antirabies serum is not a preferred treatment. Inoculation for establishment of short-term, passive immunity to rabies follows initial care of injuries; the priority is assessment and treatment of the injury. Authorities should be notified after the injured child has received care.
Answers
Answer:
2
Explanation:
In a psychiatric in-patient setting, the nurse observes an adolescent client's peers calling the client names. In this context, which statement by the nurse exemplifies the concept of empathy?
1. "I can see that you are upset. Tell me how you feel."
2. "Your peers are being insensitive. I would be upset also."
3. "I used to be called names as a child. I know it can hurt feelings."
4. "I get angry when people are treated cruelly
Answers
Answer: 3. "I used to be called names as a child. I know it can hurt feelings."
Explanation: Empathy means the ability to understand and share the feelings of another.
Angela has been experiencing headaches for a number of months, and after extensive testing it is determined that she has intractable chronic cluster headaches. This would be coded with code ________ .
a. G44.10
b. G44.021
c. G44.229
d. G43.9
Answers
Answer:
B) G44.021
Explanation:
The correct code for chronic cluster headaches is b. G44.021, which matches Angela's condition of enduring intractable chronic cluster headaches.
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is marked by severe pain on one side of the head, often around the eye. They are called 'cluster headaches' because they tend to occur in groups or clusters.
A characteristic feature of these headaches is their cyclical nature, with periods of frequent attacks ('clusters'), followed by remission periods. Intractable headaches are those that do not respond well to treatments.
The correct answer to the question is b. G44.021. This code is for chronic cluster headaches, which fits Angela's condition of experiencing long-term, intractable cluster headaches.
Codes like G44.10, G44.229, and G43.9 relate to other types of headaches or migraines, not specifically to chronic cluster headaches.
___________ care is a NICU procedure that involves skin-to-skin contact in which the baby, wearing only a diaper, is held upright against the parent's bare chest.
Answers
Answer:
The correct answer is- Kangaroo care
Explanation:
Kangaroo care is a method of baby carrying given especially to the baby who is premature. It involves the skin-to-skin contact of naked baby or partially naked baby(baby with the only a diaper) with the parent or mother's bare skin for as long as possible.
It helps the premature baby to stabilize its heart rate, decrease crying, gaining weight rapidly, improve the pattern of breathing, increase sleep time. etc. The longer the time of kangaroo care the better would be the result in baby health. Therefore the correct answer is kangaroo care.
Peter read that eating a diet full of processed foods and fats won't help to promote the good bacteria in our colon. These good bacteria keep us healthy. Which breakfast is a good way to introduce good bacteria to our gut?
a. bacon and hash browns
b. yogurt and granola
c. eggs and sausage
d. cereal with milk and a glass of orange juice
e. omelet with processed cheese and yellow peppers
Answers
Answer:
The answer is: b. Yogurt and granola. d. cereal with milk and a glass of orange juice
Explanation:
Good bacteria in the intestinal microbiota perform many functions, including the following:
1.-Metabolize nutrients and medications.
2.-Help the immune system to prevent pathogenic invasions.
3.-Maintain the structure and functioning of the gastrointestinal tract.
This is achieved by following a diet rich in fruits and vegetables to promote a healthy intestine.
Research suggests that eating whole grains and plants helps grow good bacteria. Certain foods with active cultures, such as yogurt, kimchi and kombucha, can also add useful bacteria to the system.
The answer is: b. Yogurt and granola. d. cereal with milk and a glass of orange juice.
Probiotics are live bacteria which are good for human body.
These bacteria help with digestion. These good bacteria are found in unprocessed foods and they help produce various food products for human consumption.
They can be found in yeast, vinegar, cheese, yogurt, pickles and granola. These bacteria help keep gut of human body healthy. Excessive processed goods are not healthy for human body.
The correct answer is B. Yogurt and Granola.
Learn more at https://brainly.com/question/14530849
4.
The process of releasing a mature ovum into the fallopian tubes each month is called ___.
A. Menstruation
B. Ovulation
C. Uterus
D. Cervix
E. Vagina
Answers
The process of releasing a mature ovum into the fallopian tubes each month is called ovulation.
Answer:
The process of releasing a mature ovum into fallopian tubes each month is called ovulation
B) option is correct
Fellow Marines can resolve value conflicts by making it clear that ________ that interfere with the unit's integrity or mission accomplishment will not be tolerated.
