Answer:
Asia
Explanation:
For example look at Mount Everest. which is the tallest mountain. the first question I would ask is how did it happen? The shape of the Mount Everest comes from divergent boundaries. What I mean by this is, land collision.
Answer:
AUSTRALIA
Explanation:
Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP ) is a biological oxidant involved in the oxidation of testosterone to estradiol.
True/false
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
NADP does not convert testosterone to estradiol. This oxidation is done by a steroid 17-a-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase.
This oxidation is essential for stability of hormone: it helps to regulates the elevation of Testosterone in women,subduing the manifestation of male sexual characteristics,
and
for preventing autoimmune diseases.
The oxidation involved two basic steps of reaction, controlled by two different enzymes.
NADP is a Co- factor, when in reduced form( NADPH) is used in Calvin cycle, of light independent reaction of photosynthesis, and in Nucleic acid and triglycerides synthesis.
It has nothing to do with conversation of Androgen( testosterone to Estradiol.
The N-H bond in ammonia is polar because
A: nitrogen occupies more space than hydrogen.
B: hydrogen is much more electronegative than nitrogen.
C: it is a hydrogen bond.
D: it is an ionic bond.
E: nitrogen is much more electronegative than hydrogen.
Answer:
The N-H bond in ammonia is polar because the nitrogen is more electronegative than the hydrogen.
Explanation:
The nitrogen atoms in a molecule of ammonia is more electronegativity than the hydrogen atoms thus making it a polar molecule.
Answer: Option E.
N-H bond in ammonia is polar because nitrogen is more electronegative than hydrogen.
Explanation:
Ammonia is a compound that contain nitrogen and hydrogen. It has a trigonal pyramidal i shape, the three hydrogen atoms and one nitrogen atom are covalently bonded together. The nitrogen atom is more electronegative and it attracts more electron to itself. The nitrogen atom is slightly negative and the hydrogen atoms are slightly positive, there is unequal sharing of electrons between the nitrogen atom and hydrogen atoms due to high attraction of electrons to nitrogen atom, this is what is refer to Polar molecule. A polar molecule I a molecule with unequal sharing of electron between the atoms.
Adaptive radiation can be a direct consequence of four of the following five factors. Select the exception.
a) vacant ecological niches
b) genetic drift
c) colonization of an isolated region that contains suitible habitat and few competitor species.
d) evolutionary innnovation
e) an adaptive radiation in a group of organisms (such as plants) that another group uses as food
Answer: Option B.
Genetic drift.
Explanation:
Adaptive radiation is the fat evolution of several species from a common ancestors, when a change in environment make available new resources or create new opportunities. It is characterized by ecological and morphological diversity. The factors or conditions that lead to adaptive radiation are colonization of an isolated that contain suitable habitat and few competitors species, evolutionary innovation,adaptive radiation in a group of organisms that another group use as food and vacant ecological niches.
Genetic drift is not a direct consequence factor of adaptive radiation.
Genetic drift is a process that occur in small population which is due to change in allele frequencies of a population due to certain occurrences. In this case few of the population can separate from the entire or the whole population is reduced, hence it is not a direct consequences of adaptive radiation.
Genetic drift is the exception among the listed factors because it does not actually lead to or is not associated with adaptive radiation which usually occurs when a change in the environment makes new resources available or opens new environmental niches.
Explanation:In the context of evolution, adaptive radiation is a process where organisms diversify rapidly into a multitude of new forms, particularly when a change in the environment makes new resources available, creates new challenges, or opens new environmental niches. The factors that can lead to adaptive radiation include vacant ecological niches (option a), colonization of an isolated region that contains suitable habitats and few competitor species (option c), evolutionary innovation (option d), and an adaptive radiation in a group of organisms that another group uses as food (option e). However, genetic drift (option b) does not lead to adaptive radiation because it refers to random changes in the frequencies of alleles in a gene pool, which is not necessarily aligned with adaptation or the filling of ecological niches.
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Franz is diagnosed with retrograde ejaculation. This means that
a.
his sperm count is getting low and he may be infertile
b.
he is unable to ejaculate during intercourse
c.
he is unable to ejaculate and experience orgasm at the same time
d.
his semen passes into his bladder rather than out of his urethral opening
Answer:
d. his semen passes into his bladder rather than out of his urethral opening.
Explanation:
Men who have retrograde ejaculation have no trouble getting an erection. The problem is that when the man reaches the climax the semen enters the bladder instead of going out through the male sex organ (The sperm passes from the seminiferous tubules to the epididymis. In the epididymis semen is formed. This semen comes out of the end of the urethra.). For this reason, no semen goes out through the male sex organ and there is a cloudy urine after orgasm because it contains semen. This condition causes inability to cause a pregnancy.
Answer: Option D.
Retrograde ejaculation means semen passes in to the bladder rather than urethral opening.
Explanation:
Retrograde ejaculation is a sexul disorder in men in which the semen travel to the bladder instead of the penis during orgasm. This lead to too much sperm in the urine and can also lead to low fertility in men. Retrograde ejaculation is common in men with diabetes who suffer nerve damage. Men with spinal cord injury and multiple sclerosis can also develop retrograde ejaculation. Once diagnosed medical treatment should be given.
The blueprints for structural organization and metabolism are contained in ____, and the offspring receive copies of these instructions ___.a. DNA; through metabolism b. DNA; from the parent c. RNA; are generated by chanced. DNA; are generated by chance e. RNA; from the parent
Answer: Option b: DNA; from the parent
Explanation: Chromosomes are present in pairs which contains DNA. When sperm and egg are United to create a child, one strand of DNA comes from mother and one from the father. It means you receive one copy of chromosome from father and one from the mother and DNA present in double stranded form, so two copies of each Gene are present. Your chromosome that is formed is unique to both parents because you receive chromosome from both. The chromosome contain DNA, stores information for inheritance of features from parents to next generation and from the DNA, protein is formed by using it's information. Actually DNA contains nitrogenous bases which forms the codes for the formation of amino acids that are building block of proteins.
Which three statements may correctly explain why the population size increases after time point C?Figure:Point C is a point in a graph
The correct statements are:
The population grew more rapidly after time point C because the bacteria must have acquired a second drug-resistance mutation.The population increase just after time point C indicates that antibiotic use was discontinued.Bacteria that acquired a mutation conferring drug resistance had a growth advantage over non-resistant bacteria, leading to the rapid reproduction of drug-resistant bacteria and a subsequent increase in the overall population size.The statement that the population grew more rapidly after time point C due to the acquisition of a second drug-resistance mutation is not necessarily supported by the graph. The increased population size may be attributed to other factors, such as the growth advantage of existing drug-resistant bacteria.The population increase just after time point C does not necessarily indicate that antibiotic use was discontinued. It could be a result of the proliferation of bacteria with drug resistance, indicating that the antibiotic was not effective against these resistant strains.The plausible explanation for the population increase after time point C is that bacteria with a mutation conferring drug resistance had a growth advantage over non-resistant bacteria. This growth advantage led to the rapid reproduction of drug-resistant bacteria, contributing to the overall population expansion. This interpretation aligns with the principles of natural selection, where advantageous traits confer a fitness advantage and drive their prevalence in a population.The fact that being homozygous recessive for the CCR5 receptor protects people from being infected with HIV, thus causing an increase in the recessive CCR5 allele, is an example of
Answer:
Positive natural selection
Explanation:
Positive natural selection is fundamental to adaptive evolution and it is characterized by its ability to be passed on, that is heritable, and beneficial to a population.
Which of the five kingdoms in Whittaker’s phylogenetic tree are prokaryotic, and which are eukaryotic?
Answer:
Most kingdoms are Eukaryotic
Explanation:
Prokaryotes are organisms consisting of cells that do not have membrane-bound organelles or a cell nucleus.
Eukaryotes are organisms made up of cells that have a membrane-bound nucleus to hold their genetic material, in addition to membrane-bound organelles.
The five kingdoms are Animalia, Plantae, Protista, Fungi, and Monera.