Answers
Answer: Attitude and Behaviour
Explanation: Attitudes involves mind's predisposition to certain ideas, values, people, systems, institutions while Behaviour relates to the actual expression of feelings, action or inaction orally or/and through body language.
In the context of the Marine Corps, value conflicts can be resolved by communicating clear expectations regarding behaviors that interfere with the unit's integrity or mission accomplishment.
Explanation:In the context of the question, the subject being discussed is the resolution of value conflicts among fellow Marines. This falls under the subject of Social Studies.
To resolve value conflicts, Marines can make it clear that behaviors or actions that interfere with the unit's integrity or mission accomplishment will not be tolerated. By setting clear expectations and consequences, the unit can work together more effectively.
This approach encourages a commitment to the values of the unit and ensures that actions align with the overall mission, promoting unity and cohesion.
Learn more about Resolving value conflicts among Marines here:https://brainly.com/question/33714180
#SPJ3
Enculturation is _____________.a.learning the customs and behaviors of another cultureb.teaching others about your personal beliefsc.learning the customs and behaviors of your own cultured.using cultural beliefs to communicate ethically
Answers
Answer:
C) learning the customs and behaviors of your own culture
Explanation:
Enculturation refers to the process in which a person adapts its culture that is the person learns about the practices of their own culture and accept them.
The process of enculturation is performed through unconscious repetition and sets the limits and responsibilities for the person.
The authoritative person in the life of a child like the parents are the initiators of the enculturation which teach them social practices, make their beliefs about their culture and establishes the ideals of the culture.
Thus, Option-C is the correct answer.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Bentham theorized that people rationally choose their behaviors by weighing the pleasure or benefit of their actions against the potential pain or cost. This process is known as: a. hedonistic calculus. b. the avoidance principle. c. the veil of ignorance. d. ethical formalism.
Answers
Answer:
Hedonistic Calculus
Explanation: Bentham's *Hedonistic Calculus* states that *"people rationally choose their behaviours by weighing the pleasure or benefit of their actions against the potential pain"*. He believed that moral rightness or wrongness of an action is the function of the amount of pleasure or pain that is produced.
This theory is based on certain variables. These include:
1) Duration:How long the pleasure would last.
2) Fecundity: The probability that the action would be followed by sensations of that same kind.
3)Extent:How many people the action would affect.
4) Purity:The probability that the action will not be followed by sensations of the opposite kind.
5) Intensity:How strong the pleasure is.
Therefore,the main point of Bentham's *Hedonistic Calculus* is that it is *based on benefit of pleasure over pain*.
Malcolm has been watching a roulette-style game at a local charity bazaar. The game has only ten numbers on the wheel, and every number except 8 has come up as a winner during the last 15 minutes. Malcolm decides to bet $10 on number 8, because it eventually has to come up. In this case, Malcolm is showing evidence of ________.a. the availability heuristic.
b. the gambler's fallacy.
c. the base rate fallacy.
d. the conjunction fallacy.
Answers
Answer:
b. the gambler's fallacy
Explanation:
Monte Carlo fallacy also known as the gamblers fallacy is a player's misconception that one event will have an impact on the outcome of a future event when both events actually are separate. Individuals make a mistake when they assume that one thing needs to happen again and again to necessitate that something else happens again.
If the EEG record reveals evidence of sleep spindles, you are likely to conclude that the sleeping person is in which stage of sleep?
Answers
Answer: stage two(2)
Explanation:
The stage two (2) sleep is been characterized or categorized by sleep spindles and the K- complexes .
Also as we move to the stage two sleep, the body goes into a deep stage of relaxation of sleep also know as the stage two (2) sleep .
Answer: STAGE 2 OF SLEEP
N2 (R STAGE 2)
Explanation: Stage 2 of sleep is also known as NON-REM(non rapid eye movement) stage and it is characterised by short rythmic bursts of brainwave activity known as sleep spindles.
In this second stage of sleep,there is decreased metabolic activity in the body, the heart rate, breathing and eye movement slows down.the muscles relax with intervals of twitching,the brain waves slows down from their daytime wakefulness.
These processes are regulated from the higher brain centers which is part of the cerebrum that is associated with cognitive processes.
A client arrives at a health clinic stating, "I am here to have my tuberculin skin test read." The nurse notes that there is a 7mm indurated area at the injection site. Which statement made by the nurse correctly describes this result?a. "The result indicates that you have active tuberculosis."b. "The result indicates that you are infected with the tuberculosis organism."c. "The result indicates that there are no tuberculin antibodies in your system."d. "The result indicates that you have a secondary infection related to the tuberculin organism."