Animalia are eukaryotic because the organisms in this category are advanced organisms that require membrane-bound organelles and a nucleus with their genetic DNA in order to function and thrive. Protista, fungi, and plantae also go into the eukaryotic category because protists, fungi, and plants all have membrane-bound organelles and can carry out higher-level functions.
Monera are prokaryotes, and monera are usually classified into two domains: bacteria and archaea. Monerans lack a nucleus and membrane-bound organelles, and for this reason Monerans are very small organisms.
According to the five-kingdom classification of R.H Whittaker, the kingdom Monera is a unicellular prokaryotic organism, while the other four kingdoms i.e. Protista, Fungi, Plantae, and Animalis are the eukaryotic organisms.
How prokaryotes are different from eukaryotes?Prokaryotes don't have a well-defined nucleus and other membrane-bounded cell organelles while eukaryotes possess proper compartmentalization.
Therefore, it is well described above.
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Which structure contains intertwined capillaries from the mother and the developing embryo?
Answer:
The structure that contains intertwined capillaries from the mother and the developing embryo is PLACENTA.
Explanation:
Placenta is a structure composed of both embryonic and maternal tissues. It supplies nutrients to the developing embryo.
Placenta is a unique organ found mainly in mammals, that allows developing fetus to have all the nutrients from their mother's blood stream even before they are born.
Besides providing the nutrients, placenta also provides attachment of fetus to the mother's Uterine wall and allow the fetus to transfer all the waste products to the mother's blood for excretion.
Placenta composed of 2 parts : The maternal part called as Decidua Basalis and the fetal part called as Chorion Frondosum. The parts are held together by Anchoring Villi.
Maternal blood flows from the maternal circulatory system through the intervillous space (space surrounding the chorion) nutrients and other exchange occurs and blood flows back in the maternal circulation.
Amniotes produce eggs that contain fluids that bathe the embryo during gestation..
a True
b. False
Answer: a) true
Explanation: The fluid inside the egg helps in the survival of embryo and maintain fluid environment.
Answer:True
Explanation:
Ambitious have a protective covering called amnion this serves as a protective coat while developing . It contains amniotic fluid and it as been said that some of the fluid are found in the developing embryos and its also aisds there movement . The fluid contain protein and some minerals
3. Mammals feed their young with insects, plants, and roots.
a. True
b. False
Wildlife in the Serengeti is currently threatened by ________.A. Pollution from a nearby coal power plant.B. Plans to build a highway that passes through the park.C. An invasive fish that has been introduced into the major river that flows through the park.D. Plans to legalize hunting of most of the large animal species in the park.E. An overabundance of elephants.
Answer:
B. Plans to build a highway that passes through the park.
Explanation:
Serengeti is one of the largest wilderness area in the world as it supports a very large and magnificent diversity of animals especially Lion , Black rhino , buffalo , elephant and leapord.
Wildlife in Serengeti is currently threatened by the plans to build a highway that passes through the park definition. Thus the increased human acticities around the boundary of the Serengeti National park have damaged habitat and constrained the area available for the migration of animals like zebras , wildebeast and gazelles.
Draw one of the positively charged amino acids. Indicate whether you would expect to find it on the surface of or buried in a globular protein.
Answer:
COO-
|
H3N+ ------C -------H
|
CH2
|
CH2
|
CH2
|
CH2
|
+NH3
Lysine (positively charged amino acid)
It is present on the outside of a globular protien.
Explanation:
Formula of lysine:
C6H14N2O2
Globular proteins are folded such that their tertiary structure consists of the polar, or hydrophilic, amino acids arranged on the outside and the nonpolar, or hydrophobic, amino acids on the inside of the three-dimensional shape. This arrangement is responsible for the solubility of globular proteins in water.
As lysine is a positively charged polar / hydrophilic amino acid , it is arranged on the outside of the globular protien.
A man and woman marry. They have five children, 2 girls and 3 boys. The mother is a carrier of
hemophilia, an X-linked disorder. She passes the gene on to two of the boys who died in childhood
and one of the daughters is also a carrier. Both daughters marry men without hemophilia and have 3
children (2 boys and a girl). The carrier daughter has one son with hemophilia. One of the non-carrier
daughter’s sons marries a woman who is a carrier and they have twin daughters. What is the percent
chance that each daughter will also be a carrier?
Answer:
50%
Explanation:
Since the disease is X-linked, males can either be affected or not while females can be affected, unaffected or a carrier for the disease.
Let the allele for hemophilia be h, the alternate will be H
Non-carrier mother's son is a not affected for the disease = [tex]X^H Y[/tex]
A woman who is a carrier = [tex]X^H X^h[/tex]
If the two mate: [tex]X^H Y[/tex] x [tex]X^H X^h[/tex]
Progeny: [tex]X^HX^H, X^HX^h, X^HY and X^hY[/tex]
Out of the two daughters, one is a carrier and the other is unaffected at all.
Hence, the chance of each daughter being a carrier is 50% or 1/2.
Suppose a newborn baby was accidentally mixed up in the hospital. In an effort to determine the parents of the baby, the blood types of the baby and two sets of parents were determined. Baby 1 had type O Mrs. Brown had type B Mr. Brown had type AB Mrs. Smith had type B Mr. Smith had type B .
a. Draw Punnett squares for each couple (you may need to do more than I square/ couple)
b. to which parents does baby # I belong? Why? Hint you may want to refer to your Punnett squares.
Answer:a. Draw Punnett squares for each couple (you may need to do more than 1 square/ couple)
Baby 2 MUST belong to the Browns because Mr. Brown is the only parent with an A allele to
contribute… then the rest works out as follows:
b. To which parents does baby #1 belong? Why? Hint you may want to refer to your Punnett
squares.
Baby 1 must belong to the Smiths, because they are the only ones with the possibility of EACH
having a recessive allele to pass down to the baby, Mr. Brown has type AB blood and therefore
only has the dominant A and dominant B alleles – no recessive allele possible.
Explanation:
Baby I belongs to Mr. and Mrs. Smith.
Individuals Blood type Genotype Parents Name
Baby I O Smith Smith
Mrs. Brown B Bi
Mr. Brown AB AB
Mrs. Smith B Bi
Mr. Smith B Bi
The Punnett squares
[tex]\begin{matrix} & B & B \\ B & BB & \\ & & \end{matrix}[/tex] [tex]\begin{matrix} & B & B \\ B & BB & BB\\ i & Bi & Bi\end{matrix}[/tex]
[tex]\begin{matrix} & B & i \\ B & BB & Bi\\ i & Bi & ii\end{matrix}[/tex]
Since, baby I have O type of blood group, so the baby should have 'i' alleles from both parents. This can be true only when both the parents of the baby I have 'i' allele in their genotypeThus from the Punnett square diagram, we can say that baby I belongs to Mr. and Mrs. Smith.
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50 points Please help
Discuss the importance of oxygen to all living organisms, and describe how three different organisms—human, flatworm, and fern—obtain the oxygen they need
Answer:
Hey hope this helps.
Explanation:
It allows the process of respiration to occur. For humans we inhale oxygen and exhale carbon dioxide. For the flatworm it does the same it inhales oxygen and exhales carbon dioxide. Now for a fern since it is a plant it can not take in oxygen it can only release it. This happens through photosynthesis. It is where plants take in the carbon dioxide and release oxygen.
Oxygen helps the organism to grow, reproduce and get energy from the food through cellular respiration.
Human inhale oxygen and exhale carbon dioxide through the process of respiration.
Flatworm also take up oxygen and release carbon dioxide.
Fern being a plant, takes up carbon dioxide to perform photosynthesis and release oxygen as a byproduct.
Why oxygen is important?Animal requires oxygen for the growth and reproduction as cells die in absence of oxygen.
To get energy from food, oxygen is requires as a terminal electron acceptor for cellular respiration.