Answers
The tuberculin skin test measures the body's response to the tuberculosis bacteria. A 7mm induration can indicate a positive result in certain risk groups, which only means the person has been infected with the TB bacteria. Further evaluation is needed to ascertain if the infection is active or latent.
Explanation:In a tuberculin skin test, the size of the induration (hard, swollen area) after the injection determines if the test is positive. The nurse, in this case, noted a 7mm indurated area. This would be considered a positive result if the individual belongs to a high-risk group, for instance, people living with HIV, recent immigrants from high TB prevalence areas, or those in close contact with TB patients. However, it is important to understand that a positive tuberculin skin test doesn't necessarily mean the person has active tuberculosis; it only indicates that the person has been infected with the TB bacteria.
Thus, the correct statement made by the nurse would be 'The result indicates that you are infected with the tuberculosis organism.' A more detailed evaluation is needed to confirm whether the infection is active or latent.
Learn more about Tuberculosis Test Interpretation here:https://brainly.com/question/31843142
#SPJ2
Which of Piaget's substages of his sensorimotor stage is the one in which infants begin to coordinate what were separate actions into single, integrated activities?
Answers
Answer:
Substage 2: First habits and primary circular reactions (1-4 months)
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that the substage of the sensorimotor stage that is being described would be Substage 2. This substage deals with first habits and primary circular reactions, and occurs in children between 1 to 4 months of age. The children begin to adapt their reflexes and actions into integrated activities during this substage.
Sarah qualified for her state’s gymnastics finals. She has decided to give up three hours of sleep each night so that she can fit more training in. She is also training on her rest days. What is the likely result? (Select all that apply.)
A.She will build much stronger muscles.
B.She will increase her risk for injury
C.The extra training will make her more likely to win.
D.Her muscles will not recover well from workouts.
Answers
Answer:B and
Explanation:B and D
She is not allowing her muscles to heal from the the exercise and it could cause her to become injured
Which of the following are important cognitive changes that occur during adolescence? (Select all that apply.) Abstract thinking Operational thought Critical thinking Concrete thought
Answers
Answer:
critical thinking and abstract thinking
Explanation:
Critical thinking - it is referred to that thinking that is totally based on facts and figures. it is based on the logic and judgment are base on the reason. Critical thinking allow someone to be like sensible learner instead of a passive learner
Abstract thinking - it is referred to that thinking that is beyond our reached or about the thing that are in virtual. Abstract thinking allows the thinker to have a wider picture of an idea.
In people with sickle-cell disease, red blood cells break down, clump, and clog the blood vessels. The blood vessels and the broken cells accumulate in the spleen. Among other things this leads to physical weakness, heart failure, joint pain, and brain damage. Such a suite of symptoms can be explained by __________.
Answers
Norman was injured in a severe car accident, and now, according to his doctors, his hormone levels are highly irregular. In order to have created such havoc in his endocrine system, Norman's injury probably involved damage to his ______________.
Answers
Answer:
pituitary gland
Explanation:
The pituitary gland is a ductless gland of the endocrine system located on the underside of the brain and is attached to the hypothalamus. The pituitary gland is responsible for the regulation of the secretion of various hormones into the bloodstream, which controls many different processes and vital functions of the body. It is referred to as the “master gland”. It controls endocrine glands such as the thyroid gland, adrenal gland, reproductive gland.
Answer:
Norman was injured in a severe car accident, and now, according to his doctors, his hormone levels are highly irregular. In order to have created such havoc in his endocrine system, Norman's injury probably involved damage to his pituitary gland.
Explanation:
As in the given scenario, hormones level are highly irregular after the accident , it is a probability that the pituitary gland was damaged due to severe head injury resulting in irregular hormone levels
Pituitary gland is located in brain responsible to produce topical (stimulating) as well as local hormones.
The hormones produced by the pituitary gland stimulates the production of hormones by a peripheral endocrine gland , liver or other tissues.