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Resistance to pesticides a. is an example of gene flow. b. arises by genetic drift. c. is the result of long-term changes in the pesticide. e. e. e. is independent of the selection coefficient. none of the above
Answer:
none of the above
Explanation:
Resistance to pesticide is caused by genetic mutation. Genetic mutation is an altercation of the Deoxyribonucleic acid sequence that forms the basis of a gene.
When pesticides are introduced to these insects, only those who survived are resistant to the pesticides, the population reduces but yet creating some variant in the gene(allele) over time.
One effect of a mutation, is to create another variant of a gene. When this happens, you have increased the variability of a population, and changed allele frequency. Therefore, there is likelihood that those resistant to the pesticides increase and thrive over time.
The rapid inward diffusion of Na+ followed by the outward diffusion of K+ produces a rapid change in the membrane potential of a neuron called ____.
Answer: depolarization
Explanation:
On depolarization, the sodium gates in the neuron membrane closes after sodium ions flow inside, while potassium gates open causing potassium ions to flow out and reestablish the original resting potential of the membrane.
The rapid change in membrane potential from resting to action potential is DEPOLARIZATION
A lion will sometimes eat a dead, found carcass if the lion is hungry and cannot find living prey. What ecological phenomenon is this an example of?
Answer: lion participate in one or more tropic level
Explanation:
Scavengers can occupy the highest trophic levels.
A scavenger is an animal that eats the dead bodies of animals it has not killed. In nature, there is not a clear dividing line between (Scavengers And Predators). Most carnivores, such as lions, hyenas, and coyotes, will opportunistically consume a carcass if they are hungry. Vultures, although primarily scavengers, will hunt sick or weakened prey. Consequently, these large flesh-eaters exist on two different trophic levels.
Scavenger species often interact at kill sites. More than one species may feed on the same carcass at different stages of decay, or may eat different parts of the carcass.
Answer: b
Explanation:
took the tes
How do the stages of mitosis and meiosis occur in a specific order and never alternate.
Answer:
The cell divides by the two main process known as mitosis and meiosis. The somatic cells divide by the process of mitosis and germ cells divide by the process of meiosis.
The cell follows the sequential pathway - prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase. This specific order follows because the cell cycle have various check point at each stage of the cell cycle. The cyclins and cdk's regulate the transitions from one stage to another stage of the cell cycle. If the cell correctly passes these transition without any defects in the cell.
Energy extraction and the complete oxidation of foodstuffs requires three stages. The energy extracted from fuels is converted to ATP.
Select the statements that are true for the different stages required for energy extraction and complete oxidation of foodstuffs. In the first and second stages the majority of ATP needed for cellular processes is produced.
a. In the third stage, fuel molecules are completely oxidized to CO2, and a small amount of ATP is produced.
b. In the third stage, fuel molecules are completely oxidized to CO2, and most of the ATP needed for cellular processes is produced.
c. In the third stage, fuel molecules are completely oxidized to CO2, and no ATP is produced.
d. In the first stage, macromolecules are converted to monomers, and a small amount of ATP is produced.
e. In the second stage, monomers are broken down, and a small amount of ATP is produced.
The energy extraction and complete oxidation of foodstuffs occurs in three stages. The accurate statements describing these stages are: a) In the third stage, fuel molecules are completely oxidized to CO2, and a small amount of ATP is produced; d) In the first stage, macromolecules are converted to monomers, and a small amount of ATP is produced; e) In the second stage, monomers are broken down, and a small amount of ATP is produced.
Explanation:The processes of energy extraction and complete oxidation of foodstuffs occur in three stages. The statements that accurately describe these stages are as follows:
Statement a: In the third stage, fuel molecules are completely oxidized to CO2, and a small amount of ATP is produced. This is true. During the third stage, namely oxidative phosphorylation, most of the oxidation occurs and some ATP is produced directly.Statement d: In the first stage, macromolecules are converted to monomers, and a small amount of ATP is produced. This is true. This stage, known as digestion, involves breaking down complex macromolecules into simpler monomers. During this process, some ATP is produced.Statement e: In the second stage, monomers are broken down, and a small amount of ATP is produced. This is also true. The second stage, named glycolysis and the citric acid cycle, involves the breakdown of monomers, usually glucose, into pyruvate. Small amounts of ATP are produced in this stage.Therefore, statements a, d, and e accurately represent the stages of energy extraction and complete oxidation of foodstuffs.
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According to the question, Statements b, d, and e are correct.
The three stages of energy extraction and complete oxidation of foodstuffs involve the breakdown of macromolecules to monomers with small ATP production, the conversion of monomers to acetyl-CoA with further small ATP production, and the complete oxidation to CO2 and H2O with most ATP production. Statements b, d, and e are correct.
The process of energy extraction and the complete oxidation of foodstuffs through respiration involves three stages:
Stage I: Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins are broken down into their individual monomer units such as simple sugars, fatty acids, and amino acids. A small amount of ATP is produced during this stage. (d is correct)Stage II: The broken-down monomer units are further processed through metabolic pathways to form a common end product, acetyl-coenzyme A (CoA). A small amount of ATP is also produced during this stage. (e is correct)Stage III: Acetyl-CoA is completely oxidized to form carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O). During this stage, most of the ATP needed for cellular processes is produced. (b is correct). NADH and FADH, produced in earlier stages, participate in the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation, which results in the majority of ATP production.Which of these is not a connective tissue? Adipose tissue Bone Blood Ligaments No exceptions; all of these are connective tissues
Answer: All of these are connective tissue
Explanation:
Answer: All of the mentioned are connective tissue.
Explanation:
Connective tissues are tissues that form matrix under the epithelial layer,they binds, connects and support other tissues or organs. Connective tissues are found between every other tissues in the body. The types of connective tissues are adipose tissues,cartilage, bone, collage,elastic fiblre, reticular fibre, lymphoid tissue,bonemarrow,ligaments and lymphatic. Connective tissues also function in transmitting substances around the body.
_______________ are performed to assess the adequacy of the amount of oxygen getting to the heart muscle and thus indicate the presence or absence of heart disease. The top number on a blood pressure reading is _______________; the bottom number on a blood pressure reading is _______________.
Answer:
STRESS TEST
SYSTOLE
DIASTOLE
Explanation:
A standard exercise stress test employs an EKG (electrocardiogram) to watch closely any variation in the heart's electrical activity, the heart valves, the activities of the heart muscle, if the heart does not have shortage of blood flow during exercise and to study how heart functions when undergoing physical activity.
Diastole and systole are two levels of the cardiac cycle. They are seen during heart beats function as it pumps blood using a collection of blood vessels that transports blood to each and every singular part of the body. Systole is produced during contraction of the heart to pump blood out, and diastole is produced during relaxation of the heart when it contracts.
Let's consider, 120/80 mm Hg. The up figure stands for the level of pressure in the arteries when the heart muscle contracts --- systolic pressure. The below figure stands for blood pressure as seen when the heart muscle is between beats--- diastolic pressure.
Answer:
Stress Test
Systole
Diastole
Explanation:
Stress Test is a medical test the determines the heart potentiality to reply to external stress in a controlled observed environment. The stress response can be triggered or evoked by exercise. Stress Tests are performed to assess the adequacy of the amount of oxygen getting to the heart muscle and thus indicate the presence or absence of heart disease. During this test, a device known as Electrocardiogram (ECG) is used to measure and record the electrical activity of the heart.
The top number on a blood pressure reading is Systole because during this period, it is a period of contraction, therefore the heart muscles are contracting thereby ejecting blood into the aorta and pulmonary trunk.
The bottom number on a blood pressure reading is Diastole because it is a period of relaxation of the heart muscle. Here, three coronary arteries surrounds the heart whereby the heart receives blood. When these arteries are clear, amount of blood moving into the heart muscle is supplied in adequate proportion. The heart muscles receives little blood and oxygen during low blood pressure level. This is caused by some certain event (e.g exercise) where the heart beats faster and as the heart beats faster, the heart rate drops in level and started to increase and the diastolic pressure decreases. This is what results to little amount of blood and oxygen that is received by the heart muscles as being said earlier.