Isabel had been taking Valium, a benzodiazepine, for a few years to calm her nerves and help her sleep. She had her dosage increased by her doctor because her previous dosage wasn’t helping her sleep at night anymore. One night, she went out with her husband for his company’s annual Christmas party. She had never been much of a drinker, but that evening she wanted to enjoy a few cocktails. She was very careful not to mix her Valium with alcohol, as her doctor had warned her. Towards the end of the evening, Isabel realized that she had had at least 5 cocktails and didn’t feel drunk at all. Which term may best describe why this happened?
a. Cross dependence
b. Cross tolerance
c. Up-regulation
d. Co-transmission
Answers
Answer:
Cross tolerance.
Explanation:
Cross - tolerance may be defined as the phenomena in which the tolerance of the one chemical increases the tolerance of the other chemical. This cross tolerance can occur in case of the multiple drugs in the individual.
The cross tolerance especially occurs in the different drugs that have similar functions or may act on the same receptors. Isabel drugs shows the cross tolerance with the alcohol as these includes the tolerance for each other and do not increase the drunkenness .
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Felicia has a respiratory infection and has been coughing up a lot of mucus. She knows this means that her respiratory system is working to restore balance by getting rid of the invasive materials from her lungs. How does this happen?
Answers
Answer:
Mucus is released from the two different part of tissues of the lung. Goblet cells that produces mucus present in the surface of the epithelium. The second is the seromucous glands that produce mucus.
There are production of the high amount of the mucus a day from both the regions, it is stick in nature that helps to trap dust particles, debris, or bacteria. These sticky secretion contains natural antibiotics that easily destroy bacteria, this process called defensis.
Answer:
mechanisms within the bronchial tubes move the mucus, formed around invasive materials, out of the lungs
Explanation:
A 72-year-old female has a one-week history of 101°F fever, chills, and dark-brown sputum production. She also has rhonchi and rales throughout her right lung. If this condition is left untreated, it could result in:a. Cardiogenic shock
b. Chronic bronchitis
c. Septic shock
d. Pneumonia
Answers
Answer:
septic shock
Explanation:
is a wide spread infection causeing organ failure
Answer:
septic shock
Explanation:
Charles C. is a 65 year old executive who is overweight and has recently been diagnosed with high Blood pressure. He has just completed a class on the principles of the DASH( Dietary Approaches to stop Hypertension) diet and has set a goal to lower his intake of fat and sodium and to increase his intake of calcium and potassium-rich foods. Mr.C. has met a friend for lunch at his favorite restaurant that features pizza, salads, soups, and sandwiches.
1. Based on information provided in this chapter, what food groups are good sources of potassium? Calcium?
2. What are some menu items at Mr.C's favorite restaurant that would provide these nutrients?
3. What might be a calcium-rich menu choice that is also low in fat?
4. Charles likes soup buy notices that most soups on the menu contain a significant amount of sodium. What is one strategy he might use?
5. How might the my Plate icon help Charles order a healthy meal?
6. Based on information provided in this chapter, order a lunch for Mr.C. that includes at least 3 food groups and meets his current dietary goals.
Answers
Answer:
3
Explanation:
A client with chronic open-angle glaucoma is being taught to self-administer pilocarpine. After the client administers the pilocarpine, the client states that her vision is blurred. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
Answers
Pilocarpine is an antimuscarinic drug. There are M3 receptors located on the pupil responsible to constrict the pupils (miosis ) and also causing cyclospasm.
As pilocarpine is administered ,it is a pharmacologic antagonist of the muscarinic receptor , it results in mydriasis (dilation of pupils ) and cycloplegia ( inability to accommodate ) resulting in blurred vision.
Hence it is one of the side effects of pilocarpine.
The enhancement of contrast at the edge of an object is the result of:
a. lateral inhibition in the retina.
b. the diffraction of light from the edge's surface.
c. fatigue of the rods and cones.
d. the color of the object.
Answers
Answer: a. lateral inhibition in the retina.
Explanation:
Lateral inhibition is a process of increase in sharpness and contrasts in the visual response. This phenomenon is a characteristic feature of mammalian retina. In lateral inhibition, the different cells of the retina in the eye respond to the varying degrees of the light. In this process when one cell in retina activates in the response to light this impairs the activity of the neighboring cell. This causes the edges between the dark and light areas of the object to appear more prominent than would be in the actual sense.
Medical education in the United States has focused almost exclusively on curative medicine, while preventive care has been given scant attention. This is misguided. Medical schools should invest as much time in teaching their students how to prevent illness as in teaching them how to cure it.
Which of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument above?
(A) Many contagious diseases can be prevented with vaccines.