In the shotgun approach to whole-genome sequencing (shotgun sequencing), random DNA fragments of a chromosome are sequenced. The fragment sequences are then assembled into a continuous sequence that represents the DNA of the entire chromosome.
Remainder of question from another source:
What are the steps in the shotgun approach to whole-genome sequencing?
PLACE IN ORDER
A. 1-kb fragments are cloned into plasmids.
B. Chromosomes copies are broken into 1-kb fragments
C. The plasmids are sequenced.
D. Multiple copies of the same chromosome are prepared.
E. A computer combines the fragments sequences.
Answer:
DBACE
Explanation:
First, multiple copies of an entire chromosome are created (D). Then, the chromosome is fragmented into lots of pieces approximately 1kb in length. These pieces will contain overlapping sequences (B). Next, the newly created 1kb fragments will be cloned into plasmid vectors (A). The plasmids containing the DNA fragments are then sequenced (C), and the sequence is combined and aligned by a computer, aided by the fact the fragments are overlapping (E).
How might water on the surface of the solid culture medium cause the disruption of colony formation?
Answer: There can be few reasons why surface on water can be harmful to the bacterial colony.
Explanation:
It is possible that while preparing the media for the bacterial colony that the constituents might not have been taken right proportion and water is more in it.
It tends to float on the surface and if the bacterial colony is not able to grow in such an environment it will led to the death of the colony.
There are chances that the mobility of the bacterial species increases in water and because of this there will be problems faced at the time of isolation.
Question 10-1. Why is the Carnot cycle not a realistic model for steam power plants? Please select all corrected answers. Group of answer choices High moisture content in the turbine section Seeking higher thermal efficiencies using other power cycles. Limiting the heat transfer processes to two-phase systems.
Questions does not provide enough details therefore i have added full question with answer see attached picture.
Answer:
Carnot cycle is not a realistic model for steam power plant due to the following reasons:
1. Isentropically pumping two phase flow is not practical
2. High moisture content in the turbine section.
3. Limiting the heat transfer processes to two-phase systems.
Which of the following best describes the natural process that occurs during malting?
A) a seed begins to grow into a new plant
B) living plant begins to decay
C) flower produces seeds
D) fruit transported by other animals
Answer:
A) a seed begins to grow into a new plant
Explanation:
Malting is a process of growth and drying that causes a change in the structure of cell walls, proteins, and starch granules. The process entails the steeping to increase the moisture content required for germination process, to modify the kernel and to dry it.
Malting is the process of a seed growing into a new plant. It involves soaking, germination, and drying of cereal grains in controlled conditions. This activates enzymes that convert starches into sugars.
option a is correct
Explanation:The natural process that occurs during malting is when a seed begins to grow into a new plant. Malting is a process of germinating cereal grains, such as barley, under controlled conditions.
During the malting process, the grains are soaked, allowed to germinate, and then dried. This process activates enzymes in the grain, which convert starches into sugars that can be used by the developing plant.
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Beatrice and Allen Gardner taught the chimpanzee Washoe to communicate by means of:A) pictures.B) Morse code.C) sign language.D) a simplified typewriter
Answer:
The correct answer is - option C) sign language.
Explanation:
Washoe was a chimpanzee used in a research experiment. According to Beatrice and Allen Gardner, this chimpanzee is the first non-human to learn and communicative with the help of American sign language. Washoe learned about 350 signs of ASL, an American sign language. It was part of the research experiment on animals.
Thus, the correct answer is - optic C.
"In order to have reached this conclusion, the Grants must have either assumed or proven that several other facts about the finch population were true. Which statements represent information that must be true in order for the Grants conclusion to be correct
Note:
Question is incomplete I have added the full question at the end of this answer.
Answer:
All these below statements are in parallel with the research publication published in 2006 about darwin's work. Furthermore, Darwin proved that beak evolution occurred at Galapagos island.
Correct Options are
1. Beak size varies among the birds in the finch population under study.
2. Birds that could eat larger, tougher seeds survived and reproduced during the drought.
3. Beak size is an inherited trait in the finch population under study.
Reference:
Grant, Peter R., and B. Rosemary Grant. "Evolution of character displacement in Darwin's finches." science 313.5784 (2006): 224-226.
FULL QUESTION
"Population thinking" is essential to the idea of natural selection. Rather than thinking of populations or species as sets of mostly identical individuals, Darwin and Wallace understood that a great deal of heritable variation occurs among individuals within populations. Which example best illustrates this idea?
"Population thinking" is essential to the idea of natural selection. Rather than thinking of populations or species as sets of mostly identical individuals, Darwin and Wallace understood that a great deal of heritable variation occurs among individuals within populations. Which example best illustrates this idea?
Giraffes have longer necks than zebras.
You have a different eye color than your classmate.
Soybeans have a higher protein content than corn.
You have a different haircut than your classmate.
You have a different eye color than your classmate.
How did the drought lead to an increase in beak size in the medium ground finch population? The Grants reasoned that
prior to the drought, the finch population fed primarily on small seeds that they could open easily. Although larger, tougher seeds were available, they were not typically eaten, not even by finches with larger beaks.
during the drought, only a limited number of small seeds were produced, leaving mostly larger, tougher seeds available for food. Finches that were unable to eat the larger seeds died of starvation.
Based on their observations and the data they collected, the Grants concluded that evolution by natural selection had occurred in the medium ground finch population. The increase in the average beak size of the offspring was a direct result of the change in the food supply during the drought.
In order to have reached this conclusion, the Grants must have either assumed or proven that several other facts about the finch population were true. Which statements represent information that must be true in order for the Grants conclusion to be correct?
Select the three statements that must be true.
Select the three statements that must be true.
An individual finch's beak size can change depending on the size of the seeds it eats.
Beak size varies among the birds in the finch population under study.
Birds that could eat larger, tougher seeds survived and reproduced during the drought.
Beak size is an inherited trait in the finch population under study.
The drought caused a mutation that led to larger beak sizes in the finch population.
Which of the following is NOT a property of smooth endoplasmic reticulum? Which of the following is NOT a property of smooth endoplasmic reticulum? steroid hormone synthesis stores steroid hormones stores calcium forms transport vesicles to move proteins to the Golgi apparatus In liver cells, it contains detoxifying enzymes.
Answer: D - forms transport vesicles to move proteins to the Golgi apparatus
Explanation:
The function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum(SER) varies, depending on cell type.
1. SER is important in the synthesis of lipids, such as cholesterol and phospholipids, which form all the membranes of the organism. In some cells, such as those of the adrenal gland and certain other endocrine glands, it plays a key role in the synthesis of steroid hormones from cholesterol.
2. In the liver, enzymes in the SER catalyze reactions that render drugs, metabolic wastes, and harmful chemicals water-soluble, thereby contributing to their detoxification, or removal, from the body. The SER also plays a role in the conversion of glycogen to glucose, with glucose-6-phosphatase, an enzyme present in SER, catalyzing the final step in glucose production in the liver.
3. In skeletal muscle cells, SER occurs as a specialized membrane structure known as the sarcoplasmic reticulum. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is a critical storage site for calcium ions, taking up the ions from the cytoplasm. It also releases calcium ions when the muscle cell is triggered by nerve stimuli, resulting in muscle contraction. In this way, the sarcoplasmic reticulum helps regulate calcium ion concentrations in the cytoplasm of skeletal muscle cells. The sarcoplasmic reticulum is also found in smooth muscle cells, though in a more loosely organized form than in skeletal muscle.
Answer:
The SER does not form transport vesicles to move proteins to the Golgi apparatus.
Explanation:
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum carried out varries functions such as the synthesis and storage of steroid hormones, the regulation of calcium by sequestering it. SER also contains detoxifying enzymes that detoxifies a wide range of drugs and poisons.
The smooth endoplasmic reticulum does not form transport vessicles but it is the rough endoplasmic reticulum that does, because the RER is the site for protein synthesis and then it's transport to the golgi apparatus and other destinations.