(B) In 1988, for every three cents the United States spent on prevention, it spent 97 cents on curative treatment.
(C) The number of students enrolled in medical school is the highest it has ever been.
(D) More people die each year from disease than from accidental causes.
(E) As the population grows, the number of doctors in certain specialties has not been keeping pace.
Answers
The statement that strengthens the argument is that many contagious disease can be prevented with vaccines
Explanation:
Once the person is infected the measure must be taken properly to treat the person, isolate them and give them the necessary vaccination and more knowledge must be given to people on the preventive measures
Vaccination is the best method that prevents the disease from being spread and hence proper vaccination must be ensured to the infected person and so this statement is true compared to the other statements
A nurse is completing a vision exam with the Snellen eye chart and records the client's vision as 20/30 or 6/9. The client asks the nurse, "What does that mean?" How should the nurse respond?a. "Your vision is perfect; you can read the entire chart and you do not need glasses." b. "You are able to read at 20 ft (6 m) what a person with normal vision can read at 30 ft (9m)." c. "Your vision in your right eye is slightly different than that of your left eye." d. "Your vision is better than average; you can read from 30 ft (9 m) what a person with normal vision can read from 20 ft (6 m)."e. "You are able to read at 20 ft (6 m) what a person with normal vision can read at 30 ft (9m)."
Answers
Answer:
The answer is B- "You are able to read at 20 ft (6 m) what a person with normal vision can read at 30 ft (9 m)."
Explanation:
A snellen eye chart is used by the ophthalmologist for the measurement of visual acuity or clarity of a person's vision. It contains symbols which are referred to as optotypes
To interpret the result of a client's vision from the snellen eye chart, the top number shows the distance at which the client is standing from the chart while the denominator shows the distance at which a normal eye can see. Telling the client that vision is perfect or that vision is above average or that one eye is better than the other is not appropriate.
As in the question, if the nurse records the client's vision as 20/30 or 6/9, it then means that the client can read at 20 feet away what a person with a normal vision can read at 30 feet away, or the client can read at 6 meters what a person with a normal vision can read at 9 meters.
Nurse Jane formulates a nursing diagnosis of Impaired physical mobility for a client with third-degree burns on the lower portions of both legs. To complete the nursing diagnosis statement, the nurse should add which "related-to" phrase?
A. Related to fat emboli
B. Related to infection
C. Related to femoral artery occlusion
D. Related to circumferential eschar
Answers
Answer:
D. Related to circumferential eschar.
Explanation:
The third degree burns are also called full thickness burns.
The skin becomes pearly gray / charred skin ( Circumferential scar )
They usually involves all the layers of the skin and also the underlying tissue.
It is the most severe burn.
It may be painful may be painless.
Can be life threatning due to fluid loss.
As the eschar is defined as a sloughed off peice of a dead tissue from the skin especially after burn thus the nurse should add a " Related to circumferential eschar " phrase.
A local activist group is trying to stop a major corporation from developing land set aside as a preserved wetland to build a new shopping mall. Which communication tool would most likely help them recruit the most support from the community?
A.) an editorial written in the local newspaper describing the problems created by the mall
B.) televised press conferences where they can talk with people about the issue
C.) flyers describing the dangers of project sent to homes in the targeted area
Answers
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
HELP WILL MARK BRAINLIEST! WRITE IN YOUR OWN WORDS
this has to be about golf
Describe the rules for your sport. Be specific.
Describe the etiquette in your sport toward other players and observers.
Write a scenario where you would have to apply a rule of etiquette in your sport.
Imagine you are playing your sport and a conflict arises with a team member or someone on an opposing team. Describe the conflict and how you would resolve the conflict
Answers
Rules of playing golf:
1. The maximum number of clubs in our bag for a competitive round can be 14.
2. Players are not allowed to take advice from anyone except their partner.
3. One must not move the ball and play from the place and way it is found.
4. The penalty for losing a ball which includes striking of ball out of the bounds or into water is one stroke.
5. The ball must be hit using standard clubs.
Etiquette in playing golf are:
1. We must avoid playing with balls which we cannot afford to lose.
2. We must read the putts while others are putting and then be ready to hit.
3. We must avoid using our phones while playing.
4. We must keep quiet while playing.
5. We must dress appropriately.
If there is a conflict with the opponent then try sort that out at the earliest or solve once the playing is done because everyone's time is precious and golf is the game of silence, concentration and practice.